Q1. कोई वस्तु अपने विराम x = 0 m से चलना शुरू करती है और x अक्ष के पास 1.6 m/s2 के नियत त्वरण के साथ घूम जाती है। x = 12.8 से लेकर x = 20.0 तक इसकी यात्रा के दौरान, इसकी औसत वेग कितनी है ?

a. 7.2 m/s
b. 2.4 m/s
c. 3.6 m/s
d. 8.8 m/s

Q2. 200 g भार वाले लोहे क्र टुकड़े पर ऊष्मा 30°C से बढ़ाकर 60°C की जाती है। टुकड़े पर कितनी ऊष्मा स्थानांतरित की गई थी ?

a. 27 J
b. 2700 J
c. 270 J
d. 6000 J

Q3. 86°F निम्नलिखित में से किसके बराबर है ?

a. 30°C
b. 20°C
c. 34°C
d. 10°C

Q4. गिरती हुई वस्तुओं से अपने ____ का सुरक्षा के लिए निर्दिष्ट क्षेत्रों में सेफ्टी बूट या जुते पहनने चाहिए।

a. कान
b. पैर के पंजे
c. आंख
d. सिर

Q5. लम्बाई L और त्रिज्या R वाले किसी बेलनाकार तार का प्रतिरोध R है। उसी सामग्री में बनी तिगुनी लम्बी और एक-तिहाई अधिक त्रिज्या वाली तार का प्रतिरोध कितना होगा ?

a. 27R
b. R
c. 3R
d. 9R

Q6. क्लास 1 लिवर का प्रयास __________ दिशा में होता है।

a. एक
b. दो
c. तीन
d. बहुत सारे

Q7. लम्बाई L और त्रिज्या R वाले किसी बेलनाकार तार का प्रतिरोध R है। उसी सामग्री में बनी उसकी आधी लम्बाई वाली और आधी त्रिज्य वाले तार का प्रतिरोध कितना होगा ?

a. 4R
b. 2R
c. R/2
d. R

Q8. एक गोलार्थ का गोलाई वाला क्षेत्रफल कितना होगा जिसकी त्रिज्या 7 सेंटीमीटर है ?

a. 154 वर्ग सेंटीमीटर
b. 308 वर्ग सेंटीमीटर
c. 924 वर्ग सेंटीमीटर
d. 616 वर्ग सेंटीमीटर

Q9. कोणीय माप में, एक रेडियन का मान कितने डिग्री के बराबर होता है ?

a. 57.27
b. 65.27
c. 90
d. 180

Q10. यदि किसी मानक इंजीनियरिंग आरेख शीट की चौड़ाई 841 mm है, तो इसकी लम्बाई ________ mm होगी।

a. 1189
b. 1216
c. 1000
d. 1250

Q11. किसी सामग्री के __________ का मान जितना अधिक होगा, उतनी ही तेज़ी से यह ऊष्मा को संचालित करेगा।

a. रिजिलेशन
b. गुप्त उष्मा
c. ऊष्मीय चालकता
d. गलनांक

Q12. जब भी शोर का स्तर शोर के मानक जोखिम से अधिक जो जाता है, तो ________ सुरक्षा पहनी जानी चाहिए।

a. क्षवण
b. आंख
c. पैर
d. सिर

Q13. दो प्रतिरोधकों, 2 Ω और 6Ω को श्रृंखला में जोड़ा जाता है और इस संयोजना को 12 V बैटरी से जोड़ा जाता है। बैटरी द्वारा आपूर्ति की जाने वाली शक्ति ज्ञात करें।

a. 18 W
b. 16 W
c. 14 W
d. 10 W

Q14. निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से किस विकल्प की एस.आई. इकाई नहीं होती है ?

a. प्रकाश की तीव्रता
b. विद्युत धारा
c. आवृत्ति
d. पदार्थ की मात्रा

Q15. कोई पिंड विराम से चलना शुरू करता है। इसका विस्थापन के समानुपातिक तब होता है, जब इसका त्वरण स्थिर हो।

a. समय
b. शुरू किये गए समय
c. काम
d. वेग

Q16. किसी भार को सतानान्तरित करने के लिए किया गया प्रयास 15 यूनिट है और मशीन द्वारा किया गया कार्य 3 है। तो भार ज्ञात करें।

a. 3 यूनिट
b. 15 यूनिट
c. 5 यूनिट
d. 45 यूनिट

Q17. दो प्रतिरोधकों, 2 Ω और 6 Ω को श्रृंखला में जोड़ा जाता है और इस संयोजना को 12V बैटरी से जोड़ा जाता है। 6 Ω वाले प्रतिरोधक में धारा ज्ञात करें।

a. 0.5 A
b. 1.5 A
c. 3.5 A
d. 2.5 A

Q18. निम्नलिखित में कौन उस सैद्धांतिक निश्चित तल, अक्ष या बिंदु स्थान की व्याख्या करता है, जो जी.डी. और T या आयमी सहयता को भी संदर्भित करता है ?

a. फ्रेम
b. फ्लैज
c. तथ्य
d. अनुभाग

Q19. यदि कोई पिंड सजातीय नहीं है, तो इसका घनत्व इसके _________ की क्रिया है |

a. दाब
b. वैग
c. त्वरण
d. स्थान

Q20. दो प्रतिरोधक, 12 Ω और 24 Ω को समांतर (पैरेलल) में जोड़ा जाता है | इस संयोजन को 22 Ω प्रतिरोधक और 12 V बैटरी के साथ श्रखला (सीरीज) में जोड़ जाता है | 12 Ω वाले प्रतिरोधक मैं धारा कितनी होगी ?

a. (4/15) A
b. (6/15) A
c. (2/15) A
d. (8/15) A

 

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Q21. किसी पीतल की छड़ (उष्मा चालकता 109 J/(m- k)) मै अनुप्रस्थ काट का क्षेत्रफल 0.04 m2 और लम्बाई 20 cm है | यदि छड़ के दोनों सीरो पर 200o C के तापमान का अंतर वनाए रखा जाता है, तो छड़ के माध्यम से उष्मा प्रवाह की दर क्या होगी ?

a. 3.42 KJ/s
b. 2.32 KJ/s
c. 5.80 KJ/s
d. 4.36 KJ/s

Q22. इंजीनियरिंग आरेख में, अक्सर LH निनलिखित में से किसके संकेत है?

a. लेवल हाईड (Level Hide)
b. लो हीट (Low Heat)
c. लेफ्ट हैंड (Left Hand)
d. लिमिट of हाइट (Limit of Height)

Q23. यदि किसी मशीन पर भार 'L' है और भार द्वारा तय की गई दूरी 'Ld' है, तो भार द्वारा किया गया कार्य कितना होगा?

a. Ld/L
b. 1/L x Ld
c. L/Ld
d. L x Ld

Q24. किसी इंजीनियरिंग आरेख में संछिप्त रूप क्या है?

a. अक्रॉस कार्नर (Across Corners)
b. एरियल कट (Aerial Cut)
c. एयर कंडीशनिंग (Air Conditioning)
d. अटैच्ड सर्किल (Attached Circle)

Q25. पानी की निश्चित्त मात्रा जा आयतन 00 C से 40 के बीच _____ है|

a. स्थिर रहता है |
b. कम होता है |
c. शून्य होता है |
d. बढ़ता है |

Q26. समिद्र के पानी के स्तर का बढ़ना और घटना मुख्य रूप से घूमती हुई पृथ्वी पर _________ के गुरुत्वाकर्षण प्रभाव के कारण होता है |

a. चन्द्रमा
b. सूर्य
c. बुध ग्रह
d. शुक्र

Q27. यदि किसी तल से मिलने के लिए सरल रेखाओ को किसी वस्तु के समोच्च पर बिभिन्न बन्दूओ से खींचा जाता है, तो तल पर प्राप्त होने वाले चित्र को वस्तु का ______कहा जाता है|

a. एनीमेशन्स
b. आयाम
c. प्रक्षेपण
d. विकास

Q28. वोल्टेज वाला कोई स्रोत किसी परिपथ सर्किट में धारा | को बनाए रखता है | समय में द्वारा पारिपथ को भेजी गई ऊर्जा कितनी होगी?

a. Vi/t
b. 1/Vit
c. V/it
d. Vit

Q29. अन्य कंप्यूटर को नुक्सान पहुंचाने के लिए बनाए गए सॉफ्टवेयर प्रोग्राम को कहा जाता है |

a. मैलवेयर
b. लोकल एरिया नेटवर्क
c. ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम
d. सर्वर

Q30. कोई कार 400 की दुरी 20 सेकंड में तय करती है कार की औसत गति(km/h) ज्ञात करे|

a. 36
b. 124
c. 108
d. 72

Q31. दो प्रतिरोधको, 10 ᘯ और 20 ᘯ को श्रृंखला (सीरीज) में जोड़ा जाता है और इस संयोजन में वोल्टेज आपूर्ति 30 V दी जाती है| 10 ᘯ वाले प्रतिरोधक का वोल्टेज ज्ञात करे|

a. 15 V
b. 10 V
c. 20 V
d. 5 V

Q32. पृथ्वी पर किसी वस्तु का द्रव्यमान X इकाई है। यदि हम उसी वस्तु को चन्द्रमा पर ले जाएं, तो उसका वजन कितना होगा ?

a. शून्य
b. X के बराबर
c. X से अधिक
d. X से कम

Q33. यदि किसी पिंड का विशिष्ट गुरुत्वाकर्षण 1 से काम है, तो यह _________ में/पर तैरने लगेगा।

a. पारा
b. द्रव
c. पानी
d. हवा

Q34. एक हवाईजहाज 50 m/s की गति से उड़ता है। यह 5 घंटे में कितनी दुरी तय करेगा ?

a. 850
b. 895
c. 900
d. 880

Q35. बैक्टीरिया की खोज करने वाले वैज्ञानिक का नाम क्या है ?

a. ए. वी. ल्यूवेन्हॉक
b. यूजीन गोल्डस्टाइन
c. जेम्स चैडविक
d. रॉबर्ट कोच

Q36. उस सामग्री की पहचान करें, जिसमें आयतन विस्तार का निम्न गुणांक होता है।

a. पीतल
b. पारा
c. अल्युमिनियम
d. आयरन

Q37. जैविक प्रक्रिया द्वारा विभाजित पदार्थो को क्या कहा जाता है ?

a. पुन: प्रयोज्य
b. गैर-पुन: प्रयोज्य
c. जैव निम्नीकरणीय
d. गैर-जैव निम्नीकरणीय

Q38. 1 Kg वजन गेंद की गति को 2m/s से बढ़ाकर 4m/s करने के लिए तरह के कार्य को करने की आवश्यकता होती है ?

a. 12 J
b. 6 J
c. 10 J
d. 8 J

Q39. सरल मशीन के वेग का अनुपात मशीन में ________ द्वारा तय दुरी और ________ द्वारा तय दुरी का अनुपात होता है।

a. भार; भार
b. भार; प्रयास
c. प्रयास; भार
d. प्रयास; प्रयास

Q40. उस सामग्री की पहचान करें, जिसमें आयतन विस्तार का उच्च गुणांक होता है।

a. एल्कोहॉल
b. पीतल
c. पानी
d. कांच

 

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रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड लोको पायलट परीक्षा (Stage-1) अध्ययन सामग्री

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Answer:
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21.(a) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (d)

Q1. एक पतलून खरीदने में 2000 खर्च हुए। खर्च हुए पैसे राशि के पास के कुल पैसे का 2/5वां भाग थे। उसके पास कुल कितने पैसे थे ?

a. Rs. 5000
b. Rs. 4250
c. Rs. 4750
d. Rs. 4000

Q2. एक परीक्षा में, उच्चतम और निम्नतम प्राप्तांकों में 55 का अंतर् था और उच्च निम्न से 9/4 गुना अधिक था।

a. 44
b. 36
c. 40
d. 48

Q3. Sec 45° - Tan 60° = ?

a. -√3 + √2
b. √3 + √2
c. -√3 - √2
d. √3/2

Q4. 3⁶⁶ x 6⁴¹ x 7⁵³ में इकाई का अंक क्या है ?

a. 7
b. 8
c. 6
d. 3

Q5. वह सबसे छोटी संख्या कौनसी है जिसे दोगुना करने पर वह 7, 12 और 15 से पूर्णतः विभाज्य होती है ?

a. 210
b. 215
c. 220
d. 214

Q6. 90 के 50% का 80% कितना होगा ?

a. 36
b. 32
c. 30
d. 34

Q7. X और Y की उम्र का अनुपात 4:7 है। तीन वर्ष पहले, उनकी उम्र का अनुपात 1:2 था। उनकी वर्तमान उम्र में कितना अंतर (Y-X) है ?

a. 6
b. 3
c. 7.5
d. 9

Q8. एक विक्रेता अपने कार्यालय से रवाना होकर अपनी गाड़ी से 2 किलोमीटर पूर्व में चलता है, फिर उत्तर की ओर मुड़कर 7 किलोमीटर चलता है , इसके बाद वह अपने दाए मुड़ता है और 6 किलोमीटर चलता है, अंत मैं वह दछिण की और मुड़कर 7 चलता है | वह अपनी आरंभिक स्थिति के संदर्भ मैं अब कहा है ?

a. 4 किलोमीटर पश्चिम
b. 8 किलोमीटर पश्चिम
c. 4 किलोमीटर पूर्व
d. 8 किलोमीटर पूर्व

Q9. यदि x = √125 X √30 X √6 ,तो x का मान क्या होगा ?

a. 175
b. 136
c. 150
d. 125

Q10. A और B एक काम को 15 दिन मैं पूरा कर सकते है, B और C इस काम को 20 दिन में पूरा कर सकते है और C इस काम को 10 दिन में पूरा कर सकता है| तीनो को मिलकर काम पूरा करने में कितने दिन लगेंगे?

a. 10.91 दिन
b. 10.67 दिन
c. 9.23 दिन
d. 10.71 दिन

Q11. कोई मोटरसाइकिल 36 km/hr की रफ़्तार से 1000 m की दूरी तय करती है | इस दूरी को तय करने के लिए मोटरसाइकिल द्वारा लिया गया सयम (सेकंड में) ज्ञात करे |

a. 400
b. 200
c. 100
d. 300

Q12. यदि 5050 x 0.5x = 25250, तो 2505÷x² = ?

a. 0.2505
b. 2.505
c. 250.5
d. 25.05

 

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रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड लोको पायलट परीक्षा (Stage-1) अध्ययन सामग्री

Q13. पाइप A और B एक टैंक को क्र्मशः 12 और 16 मिनट में भर सकते है | चार मिनट के लिए A और B दोनों चालू किए जाते है और फिर A को बंद कर दिया जाता है | टैंक को पूरा भरने में B को कितना समय और लागेगा?

a. 21/4 मिनट
b. 20/3 मिनट
c. 6 मिनट
d. 7 मिनट

Q14. 10,000 की राशि 2 वर्ष में 11,449 हो जाती है जबकी ब्याज वार्षिक रूप से चक्रबृद्धि किया जा रहा हो प्रति वर्ष ब्याज दर कितनी है?

a. 7%
b. 8%
c. 1%
d. 6%

Q15. यदि sin θ = 15/17, तो cot θ = ?

a. 17/15
b. 8/15
c. 15/8
d. 8/17

Q16. एक मशीन Rs.1,500 में खरीदी गई और उसे ठीक करवाने में Rs.100 और खर्च हुए उसे कितने मूल्य पर बेचा जाए की 25% का लाभ प्राप्त हो

a. Rs. 1,920
b. Rs. 2,040
c. Rs. 1,960
d. Rs. 2,000

Q17. चार अंको की संख्या 1xy7, 11 से पूर्णतः विभाज्य है| x-y का मान क्या होगा?

a. – 8
b. – 4
c. – 6
d. – 2

Q18. एक सिस्टर्न को नल M और N दोनों मिलाकर मिनट में भर सकते है अकेला N इसे 6 मिनट में भर सकता है? M को अकेले सिस्टर्न को भरने में कितना समय लगेगा ?

a. 9.4 मिनट
b. 9 मिनट
c. 8.6 मिनट
d. 9.6 मिनट

Q19. A 10 दिन में एक काम का 2/5 हिस्सा पूरा कर सकता है| B 10 दिन में उस काम का ½ हिस्सा पूरा कर सकता है| उन्होंने 5 दिन मिलकर काम किया जिसके बाद A ने काम करना छोड़ दिया B शेष काम को कितने दिन में पूरा करेगा?

a. 9
b. 11
c. 10
d. 8

Q20. A को अपने लाभांश के रूप में Rs. 80 मिले जबकि कुल लाभ Rs. 240 थे और A और B के बीच लाभ के वितरण का अनुपात था। x का मान क्या है ?

a. 2
b. 5
c. 4
d. 1

Q21. एक संख्या 50 से उतनी ही अधिक है जितनी 84 से कम है। वह संख्या क्या है ?

a. 68
b. 66
c. 67
d. 65

Q22. पाई चार्ट एक कंपनी के विभिन्न खर्चो का प्रतिशत प्रदर्शित करता है। चित्र का अध्ययन करें और निम्न प्रश्न का उत्तर दें।

यदि कुल खर्चे Rs. 25,000 हो तो ब्याज पर लगभग खर्च कितना है ?

a. Rs. 2,500
b. Rs. 5,000
c. Rs. 9,000
d. Rs. 1,800

Q23. बिन्दुओ (4, 3) और (3, -2) के बीच की दुरी कितनी है ?

a. 5
b. 6
c. √26
d. √24

Q24. एक वस्तु को Rs. 12000 में बेचा गया। यदि 15% छूट दी जाए, तो 2% का लाभ होता है। वस्तु का क्रय मूल्य क्या था ?

a. 10200
b. 11000
c. 10800
d. 10000

Q25. बिंदु (-2, -6) का Y-अक्ष पर प्रतिबिंब क्या होगा ?

a. (-2, 6)
b. (-6, -2)
c. (2, -6)
d. (2, 6)

(E-Book) RRB आरआरबी सहायक लोको पायलट Assistant Loco Pilot (ALP) हिंदी Hindi Exam Papers PDF

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Answers:
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (d)
21.(c) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (c)

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(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Date: 08 Dec 2016 Shift-1 (Reasoning)

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Q1. If KNIFE is coded as MPKHG, then what does the code DTGCF stand for ?

a. FVIEG
b. FVIEI1
c. BREAD
d. BRAED

Q2. If COW is coded as 358, WORD is coded as 8571 and DRAW is coded as 1708 then COWARD will be coded as :

a. 358017
b. 358071
c. 358077
d. None of the above

Q3. If after 3 days of tomorrow is Friday, what day was three days before yesterday ?

a. Friday
b. Thursday
c. Tuesday
d. None of the above

Q4. 1, 3, 4, 5, 7, 9, 11, _____ ?

a. 12
b. 14
c. 15
d. None of the above

Q5. 7, 20, 46, 98, 202,

a. 420
b. 410
c. 380
d. None of the above

Q6. What is the next term is this series:
12A6Z, 24C4X, 36E2V,_____________

a. 48F0T
b. 48F9T
c. 48F9S
d. 48G0T

Q7. Read the given question and decide which of the following statement is/are sufficient to answer the question.

Who is standing in the middle among Y, O and P?

Statements:
1. Y is standing to the right of O.
2. P is standing to the right of Y.

a. Statements 1 and 2 together are insufficient.
b. Statement 1 alone is sufficient.
c. Statements 1 and 2 together are sufficient
d. Statement 2 alone is sufficient

Q8. If ‘+’ is ‘x‘ , ‘-‘ is ‘+’ , ‘x’ is ‘+’ and ‘+’ is ‘-‘ then
5 – 9 + 7 x 3 6 = ?

a. 20
b. 0
c. 26
d. 10

Q9. AD EI IN OS ?

a. UX
b. XY
c. WY
d. UY

Q10. From the following alternatives select the word which can’t be formed by using the letters of the word.
ESTRANGEMENT

a. ATANGENT
b. GERMAN
c. TREATMENT
d. ENTREAT

Q11. In a class of 45 students, Sohan is placed eighth from the bottom, whereas Mohan is placed tenth from the top. Rohan is placed exactly in between the two. What is Rohan's position from Mohan?

a. 14th
b. 13th
c. 15th
d. 10th

Q12. In question, some statements are given, followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements. Indicate your answer.

Statements:
All mobiles are laptops.
Some laptops are tablets.

Conclusions:
I. All tablets being mobiles is a possibility.
II. All laptops being tablets is a possibility.

a. If only conclusion I follow
b. If only conclusion II follow
c. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
d. If both the conclusions follow

Q13. Count the number of squares in the given figure.

a. 11
b. 21
c. 24
d. 26

Q14. 15 16 ? 29 45

a. 20
b. 17
c. 19
d. 22

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Q15. How many such pair(s) of letters are there in the word ‘POCKETBOOK’ which have as many letters between them as in the alphabetical series as we move from left to right?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

Q16. AN, CP, ER, ?

a. VI
b. GT
c. AP
d. WJ

Q17. Directions: Study the following questions carefully and choose the right answer:

Statements: D ≥ S , X < W, S = J, W > Y, X > D, Y ≤ O, J ≥ E

Conclusions:
(i) D > E
(ii) D = E
(iii) O > S

a. Only conclusion (i) follows
b. Both conclusions (i) and (iii) follow
c. Only conclusion (iii) follows
d. Either conclusion (i) or (ii) follows

Q18. Select the one which is different from the other three responses.

a. 18 – 26
b. 30 – 37
c. 54 – 62
d. 77 – 85

Q19. If first and third digits of each number are interchanged and then numbers are arranged in ascending order then which of the following will be the second number from right end?

a. 2764
b. 9862
c. 7983
d. 5493

Q20. Directions: Study the following questions carefully and choose the right answer:

Statement : Footpaths of a busy road are crowded with vendors selling cheap items.

Courses of action :
I. The help of police should be sought to drive them away.
II. Some space should be provided to them where they can earn their bread without blocking footpaths.

a. Only I follows
b. Only II follows
c. Both I and II follow
d. Neither I or II follows

Q21. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside:
Garv is the son of Sashi. Heer is the father of Manu. Garv is married to Devi. Garv and Manu are siblings. Prem is the brother of Devi. Sashi has only one son. Riya is the son of Garv. Prem is the father of Kaka. Joshi is the daughter of Manu. Prem has no daughters.
How many female(s) members are there in the family?

a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five

Q22. Find the Missing number?

a. 20160
b. 20600
c. 21060
d. 23040

Q23. Directions: Study the following questions carefully and choose the right answer:

Statement: The sale of a particular product has gone down considerably causing great concern to the company.

Courses of action:
I. The company should make a proper study of rival products in the market.
II. The price of the product should be reduced and quality improved.

a. Only I follows
b. Only II follows
c. Either I or II follows
d. Neither I nor II follows

Q24. If all the digits are arranged in ascending order within each of the numbers and the product of first two digits of each new number is caculated, which of the following original number gives an odd number as resultant?

a. 6278
b. 5493
c. 2764
d. 7983

Q25. `Select the one which is different from the other three responses.

a. 8 – 11
b. 1 – 4
c. 7 – 10
d. 3 – 5

Q26. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters A, D, E and R using all the letters, and each letter only once in each word?

a. None
b. One
c. Two
d. Three

Q27. Ritesh starts from P and walks 2 km east up to Q and turns southwards and walks 1 km up to R. At R he turns towards east and walks 2 km up to S. He then turns northwards and walks 4 km to U. How far is he from his starting point?

a. 3 Km
b. 4 Km
c. 5 Km
d. 6 Km

Q28. If '+' means 'divided by', '-' means 'added to', '×' means 'subtracted from' and '÷' means 'multiplied by' then 24 ÷ 12 - 18 + 9 ?

a. -25
b. 0.72
c. 15.30
d. 290

Q29. Six cars from C1 to C6 participated in a race. Which car stood at first position?

Statement I : C1 finished the race before two cars only. C3 was not the last one to finish the race. C4 finished the race just before C5.

Statement II : No other car finished the race after C6, which finished the race just after C3. C2 finished the race before C3.

a. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
b. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
c. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
d. If the data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Q30. C J P ? Y B

a. W
b. U
c. R
d. T

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Answer:
1. (c), 2. (b), 3. (c), 4. (a), 5. (b), 6. (d), 7. (c), 8. (a), 9. (a), 10. (c), 11. (a), 12. (d), 13. (c), 14. (a), 15. (b), 16. (b), 17. (d), 18. (b), 19. (c), 20. (c), 21. (c), 22. (a), 23. (a), 24. (d), 25. (d), 26. (d), 27. (c), 28. (d), 29. (d), 30. (b)
 

Q1. A student was asked to divide a number by 3. But instead of dividing it, he multipled it by 3 and got 29.7. What was the correct answer ?

a. 3.3
b. 3.9
c. 9.9
d. None of the above

Q2. What is the smallest number by which 3600 must be divided to make a perfect cube ?

a. 45
b. 50
c. 300
d. 450

Q3. A rope makes 140 rounds of the circumference of a cylinder, the radius of whose base is 14 cm. How many times can the same rope go round a cylinder with radius 20 Cm ?

a. 28
b. 98
c. 116
d. None of the above

Q4. A man completes a journey in 8 hours. He covers half the distance at 40 km/hr and the rest at 60 km/hr. the length of the journey is :

a. 450 km
b. 420 km
c. 384 km
d. None of the above

Q5. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of tea costing Rs.15 and Rs.20perkg respectively so as to get a mixture worth Rs.16.50 per kg ?

a. 3:7
b. 5 : ?
c. 7 : 3
d. None of the above

Q6. (0.07% of 1250) - (0.02% of 650) - ?

a. 0.545
b. 0.625
c. 0.745
d. None of the above

Q7. The product of two positive numbers is 2500. If one is four the other. then the sum of two numbers is

a. 25
b. 125
c. 225
d. None of the above

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Q8. The marked price of an object is Rs. 1920. The shopkeeper allows a discount of 10% and gains 8%. If no di aunt is allowed his gain percent would be :

a. 18%
b. 20%
c. 22.5%
d. None of the above

Q9. One year ago a man was 7 times as old as his son. Now his age is equal to the square of his son's age. The present age of the man is :

a. 36 Years
b. 49 Years
c. 64 Years
d. None of the above

Q10. The ratio of cost price and selling price of an articl k is 20 : 21. What is the profit percent on it ?

a. 5%
b. 6.25%
c. 7.5%
d. None of the above

Q11. Which of the following is the lowest ratio ?

a. 7 : 13
b. 17 : 25
c. 17 : 15
d. 15 : 23

Q12. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 11 and their L.C.M. is 7700. If one of the numbers is 275, the other is :

a. 279
b. 283
c. 308
d. None of the above

Q13. A, B, C started a shop by investing Rs.27,000, Rs.81,000 and Rs.72,000 respectively. At the end of one yi ar, B's share of total profit was Rs.36,000. What was the total profit ?

a. Rs. 116000
b. Rs. 108000
c. Rs. 80000
d. None of the above

Q14. A mixture of 40 litres of milk and water contains 10% of water. How much water should be added to this mixture so that the new mixture contains 20% water ?

a. 4 litres
b. 5 litres
c. 7.5 litres
d. None of the above

Q15. Price of 5 chairs and 2 tables is Rs. 1350. Two chairs cost as much as one table. What is the price of one chair and one table ?

a. Rs. 350
b. Rs. 450
c. Rs. 500
d. Rs. 550

Q16. If 3 persons weave 336 shawls in 14 days, how many shawls will 8 persons weave in 5 days ?

a. 360
b. 320
c. 180
d. None of the above

Q17. Average of 15 numbers is 7. Out of them the average of first 8 numbers is 6.5 and the average of last eight numbers is 9.5. The middle number is :

a. 21
b. 22
c. 23
d. None of the above

Q18. he sum of the ages of Kidambi and Srikanth 14 years hence will be equal to 2 times their present age. If at present Kidambi is 8 years elder to Srikanth, then what are their present ages?

a. 22, 8
b. 29, 12
c. 18, 10
d. 13, 6

Q19. Mayank said to his friend “If you subtract 18 from my age the two digits of my age will reverse their positions. Also my age is six less than 8 times the sum of digits of my age”. Find Mayank's age.

a. 46 years
b. 37 years
c. 56 years
d. 42 years

Q20. If the average age of a class is 15 (including the age of the teacher); that of the boys is 10 and if the age of the teacher is 13 more than the average age of the girls , then what is the average age of the girls, given that the number of boys and girls is the same?

a. 11
b. 12
c. 13
d. NA

Q21. There are three Pathan brothers Yusuf Pathan, Irfan Pathan and Saddam Pathan. The sum of the squares of the their ages (in completed years) is 325. If the product of their ages does not exceed 1000, find the age (in years) of the youngest brother.

a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 9

Q22. The average age of a family of five members is 20 years. If the age of the youngest member is 10 years as of now, what was the average age of the family just a day before the birth of the youngest member? Assume that no other members have been added to or removed from this family in this period?

a. 15 years
b. 12.5 years
c. 16 years
d. 11 years

Q23. If 6 years is subtracted from the present age of Randheer and the remainder is divided by 18, then the present age of his grandson Anup is obtained, If Anup is 2 year younger than Mahesh whose age is 5 Years, then what is the age of Randheer?

a. 96 years
b. 84 years
c. 48 years
d. 60 years

Q24. A shopkeeper deals in milk and 45 litre mixture is to be distributed in Milk & Water in the ratio of 4 : 1. If 4 litre milk & 3 litre water will be added in the mixture then what will be the new ratio of water and milk?

a. 5 : 6
b. 3 : 10
c. 4 : 5
d. 7 : 8

Q25. The least number which when divided by 6, 9, 12, 15, 18 leaves the same remainder 2 in each case, is:

a. 176
b. 178
c. 180
d. 182

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Answer:
1. (a), 2. (d), 3. (b), 4. (c), 5. (c), 6. (c), 7. (b), 8. (b), 9. (c), 10. (a), 11. (a), 12. (c), 13. (c), 14. (b), 15. (b), 16. (b), 17. (c), 18. (c), 19. (d), 20. (d), 21. (a), 22. (b), 23. (d), 24. (b), 25. (d)

 

Q1. As compared to pure water, a body in salty water will :

a. Sink more
b. Sink less
c. Remain same
d. Depends on the Way the body is reed

Q2. Which of the following is a colloidal solution?

a. Vinegar solution
b. Paint
c. Muddy water
d. Sugar solution

Q3. If the mass of a body is 'm' on the surface of the earth, its mass on the surface of the moon will be :

a. m/6
b. m+ 6
c. m
d. 6m

Q4. Which of the following is attracted by magnet ?

a. Sulphur
b. Iron filings
c. Iron Sulphide
d. None of the above

Q5. Which organ of the body is affected by Leukoderma ?

a. Heart
b. Kidney
c. Lungs
d. Skin

Q6. A mixture of sand and salt can be separated by :

a. Sublimation
b. Sieving
c. Dissolving salt in water and then filtration
d. Dissolving salt in water and then distillation

Q7. The conversion of a solid directly into its vapour is called :

a. Evaporation
b. Condensation
c. Vaporisation
d. Sublimation

Q8. Which fins do NOT help fish in balancing in water ?

a. Dorsal
b. Pelvic
c. Anal
d. Tail

Q9. The common Alum is :

a. Potassium Alum
b. Sodium Alum
c. Ferro Alum
d. Chrome Alum

Q10. On applying a constant force to a body, it moves with uniform_:

a. Momentum
b. Speed
c. Velocity
d. Acceleration

Q11. The persistence of sound in an auditorium is due to :

a. Single reflection of sound
b. Repeated reflections of sound
c. Repeated refraction of sound
d. Vibration of objects placed in the auditorium

Q12. Which among the following is NOT present in animal cell ?

a. Mitochondria
b. Chloroplast
c. Nucleolus
d. Plasma membrane

Q13. Tendon connects :

a. Bone to bone
b. Muscles to bone
c. Muscles to uscles
d. Nerve to muscles

Q14. The longest cell in human body is :

a. Skeletal cells
b. RBC
c. Nerve cells
d. WBC

Q15. Group of cells having a common origin and performing similar functions are called :

a. Tissues
b. Organs
c. Organ systems
d. None of the above

Q16. The acid present in the stomach which helps in the digestion of food is":

a. Nitric acid
b. Sulphuric acid
c. Hydrogen chloride
d. None of the above

Q17. Which pair is NOT correctly matched ?

a. Pisciculture - Fish
b. Sericulture - Earthworms
c. Green Revolution - Agriculture
d. White Revolution - Milk

Q18. If the mass of a solid is doubled, its density :

a. becomes two times
b. becomes half
c. remains unchanged
d. becomes four times

Q19. Fluid part of Blood after removal of Corpuscles is called :

a. Vaccine
b. Lymph
c. Serum
d. Plasma

Q20. CG is done to diagnose an ailment connected with?

a. Kidney
b. Heart
c. Brain
d. Blood

Q21. Which of the following is the purest form of Carbon?

a. Charcoal
b. Granite
c. Diamond
d. Graphite

Q22. Which instrument is used to record Atmospheric pressure?

a. Thermometer
b. Barometer
c. Seismometer
d. Oscilloscope

Q23. Quinine is obtained from which of the following Plant?

a. Cinchona
b. Cocoa
c. Mulberry
d. Eucalyptus

Q24. Which instrument is used to record the speed of a vehicle?

a. Thermometer
b. Barometer
c. Speedometer
d. Oscilloscope

Q25. Humerus bone is situated in?

a. Thigh
b. Upper arm
c. Knee
d. Fore arm

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Answer:
1. (b), 2. (b), 3. (a), 4. (b), 5. (d), 6. (d), 7. (d), 8. (d), 9. (a), 10. (d), 11. (a), 12. (b), 13. (a), 14. (c), 15. (a), 16. (c), 17. (b), 18. (a), 19. (b), 20. (b), 21. (c), 22. (b), 23. (a), 24. (c), 25. (a)

Q1. One of the following is correctly matched ?

a. Rabindranath Tagore - Nil Darpan
b. Dadabhai Naomi! - India Unrest
c. Dinbandhu Mitra - Godaan
d. Ramesh Chandra Dull - Economic History of India

Q2. Which river is also referred as 'Dakshin Gangs' ?

a. Mahanadi
b. Krishna
c. Brahmaputra
d. Godavari

Q3. During Which administration was "Ashtapradhan Mandel" the name of Council of Ministers ?

a. Guptas
b. Mauryas
c. Kakatiyas
d. Marathas

Q4. The Sarvodaya Movement was started by :

a. Mahatma Gandhi
b. Jayprakash Narayan
c. Vinoba Bhav
d. Jyotiba Phule

Q5. In the Indian Constitution, the power to issue a Writ of "Habeas Corpus` is vested in :

a. Supreme court only
b. High Court only
c. Subordinate courts
d. Supreme court and High Court

Q6. Where are Berra Caves located ?

a. Odisha
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Maharashtra
d. Andhra Pradesh

Q7. Which of the following issued initial Public Offer no rins for Life Insurance

a. CRISIL
b. SEBI
c. RBI
d. IRDA

Q8. Which among the following fighter plane is manufactured in France ?

a. Dassault Rafale
b. MIG-35
c. Lockheed Martin
d. None of the above

Q9. Who is the present of National Commission for Women in India ?

a. Nimlala Samant Prabhavalkar
b. Mamta Sharrna
c. Jayanti Patnaik
d. None of the above

Q10. Which of the following is incorrect ?

a. S.K. Pottekkat - Telugu
b. Tulsidas - Awadhi
c. Amitav Ghosh - English
d. Akilan - Tamil

Q11. In which Governor - General‘s reign was the first train service started in 1853 ?

a. Lord William Bentick
b. Lord Cornwallis
c. Lord Canning
d. Lord Dalhousie

Q12. Token currency was introduced in India for the first tune by :

a. Alan-din-Khilji
b. Sher Shah Sari
c. Ghiyasud-din-Tughlaq
d. Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq

Q13. Which of the following is incorrect ?

a. Jodhabai - Salim
b. Manmati - Khurram
c. Jijabai - Shivaji
d. Tarabax - Shahuji

Q14. Where was the first general Post Office opened in India ?

a. Delhi
b. Mumbai
c. Kolkata
d. None of the above

Q15. What type of the star is the SUN ?

a. Gaint
b. Supergiant
c. Dwarf
d. None of the above

Q16. "Din-i-llahi" was founded by:

a. Guru Nanak
b. Kabir
c. Akbar
d. Shah Johan

Q17. Who was the Prime Minister of Britain when India got the Freedom ?

a. Clement Aileen
b. Winston Churchill
c. Neville Chamberlain
d. None of Ole above

Q18. What does NASSCOM stand for ?

a. National Association of Shares and -rules Companies
b. National Association of Software and Service Companies
c. National Agency of Secret Se/Vice Companies
d. None of the above

Q19. Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar award is given for exemplary work done in the field of :

a. Journalism
b. Literature
c. Science and Technology
d. None of the above

Q20. Which part of the Constitution of India refers to the responsibility of the state towards International Peace and Security ?

a. Fundamental Rights
b. Direct Principles
c. Preamble
d. None of the above

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Answer:
1. (d), 2. (d), 3. (d), 4. (b), 5. (d), 6. (d), 7. (c), 8. (a), 9. (b), 10. (a), 11. (d), 12. (d), 13. (a), 14. (c), 15. (c), 16. (c), 17. (a), 18. (b), 19. (c), 20. (b)

Q1. ___________is prevented by coating the conducting wire with pvc.

a. Overloading
b. Fusing
c. Dripping
d. Short-Circuit

Q2. The molecular mass of O2 is_________

a. 8
b. 16
c. 32
d. 64

Q3. An Object of mass 6 kg and having a potential energy of 480 J is placed at a height. Find the height of the object w.r.t the ground (g=10m/s)

a. 7
b. 8
c. 4
d. 6

Q4. If the electronic configuration of an element is 2, 8, 2, to which period of the Modern Periodic Table does it belong?

a. 4
b. 2
c. 12
d. 3

Q5. The walls of sclerenchyma cells are thickened due to ________

a. Pectin
b. Hemi-cellulose
c. Cellulose
d. Lignin

Q6. The electronic configuration of an element belonging to period 2 and showing strong catenation property is:

a. 2,6
b. 2,8,4
c. 2,8,2
d. 2,4

Q7.a milkman adds a small amount of baking soda to fresh milk:

a. To improve taste of milk
b. To prevent acidisation of milk
c. To improve the consistency of milk
d. To increase the cream in the milk

Q8. An object is released from a certain height above the ground. Just at the time it touches the ground, it will possess_______

a. Kinetic energy
b. Chemical energy
c. Heat energy
d. Potential energy

Q9. The _______ acts as a food store in plant seeds.

a. Radicle
b. Ovule
c. Plumule
d. Cotyledons

Q10. The prefix added to the name of the hydrocarbon with 4 carbon atoms is.

a. Eth
b. Hept
c. But
d. Prop

Q11. Clouds looking white in colour are due to the phenomenon of ________

a. Refraction of light
b. Reflection of light
c. Scattering of light
d. Radiation

Q12. ___________ is the commercial unit of energy.

a. Kilowatt hour
b. Joule
c. Kilowatt
d. Watt hour

Q13. The millions period consists of the places:

a. M, TH, HM
b. O,T,M
c. M,TM
d. TTh, HTh, M

Q14. An electric bulb having voltage 240V and current 0.6 A has a power of _____________

a. 40W
b. 400W
c. 144W
d. 14.4W

Q15. Select the most appropriate option.
 1KWH = _____________

a. 3,60,000 J
b. 3,600 J
c. 36,00,000 J
d. 36,000 J

Q16. Which of the following is the ore of mercury?

a. Stibnite
b. Arsenic
c. Cinnabar
d. Bauxite

Q17. The gravitational force of attraction between a satellite and the earth gives rise to ___________

a. Centrifugal force
b. Planar force
c. Centripetal force
d. Tension

Q18. Bifocal lenses are used by people suffering from__________

a. Myopia or Hypermetropia
b. Myopia but not Hypermetropia
c. Hypermetropia but not Myopia
d. Myopia and Hypermetropia

Q19. The source of the Sun’s energy is the process of:

(a) Photoelectric emission
(b) Nuclear fission
(c) Nuclear fusion
(d) Thermionic emission

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ANSWER:
1. (d), 2. (c), 3. (b), 4. (d), 5. (d), 6. (d), 7. (b), 8. (a), 9. (d), 10. (c), 11. (c), 12. (a), 13. (a), 14. (c), 15. (c), 16. (c), 17. (c), 18. (d), 19. (c)

 

Q1. Which organization has set up the Govardhan Eco Village in Maharashtra?

a. RSS
b. GaugiyaMath
c. ISKCON
d. Isha Foundation

Q2. Who among the following had resigned from the post of Head Coach of Indian Cricket team in 2017?

a. Anil Kumble
b. Kapil Dev
c. Rahul Dravid
d. Ravi Shastri

Q3. ________does not belong to the class Annelida.

a. Ascaris
b. Earthworm
c. Leech
d. Neries

Q4. An object is stationary then the force is still acting on it is:

a. Momentum
b. Impulse
c. Acceleration
d. Weight

Q5. What is the initiative of FSSAI that will enable collection and conversion of used cooking oil to bio-diesel?

a. RUSA
b. RAMA
c. RENO
d. RUCO

Q6. In which state is the Pagladia Dam located?

a. Nagaland
b. West Bengal
c. Meghalaya
d. Assam

Q7. Sadhguru jaggi Vasudev has been awarded with Padma vibhushan award in 2017 by the government of India for his contribution towards which of the following?

a. Music
b. Spiritually
c. Sports
d. Politics

Q8. ________Contributed to the theories of inheritance of traits in living things

a. JBS Haldane
b. Stanley Miller
c. Charles Darwin
d. Gregor Mendel

Q9. Name the athletic event in which Manpreet Kaur won a glod medal in the first leg of Asian Grand Prix Athletics Meet?

a. Discus throw
b. High jump
c. Long jump
d. Shot put

Q10. In which year Goa was captured by Portuguese?

a. 1512
b. 1510
c. 1516
d. 1515

Q11. The former RBI governor Raghuram Rajan authored the book-

a. The Ministry of Utmost Happiness
b. Emergency-Indian Democracy’s Darkest Hour
c. The Unseen Indira Gandhi
d. I Do What I Do

Q12. Who among the following is the founder of Swatantra Party?

a. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
b. Vallabhbhai Patel
c. Kamaraj
d. C Rajagopalachari

Q13. Who among the following has been honoured with the Global Diversity Award 2017 by the British Parliament House?

a. Akshay Kumar
b. Ranbir Kapoor
c. Salman Khan
d. Aamir Khan

Q14. In which Indian state has The Union Government sanctioned ₹98.35 Cr for the development of a Heritage Circuit?

a. Shimla
b. Assam
c. Nagaland
d. Tripura

Q15. Which organization has been honoured with the NABARD 2018 award?

a. Repco Micro Finance
b. HDFC Mutual Fund
c. Shriram Mutual Funds
d. ICICI Prudential

Q16. Who among the following hosts the Hindi version of “Bigg Boss-11”?

a. Aamir Khan
b. Farhan Akhtar
c. Shilpa Shetty
d. Salman Khan

Q17. What is the maximum strength of Lok sabha?

a. 552
b. 550
c. 545
d. 548

Q18. Which of the following is the indigenously designed and developed long-range subsonic cruise missile of India?

a. Helina
b. Nirbhay
c. Pinaka
d. Nag

Q19. We can control the urge to urinate as ________

a. Bladder is filled with less water
b. Bladder does not fill up easily
c. The muscular bladder is under nervous control
d. Sphincter muscle is present between bladder and urethra

Q20. Who won the Golden Boot Award in 2018 FIFA World Cup?

a. Lionel Messi
b. Antoine Griezmann
c. Harry Kane
d. Gabriel Jesus

Q21. The Ninety East Ridge is a submarine volcanic ridge located in which ocean?

a. Indian Ocean
b. Pacific Ocean
c. Arctic Ocean
d. Atlantic Ocean

Q22. Who launched India’s largest ‘train the trainers’ programme recently?

a. Sachin Tendulkar
b. Kapil Dev
c. Prakash Padukone
d. Pullela Gopichand

Q23. Who among the following has been names the “British Indian of the year”?

a. Ishwar Sharma
b. Ishwar Verma
c. Ishwar Kumar
d. Ishwar Gupta

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ANSWER
1. (c), 2. (a), 3. (a), 4. (a), 5. (d), 6. (d), 8. (b), 9. (d), 10. (d), 11. (b), 12. (d), 13. (d), 14. (c), 15. (a), 16. (a), 17. (d), 18. (b), 19. (c), 20. (c), 21. (a), 22. (d), 23. (a)

Q1. Read the given question and decide which of the following statements is/are sufficient to answer the question?
What is the age of Sriram?

Statement:

1. Sriram is 32 years elder to Shyam.
2. Shyam is 2 years old now.

a. Both 1 and 2 are sufficient
b. Either I or 2 is sufficient
c. Only 1 is sufficient
d. Only 2 is sufficient

Q2. Which answer figures will come next in the given problem figure series?

Q3. Read the given statement and conclusion carefully and select which of the conclusions logically follow from the statement.

Statement:

• All mud are vessels
• All vessels are containers

Conclusion:
1. All containers are mud.
2. Some vessels are mud

Q4. Consider the given statement to be true even if be true even if it seems to be at variance with commonly known facts and decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the statement.

Statement:

• Waste management is one of our country’s most important concerns these these days given the fast pace growing population and increasing wastes.

Conclusion:

I. The indisposed waste caused a lot of harm to our environment and breeds various diseases.
II. It will certainly be helpful to address public or students at any institution on waste management.

a. Only conclusion I follows
b. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
c. Both conclusion I and II follows
d. Only conclusion II follows

Q5. Joy points out to a picture and says, ‘This is my mother’s sister’s husband,’ How is the person in the picture related to Joy?

a. Maternal Uncle
b. Brother
c. Paternal Uncle
d. Son

Q6. Identify the founder of Paytm who was listed in TIME magazine’s most influential people list 2017 along with Prime Minister Narendra Modi?

a. Vijay malya
b. Vijay Bhaskar
c. Narendra Kumar
d. Vijay Shekhar Sharma

Q7. Choose the most suitable Venn diagram for the following words.

Garlic, Ginger, Chilly

Q8. Choose the mirror image for the following figure when the mirror is kept at the MN line.

Q9. Which of the options bears the closest resemblance to the following figure?

Q10. Consider the given statement and decide which of the following assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.

Statement:

• Stories are the best way to make children remember concepts in the early years of their life.

Assumptions:

I. Children like stories
II. Stories improve children’s imagination and visualization skills.

a. Only I is implicit
b. Only II is implicit
c. Both I and II are implicit
d. Neither I nor II is implicit

Q11. Which of the option figures bears the closed resemblance to the question figure?

Q12. If KIN is written as PRM then how would you write THREAD?

a. GSIVYW
b. GSIVWZ
c. GSIVZW
d. GRIUZW

Q13. Which of the following Venn diagram correctly represents the relationship between:

A. Mobile
B. Laptop
C. Electronic

Q14. In which of the following activities is work said to be done?

a. Pinki is walking on a leveled road with a book on her head
b. Khishi is pushing a wall of a house but fails to do so
c. Harsh is reading a book
d. Shruti is sitting on a chair

Q15. Which of the given elements A,B,C,D and E with atomic number 2,3,7,10 and 30 respectively belong to the same period?

a. B,D,E
b. A,B,C
c. A,D,E
d. B,C,D

Q16. Which assumptions are implied from the below statement?

“Trees can communicate and share nutrients with other trees in a forest” says a scientist.

Assumptions:
 

I. Plants share extra nutrients with other plants
II. Underneath the earth everything is connected.

a. Neither I nor II is implicit
b. Only II is implicit
c. Only I is implicit
d. Both I and II are implicit

Q17. Which of the following does NOT belong to this group?

a. Ant
b. Caterpillar
c. Hamster
d. Locust

Q18. Find the next letter-pair in the following series.

DO, EP, FQ, GR, ?

a. SH
b. HS
c. ST
d. HV

Q19. Choose the one that does NOT belong to the group.

a. Aluminium
b. Gold
c. Silver
d. Hydrogen

Q20. Find the odd one out.

a. C
b. B
c. A
d. D

Q21. Given is a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. Considered the statement and the following assumptions and decided which of the assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.

Statement:

• Global warming, species extinction and deforestation are posing a threat to the environment

Assumptions:

I. The more we exploit and degrade out environment, the more ecological imbalance we create, ultimately putting the very existence of human life at risk.
II. Every species is dependent on every other species for survival, directly or indirectly. Human beings are the ones who depend on maximum number of species for not only our survival but also for our development needs.

a. Only assumption I is implicit
b. Neither assumption I nor II is implicit
c. Both assumptions I and II are implicit
d. Only assumption II is implicit

Q22. A is standing facing East. B is standing 750 m to the West of A. At 500 m to the right of A, there is a big pole. What is the direction of the pole with respect to B’s position?

a. North – East
b. South – West
c. North – West
d. South – East and

Q23. If “MAP” is coded as KYN in a code language, how will “REDUCE” be written in the same code?

a. OBASBD
b. PCBSAB
c. OBARBD
d. PCBSAC

Q24. Read the given statement and conclusion carefully and select which of the conclusions logically follow from the statement

Statement:

• All cars are four-wheelers
• All four-Wheelers are vehicles.

Conclusion:

1. All cars are vehicles.
2. Some vehicles are four-wheelers

a. No conclusion follow
b. Only conclusion 1 follows
c. All the conclusion follow
d. Only conclusion 2 follows

Q25. Sarang is facing West. He turns 135° clockwise and then 45° anticlockwise. In which direction he is facing now?

a. West
b. North
c. East
d. South

Q26. Find the missing term in the following series.

B-24, ?, F-9, H-4

a. T-19
b. D-20
c. D-16
d. S-18

Q27. Soham is 10 years younger than partha. Eight years ago three times the age of soham was 4 more than twice the age of Partha. Find Soham’s present age.

a. 32 years
b. 28 years
c. 30 years
d. 33 years

Q28. What is the next term is this series:

12A6Z, 24C4X, 36E2V,_____________

a. 48F0T
b. 48F9T
c. 48F9S
d. 48G0T

Q29. If today is Monday, then find the day after 61 days?

a. Friday
b. Saturday
c. Monday
d. Tuesday

Q30. Select the option figure that will complete the series of question figures.

a. D
b. C
c. A
d. B

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ANSWER:
1. (a), 2. (c), 3. (a), 4. (c), 5. (a), 6. (d), 7. (a), 8. (b), 9. (c), 10. (c), 11. (d), 12. (c), 13. (b), 14. (a), 15. (d), 16. (c), 17. (c), 18. (b), 19. (d), 20. (d), 21. (c), 22. (d), 23. (d), 24. (c), 25. (b), 26. (c), 27. (a), 28. (d), 29. (b), 30. (c)





 

 

 

Q1. The sum of two fractions is 7/4, One of them is 5/3, What is the other function?

a. 1/12
b. 1/5
c. 1/10
d. 2

Q2. Sita bought certain number of pens at 8 for Rs.7 and sold them at 6 for Rs. 5. The gain or loss percentage is?

a. No profit no loss
b. 100/21% loss
c. 99/21% loss
d. 100/21% profit

Q3. {8+(24+3)}/9=?

a. 3
b. 9
c. 8
d. 4

Q4. On a certain sum, simple interest for 5/2 years at an annual rate of 12% is Rs. 50 less than the interest on the same sum for 7/2 years at an annual rate rate of 10%. Find the sum.

a. Rs.1500
b. Rs.1000
c. Rs.2000
d. Rs.1200

Q5. Find the values of k for which x2+5kx+k2+5 is exactly divisible by x+2 but not divisible by x+3.

a. Neither 1 nor 9
b. 1
c. Both 1 and 9
d. 9

Q6. From the top of a platform 7m high, the angle of elevation of a tower was 30°. If the tower was 47 m high, how far away from the tower was the platform was the platform positioned?

a. 45√3m
b. 40m
c. 40√3m
d. 15√3m

Q7. A tap can fill the tank in 25 minutes and the other can empty the tank in 50 minutes. If both the taps are opened simultaneously, then the tank will be filled in time?

a. 50 minutes
b. 1 hour, 10 minutes
c. 1 hour, 5 minutes
d. 55 minutes

Q8. If the cost of tomatoes increases by 25% per kg and Sudha wants to spend only 15% more on the tomatoes. Calculate the percentage decrease in the quantity of tomatoes that Sudha gets.

a. 12.5%
b. 12%
c. 8%
d. 10%

Q9. On selling a jute bag for Rs. 48, Ashmitha incurs a loss of 20%. In order to make a profit of 20% what should be the selling price of the jute bag?

a. 56
b. 72
c. 52
d. 68

Q10. If √108 + √243 = 25.98 find the value of √147 + √192.

a. 25.98
b. 34.248
c. 27.712
d. 26.89

Q11. Vella is a farmer he owns few acres of land. Last month he had a good harvest which gave him a 90% profit on his initial investment. Approximately how much money he needs to invest each season?

a. 3,00,000
b. 1,50,000
c. 1,00,000
d. 6,00,000

Q12. Keerthi and Malathi together can complete a task in 12 days, while Malathi can finish it in 30 days. In how many days can Keerthi alone complete the task?

a. 10 Days
b. 40 Days
c. 20 Days
d. 30 Days

Q13. In a library, there are 10 different sections and the librarian categorises the book over 20 days. Which section has the least number of books?

a. Section 7
b. Section 5
c. Section 8
d. Section 9

Q14. The square root of 882/1922 is:

a. 22/31
b. 21/31
c. 19/31
d. 20/31

Q15. An inlet pipe an outlet pipe are taking turns to fill and drain a cistern, respectively, for an hour each at a time, starting with the inlet pipe when the cistern is empty. It takes the inlet pipe 15 hours to fully fill the empty cistern, whereas the outlet pipe can drain the filled cistern completely in 21 hours. How many hours will it take for the cistern to be full?

a. 99
b. 52.5
c. 100
d. 105

Q16. There is a maximum gap of x years between two successive leap years. What is the value of x?

a. 4
b. 1
c. 8
d. 2

Q17. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 8. Which one of the following can never be their L.C.M.?

a. 24
b. 48
c. 56
d. 60

Q18. The given pie chart shows information about the mobile phone manufacturing companies in India. The total number of mobile phone units manufactured is 12,40,000. Which company produces the least number of mobile phones?

a. DEF
b. PQR
c. XYZ
d. ABX

Q19. What is the quantity of copper in 1kg of alloy if the alloy contains 32% copper, 40% zinc and the rest is nickel?

a. 320 g
b. 280 g
c. 400 g
d. 240 g

Q20. A 161.5 m long train crosses a 758.5 m long bridge in 46 seconds. What is the speed of the train?

a. 72 km/h
b. 78 km/h
c. 75 km/h
d. 80 km/h

Q21. What is the greatest four-digit number that is exactly divisible by 49?

a. 9998
b. 9994
c. 9996
d. 9992

Q22. By walking at 4/5 of his usual speed, Soham is 6 minutes late to office. How much time does he usually take to get to the office?

a. 25 minutes
b. 20 minutes
c. 24 minutes
d. 16 minutes

Q23. The wickets taken by a bowler in 12 cricket matches are as follows:
2,6,4,3,5,0,3,2,1,3,2,3.    Find the mode of the data

a. 1
b. 4
c. 2
d. 3

Q24. The area of the circumcircle of a right angle triangle whose sides are 6cm, 8cm and 10cm will be:

a. 16π cm2
b. 9π cm2π
c. 25π cm2
d. 24.5π cm2

Q25. √0.00069169 =?

a. 0.00243
b. 0.243
c. 0.0263
d. 0.000243

Q26. How many factors of 1296 are perfect squares?

a. 12
b. 8
c. 9
d. 10

Q27. If the radius of curvature of a concave mirror is 6.2 cm, its focal length is __________cm.

a. 2.6
b. 3.1
c. 6
d. 12.4

Q28. How many right-angled triangles are there in the following figure?

a. 14
b. 15
c. 12
d. 16

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ANSWER:
1. (a), 2. (b), 3. (a), 4. (b), 5. (d), 6. (c), 7. (a), 8. (c), 9. (b), 10. (a), 11. (c), 12. (c), 13. (a), 14. (b), 15. (a), 16. (c), 17. (d), 18. (a), 19. (a), 20. (a), 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (d), 24. (c), 25. (c), 26. (c), 27. (b), 28. (d)

 

Q1. Mallika is cleaning the bi-framed group-photo of her friend’s portrait that atoms her living room. She had laid it flat on the floor. The top side of the frame points to the west. She starts cleaning from the south-east comer and then diagonally moves her hand to the opposite side. Which direction is her hand now?

a. West-east
b. South-east
c. East-north
d. North-west

Q2. Choose the mirror image for the following figure:

Q3. A man from point ‘O’ and travels km towards east to reach point ‘A’; then, he turns right and travels 10 km to reach point ‘B’; then, he turns right and travel 9 km to reach point ‘C’; then, he turns right and travel 5 km to reach point ‘D; then , he turns left and travel 12 km to reach point E’; and finally he turns right and travel 6 km to reach point ‘F’.

a. East
b. South
c. West
d. North

Q4. What is the time between 2 o’clock and 3 o’clock at which the minute hand and the hour hand form an angle of 60° with each other?

a. 228/11 minute past 2
b. 240/11 minute past 2
c. 262/11 minute past 2
d. 250/11 minute past 2

Q5. Shoes is related to Slippers in the same way as Coat is related to:

a. Pen
b. Short
c. Socks
d. Tie

Q6. Read the given question and decide which of the following statements is/are sufficient to answer the question?

What is the age of Sriram?
Statement:

1. Sriram is 32 years elder to Shyam.
2. Shyam is 2 years old now.

a. Both 1 and 2 are sufficient
b. Either I or 2 is sufficient
c. Only 1 is sufficient
d. Only 2 is sufficient

Q7. A statement is given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Consider the given statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance with the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statement disregarding commonly known facts.

Statement: In view of further sudden increase in the international oil prices, the Government will review the present policy on fuel price

Conclusions:
I. The Government will increase the price of the fuel after the sudden increase in the international prices.
II. The Government will not increase the price of the fuel even after the sudden increase in the international oil prices.

a. Either I or II follows
b. Only conclusions II follows
c. Only conclusions I follows
d. Neither I nor II follows

Q8. Select the appropriate combination of symbols that when sequentially placed in place of the equation will correctly complete the equation.
((10?10)?25)?10 = 2510

a. x, x, +
b. -, x, /
c. +, /, /
d. -, /, /

Q9. In a certain coding language, if wind = tfka and back = yxzh, then joke = ?

a. glhb
b. hehu
c. gehu
d. heho

Q10. Starting from point O facing West a man walks 4 km reach point A, turns right walks 4 km reach point B, turn right walks 4km reach point C, turns right walks 3 km reach point D, turns left walks 4 km reach point E, turns right walks 5 km reach point F.  The shortest distance between the point B and point E (in Km) is:

a. 2√73
b. √27
c. √73
d. √37

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Q11. 4 W X Z 8 Q P O J 6 G T M V E U H 5 3 B
If the letters in the position 7, 8, 15 and 17 are picked from the left to form a meaningful word, then the third letter of the word will be:

a. E
b. J
c. O
d. P

Q12. Read the gives question and decide which of the following statement is/are sufficient /necessary to answer the question

Questions:
What is the distance between A and known C If the three towns A, B and C lie on a straight line?

Statements:
I. The distance between town B and town C is 20Km
II. The distance between town A and town B is 35 Km

a. Both I and II are necessary
b. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
c. Neither I nor II is sufficient
d. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient.

Q13. Consider the following statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which of the conclusion logically follows, from the statements.

Statement:
No pigeon is a dove.
All doves are oriental rollers

Conclusions:
No pigeons are oriental rollers
Some oriental rollers are dove

a. Only Conclusions2 follows
b. Both conclusions 1 and 2 follow
c. Only conclusions 1 follows
d. Either conclusions 1 or 2 follows

Q14. Three out of the four options given below are related in a particular way. Choose options that is different or odd from the others.

a. Patna
b. Kohima
c. Orissa
d. Gangtok

Q15. Consider the following question and decide which of the statement is sufficient to answer the question ]

Question: What is the measure of angle A in a right angle triangle ABC right angled at angle B?

Statement: Angle C is 20°

a. Statement 1 alone is sufficient while statement 2 alone is not sufficient
b. Each statement alone is sufficient
c. Statement 2 alone is sufficient while sufficient 1 alone is not sufficient
d. Both Statements 1 and 2 together are sufficient

Q16. Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information in the statement is true, even if they appear to be in variance with commonly known facts, select which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement (s) beyond reasonable doubt.

Statement : “ Sunday morning my friend cooked delicious chicken biryani, “ mentioned Sudha about her friend.

Conclusions:
I. Sudha’s friend is a good chef
II. Chicken biryani ids the only which is delicious

a. Only I follows
b. Only II follows
c. Either I or II follows
d. Neither I nor II follows

Q17. Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.
Fish: Shoal::Goods:______?

a. Gang
b. Mob
c. Items
d. Stock

Q18. Find the next term in the series.
R9H, P11J, N13L,_________

a. L14N
b. L15N
c. L12N
d. N15L

Q19. Identity the option that relates to the third figure in the same way that the second figure relates to the third figure.

Q20. A statement is followed by two arguments. Decide which of the arguments is/are strong with respect to the statement

Statement:
Drinking tea and coffee are addictive

Arguments:
I. Yes, the caffeine in coffee or tea is a central, nervous system stimulated and it is the world’s most widely consumed addictive stimulant.
II.No, as it is widely accepted caffeine is good for health

a. Only argument II is strong
b. Neither I nor II are strong
c. Both arguments I and II are strong
d. Only argument I is strong

Q21. Every morning, Albert starts riding towards the rising sum. He rides 2 km, turns to his left and continues for 4 km. He then turns to his right and continues for 3 Km . Finally, he turns to his left and reaches his office after riding for another 8 km How far is his office from his home aerially?

a. 12Km
b. 13 Km
c. 18 Km
d. 19 Km

Q22. Take the given statement to be true and decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
All cars are rockers. All cycles are rockers

Conclusions:
1. Some cars are cycles
2. some rockers are cycles
3. Some cycles are cars

a. None of the conclusions follows
b. Only conclusions 1 follows
c. Both conclusions 1 and 3 follow
d. Only conclusions 2 follows

Q23. What is the next term is this series:
12A6Z, 24C4X, 36E2V,_____________

a. 48F0T
b. 48F9T
c. 48F9S
d. 48G0T

Q24. Read the given question and decide which of the following statement is/are sufficient to answer the question.

Who is standing in the middle among Y, O and P?

Statements:
1. Y is standing to the right of O.
2. P is standing to the right of Y.

a. Statements 1 and 2 together are insufficient.
b. Statement 1 alone is sufficient.
c. Statements 1 and 2 together are sufficient
d. Statement 2 alone is sufficient

Q25. If ‘+’ is ‘x‘ , ‘-‘ is ‘+’ , ‘x’ is ‘+’ and ‘+’ is ‘-‘ then
5 – 9 + 7 x 3 6 = ?

a. 20
b. 0
c. 26
d. 10

Q26. From the following Allotropes of Carbon, pick the odd one out.

a. Carbon Black
b. Coke
c. Charcoal
d. Graphite

Q27. Find the next term in the following series:
ZW, VS, RO,__________.

a. NP
b. NS
c. NL
d. NK

Q28. Choose the figure that sign different from the rest.

a. b
b. e
c. c
d. d

Q29. Select the term that relates to the third term in the same way that the second term relates to the firs t term.
House : House : Flaw : ______?

a. Mob
b. Defect
c. Assume
d. Peace

Q30. Consider the following statement and decide which of the conclusions logically follows from the statements.

Statements:
Cactus has thick stem and it requires less water.

Conclusions:

1. All plants with thick stem requires less water.
2. Cactus grow in places where there is less water.
3. Neither 1 nor 2 follows
4. Both 1 and 2 follows

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Answer:
1. (d), 2. (b), 3. (c), 4. (b), 5. (b), 6. (a), 7. (a), 8. (a), 9. (a), 10. (c), 11. (d), 12. (a), 13. (a), 14. (c), 15. (b), 16. (a), 17. (d), 18. (b), 19. (a), 20. (d), 21. (b), 22. (d), 23. (d), 24. (c), 25. (a), 26. (d), 27. (d), 28. (c), 29. (b), 30. (b)

Q1. Suraj had 50 paise coins, 1 coins and 5 coins in the ratio of 8:5:9. The total amount of money with Suraj is 648. What is the number of paise coins with him?

a. 96
b. 108
c. 84
d. 60

Q2. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 12 and 720. How many such pair(s) of numbers are possible?

a. 4
b. 1
c. 3
d. 2

Q3. From a cloth store, 25 bought trousers, 15 bought frocks, 20 bought winter wear 2 bought all the three and 8 bought at least 2 of these. How many bought at least one type of clothes from the store?

a. 39
b. 25
c. 42
d. 50

Q4. 0.00025 / 12.5 = _______?

a. 0.000002
b. 0.0025
c. 0.00002
d. 0.0002

Q5. 350 / 5² x 7 – 3 = _______ ?

a. 3.5
b. -1
c. 95
d. 350/172

Q6. A cistern can be filled with two pipes together in 43/4 minutes. The large pipe would fill the cistern in 12minutes less than the smaller one. Find the time taken by the larger pipe alone to fill the cistern?

a. 12minutes
b. 24 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. 18 minutes

Q7. What is the HCF of 156 and 546?

a. 39
b. 26
c. 13
d. 78

Q8. The average of 81 results is 54. If the average of the first 59 results is 52, and that of the last 21 results is 60, calculate the 60th result.

a. 46
b. 52
c. 62
d. 60

Q9. The two sides containing the right angle of a right-angled triangle are 7 cm and 24 cm long. What will be the radius of the circumference of the said triangle?

a. 12.5cm
b. 15.5 cm
c. 9.5 cm
d. 8.5 cm

Q10. The following pie diagram shows the revenue of the company ABC which manufacture leather products. The total revenue of the company for the year 2015 was 36, 28, 000

How much revenue was made by company ABC on the sales of “belts”?

a. Rs. 3,62,800
b. Rs.7,25,600
c. Rs.1,81,400
d. Rs.90,700

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Q11. Ashok is as younger to Vimal as he is older than Arun. If the sum of the ages of Arun and Vimal is 40 years, how old is Ashok?

a. 35 years
b. 20years
c. 30years
d. 27years

Q12. What is the smallest natural number 216 should be multiplied by so that the number of factors of the product is odd?

a. 6
b. 4
c. 12
d. 8

Q13. A son of money invested at 16% simple interest per annum for 3.5years yields the same interest as another sum invested at 12.6% simple interest per annum for 5 years. What is the ratio of the two sum invested?

a. 14: 9
b. 9 : 8
c. 6 : 5
d. 8 : 7

Q14. Two sides of a rectangle are 10cm and 8cm, respectively. They are increased by 15% and 20%. Find the percentage increased in the areas.

a. 38%
b. 37%
c. 35%
d. 36%

Q15. If tan∝ =5+2 √6, then the value of tan∝ + cot∝ is:

a. 5 – 2√6
b. 4√6
c. 5
d. 10

Q16. The number of diagonals in a 28-gon is:

a. 175
b. 350
c. 304
d. 280

Q17. Parvej belongs to Town A and Gautam belongs to Town B. They start their journeys towards each other's town following the same route at the same time. They meet somewhere on the way and continue with their journeys. After meeting Gautam, Parvez takes another 12 hours to reach the destination while Gautam takes another 3 hours to reach Parvez’s town . If Parvez travelled at a speed of 60 km/h, find gautam’s speed in Km/h

a. 90
b. 120
c. 125
d. 105

Q18. The length of an edge of a cube is 70cm. There is a circle painted in green on each face of the cube. What is the total area of the unpainted surface of the cube if the circles area of the largest area possible?

a. 6650cm2
b. 6300 cm2
c. 6500 cm2
d. 6350 cm2

Q19. 42 / 21 x 2 – 6 = _________?

a. -5
b. -0.5
c. -8
d. -2

Q20. 40 people could complete a work in 24 days. But after they worked together for 4 days their employer wanted that the work should be completed in a total of 12 days. How many more workers need to be employed to meet to be employed to meet the deadline?

a. 60
b. 70
c. 50
d. 80

Q21. Biju’s age is 28 years less than three times the age of Subham, who in turn is 16 years older than 4/5 of the age of Amir. Kaveri is 10 years younger than Amir and half the age of Subham. What is the sum of all their age?

a. 180 years
b. 196 years
c. 188 years
d. 182 years

Q22. The square root of 26896 is :

a. 154
b. 162
c. 164
d. 158

Q23. If 3+√8/3-√8 = a+ b√8; then, a = ?

a. √18
b. 15
c. 17
d. 16

Q24. By selling a laptop for Rs.21,150 keshav makes a profit of 17.5%. What should have been the selling price to make a profit of 22.5%?

a. Rs.22,350
b. Rs.21,950
c. Rs.22,150
d. Rs.22 ,050

Q25. A train a 520 m long platform in 36 seconds. How long was the train if it was travelling at a speed of 70 km/h?

a. 150m
b. 180m
c. 140m
d. 160m

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Answer:
1. (a), 2. (a), 3. (d), 4. (c), 5. (c), 6. (d), 7. (d), 8. (a), 9. (a), 10. (b), 11. (b), 12. (a), 13. (b), 14. (a), 15. (d), 16. (b), 17. (b), 18. (b), 19. (d), 20. (a), 21. (d), 22. (c), 23. (c), 24. (d), 25. (c)

 

 

Q1. India is located in the part of asia.

a. northern
b. eastern
c. south eastern
d. southern

Q2. Through which Amendment Act was the word ‘Secularism’ added to the Preamble of the Constitution?

a. 42nd
b. 21st
c. 73rd
d. 61st

Q3. Bhilai Plant is located in _______

a. Chattisgarh
b. Odisha
c. Madhya Pradesh
d. Karnataka

Q4. ______ ‘Tarikh-i-Firuz Shahi gives the history of the first six years of Firoz shah Tughlaq’s reign.

a. Firoz shah Tughlaq’s
b. Abul Fazl’s
c. Gulbadan Begum’s
d. Zia-ud-din Barani’s

Q5. Among the following, who is Director General of UNESCO as of July 2018?

a. Federico Mayor
b. Koichiro Matsuura
c. Audrey Azoulay
d. Amadou- Mahtar- M’Bow

Q6. India’s first runway on a sea bridge will come up in which state/union territory?

a. Lakshadweep
b. Goa
c. Chennai
d. Kerala

Q7. India’s _____ has won silver medal in Under 23 Senior World Wrestling competition held in Poland.

a. Ritu Phogat
b. Baboita Phogat
c. Geeta Phogat
d. Priyanka Phogat

Q8. The word Veda means ______.

a. Hymns
b. Period
c. Grammer
d. Knowledge

Q9. Who was appointed as Managing Director and CEO of Dhanlaxmi Bank in July 2018?

a. Rajeev Rishi
b. Thanu Padmanabhan
c. T Latha
d. Suresh Patel

Q10. Who was conferred while with the Global Icon award at the Zee Cine Awards 2018 held in Mumbai?

a. Priyanka Chopra
b. Aishwarya Rai Bachchan
c. Ajay Devgan
d. Katrina Kaif

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Q11. In may 2018, which national cricket governing body signed an agreement with UN Environment to promote green cricket in that country?

a. BCCI
b. Pakistan Cricket Board
c. Cricket Australia
d. Afganistan Criket Board

Q12. Who launched ‘NETA’, a mobile application that allows users to rate and review elected representatives?

a. Pranab Kumar Mukherjee
b. Rahul Gandhi
c. Narendra Modi
d. Arun Jaitley

Q13. Trinamool Congress is a political party originated from which of the following states?

a. Rajasthan
b. UP
c. Bihar
d. West Bengal

Q14. Which of the following mines is locked in Assam?

a. Khetri
b. Mayurbhanj
c. Digboi
d. Singhbum

Q15. Who is the Chief minister of Odisha as of August 2018?

a. Biplab Dev
b. Manohar Parrikar
c. Vilas Rao Deshmukh
d. Naveen Patnaik

Q16. The National Football museum is in which country?

a. Brazil
b. England
c. India
d. USA

Q17. Which of the following programs has been launched by the Ministry of Drinking Water and sanitation?

a. Swachh Pani Yojana 2018
b. Swachh Vyatavaran Yojana 2018
c. Swachh Survekshan Yojana 2018
d. Swachh Kisan Yojana 2018

Q18. _____ is the name of one of the many dummers of the Beatles.

a. Lars Ulrich
b. Dave Lomabardo
c. Ringo Starr
d. Keith Moon

Q19. Chaudhary Charan singh Jayanti or the birth anniversary of Ch. Charan singh is on ___ and is observed as the Kisan

a. 23 December
b. 13 December
c. 31 December
d. 3 December

Q20.  ________does not belong to the class Annelida.

a. Ascaris
b. Earthworm
c. Leech
d. Neries 

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Answer:
1. (d), 2. (a), 3. (a), 4. (d), 5. (c), 6. (a), 7. (a), 8. (d), 9. (c), 10. (a), 11. (a), 12. (a), 13. (d), 14. (c), 15. (d), 16. (b), 17. (c), 18. (c), 19. (a), 20. (a)

RRB GROUP-D Exam - Model Questions (Set-60)

Directions: Find the related word/letters/number to complete the analogy.

1.

(a) ACE
(b) FHJ
(c) KLM
(d) SUW

2.

(a) (52, 142)
(b) (54, 126)
(c) (56, 168)
(d) (58, 184)

Directions: From among the given alternatives select the onein which the set of numbers is most like the set of numbers given in the question.

3. Given set (3, 7, 15)

(a) 2, 6, 10
(b) 4, 8, 18
(c) 5, 9, 17
(d) 7, 12, 19

Directions: Arrange the following words according to the Dictionary.

5.

(A) eagle
(B) earth
(C) eager
(D) early
(E) each

(a) B, A, D, C, E
(b) A, E, B, D, E
(c) B, C, E, D, A
(d) E, C, A, D, B

5. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following ?

(A) Infant
(B) Old
(C) Adult
(D) Adolescent
(E) Child

(a) E, D, C, B, A
(b) C, D, B, A, E
(c) A, E, D, C, B
(d) B, C, D, E, A

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6. Who won the gold medal in football at the Sydney Olympics 2000 ?

(a) Italy
(b) Cameroon
(c) South Korea
(d) Columbia

7. Who won the gold medal for 400 metres run at two consecutive Olympic Games ?

(a) Michael Johnson
(b) Carl Lawis
(c) Alvin Harrison
(d) Gregory Haughton

8. Which rulers built the Ellora temples ?

(a) Chalukya
(b) Sunga
(c) Rashtrakuta
(d) Pallava

9. Which of the following is in the World Heritage list ?

(a) Khajuraho
(b) Nalanda ruins
(c) Hampi ruins
(d) Tajmahal

10. Who created the unforgettable literary character Swami?

(a) Vikram Seth
(b) R. K. Narayan
(c) Mulk Raj Anand
(d) Hari vansh Rai Bachchan
 

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Answer Key :

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b)

RRB GROUP-D Exam - Model Questions (Set-59)

Directions: Find the related word/letters/number to complete the analogy.

1. Genuine : Authentic Mirage : ?

(a) Illusion
(b) Image
(c) Hideout
(d) Reflection

2. Thunder : Rain :: ? : Night

(a) Day
(b) Dusk
(c) Dark
(d) Evening

3. 18 : 30 :: 36 : ?

(a) 64
(b) 66
(c) 54
(d) 62

4. 0.16: 0.0016:: 1.02: ?

(a) 10.20
(b) 0.102
(c) 0.0102
(d) 1.020

5. ACEG : NPRT :: ADGJ : ?

(a) NRTX
(b) ORVX
(c) NQSU
(d) NQTW

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6. FHEG : JLIK :: PROQ : ?

(a) TVSU
(b) VTUS
(c) TVUS
(d) SUVT

Directions: Find the odd one out from the given alternatives.

7.

(a) node
(b) abode
(c) shy
(d) across

8.

(a) Microbe
(b) Microfilm
(c) Microphone
(d) Microscope

9.

(a) Sociologist
(b) Economist
(c) Neurologist
(d) Educationist

10.

(a) DINS
(b) CHNR
(c) BGLQ
(d) AFKP

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Answer Key :

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (a)

RRB GROUP-D Exam - Model Questions (Set-58)

1. A shopkeeper marks his goods 20% above cost price, but allows 30% discount for cash. His net loss is:

(a) 8%
(b) 10%
(c) 16%
(d) 20%

2. The arithmetic mean of the scores of a group of students in a test was 52. The brightest 20% of them secured a mean score of 80 and the dullest 25% a mean score of 31. The mean score of remaining 55% is :

(a) 45%
(b) 50%
(c) 51.4% approx.
(d) 54.6% approx.

3. A cricketer whose bowling average is 24.85, runs per wicket, takes 5 wickets for 52 runs and thereby decreases his average by 0.85. The number of wickets taken by him till the last match was:

(a) 64
(b) 72
(c) 80
(d) 96

4. The sum and product of two numbers are 12 and 35 respectively. What will be the sum of their reciprocals?

(a) 1/3
(b) 1/5
(c) 12/35
(d) 35/12

5. Which of the following is a perfect square as well as a cube?

343, 125, 81, or 64

(a) 81
(b) 125
(c) 343
(d) 64

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6. If the sum of two numbers is 3 and the sum of their squares is 12,then their product is equal to

(a) 3/2
(b) 2/3
(c) -3/2
(d) -2/3

7. Half of 1 per cent written as a decimal is

(a) 0.2
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.05
(d) 0.005

8. 800 chocolates were distributed among the students of a class. Each student got twice as many chocolates as the number of students in the class. The number of students in the class was :

(a) 25
(b) 30
(c) 35
(d) 20

9. A runner runs 5/4 laps of a 5 lap race. What fractional part of the race remains to be run?

(a) 15/4
(b) 4/5
(c) 5/6
(d) 2/3

Directions: The circle graph given here shows the spendings by a family on various items during the year 1998. Study the graph and answer questions 175 to 179. (Per cent of money spent by a family on various items during

10. 1f the total amount spent during the year 1998 was Rs. 46000/-, the amount spent on food, was

(a) Rs. 2000/-
(b) Rs. 10580/-
(c) Rs. 23000/-
(d) Rs. 2300/-

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Answer Key :

1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (b)

RRB GROUP-D Exam - Model Questions (Set-57)

1. A pipe of diameter d can drain a certain water tank in 40 minutes. The time taken by a pipe of diameter 2d for doing the same job is

(a) 5 minutes
(b) 10 minutes
(c) 20 minutes
(d) 80 minutes

2. A contractor undertakes to make a road in 40 days and employs 25 men. After 24 days, he finds that only one- third of the road is made. How many extra men should he employ so that he is able to complete the work 4 days earlier?

(a) 100
(b) 60
(c) 75
(d) None of these

3. A can do a work in 15 days and B in 20 days.If they together work on it for 4 days, then the fraction of the work that is left is

(a) 8/15
(b) 7/15
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/10

4. A tap can empty a tank in one hour. A second tap can empty it in 30 minutes. If both the taps operate simultaneously, how much time is needed to empty the tank?

(a) 20 minutes
(b) 30 minutes
(c) 40 minutes
(d) 45 minutes

5. The perimeter of the top of a rectangular table is 28m., whereas its area is 48m2 . What is the length of its diagonal?

(a) 5m.
(b) 10 m.
(c) 12m.
(d) 12.5 m.

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6. The volume of a right circular cylinder whose height is 40cm, and circumference of its base is 66 cm, is

(a) 55440 cm3
(b) 3465 cm3
(c) 7720 cm3
(d) 13860 cm3

7. ABC is a triangle with base AB. D is a point on AB such that AB = 5 and DB = 3. What is the ratio of the area of ∆ADC to the area of ∆ ABC?

(a) 3/2
(b) 2/3
(c) 3/5
(d) 2/5

8. A sum of Rs. 1600/- gives a simple interest of Rs. 252/- in 2 years and 3 months. The rate of interest per annum is:

(a) 11/2 %
(b) 8%
(c) 7%
(d) 6%

9. A sum of Rs.400/- amounts to Rs. 480/- in 4 years. What will it amount to if the rate of interest is increased by 2%?

(a) Rs. 484
(b) Rs. 560
(c) Rs. 512
(d) None of these

10. The marked price of a watch was Rs. 720/-. A man bought the same for Rs. 550.80, after getting two successive discounts, the first at 10%. What was the second
discount rate?

(a) 12%
(b) 14%
(c) 15%
(d) 18%

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Answer Key :

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c)

RRB GROUP-D Exam - Model Questions (Set-56)

1. Fundamental Rights in India are guaranteed by it through

(a) The Right to Equality
(b) Right Against Exploitation
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Educational and Cultural Rights

2. Which of the following types of soil is best suited for cotton cultivation ?

(a) Black
(b) Red
(c) Laterite
(d) Mountain

3. The largest irrigation canal in India is called the

(a) Yamuna Canal
(b) Sirhind Canal
(c) Indira Gandhi Canal
(d) Upper Bari Doab Canal

4. Which of the following nations has the largest Muslim population ?

(a) Saudi Arabia
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Iran
(d) Indonesia

5. The Iron & Steel Industry at which of the following places was developed with German technical collaboration ?

(a) Durgapur
(b) Bhilai
(c) Rourkela
(d) Bhadravati

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6. Given that  0.111...=1/ 9 0.444 is equal to:

(a) 1/90
(b) 2/45
(c) 1/99
(d) 4/9

7. The smallest number to be added to 1000, so that 45 divides the sum exactly, i

(a) 35
(b) 80
(c) 20
(d) 10

8. The sum of all natural numbers between 100 and 200, which are multiples of 3 is

(a) 5000
(b) 4950
(c) 4980
(d) 4900

9. 1008 divided by which single digit number gives a perfect square?

(a) 9
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 7

10. A man, a woman and a boy can complete a job in 3, 4 and 12 days respectively. How many boys must assist 1 man and 1 woman to complete the job in 1/4 of a day?

(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 19
(d) 41

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Answer Key :

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d)

RRB GROUP-D Exam - Model Questions (Set-55)

1. The English established their firs factory inIndia at:

(a) Bombay
(b) Surat
(c) Sutanati
(d) Madras

2. In which of the following years 26th January was celebrated a an independence day ?

(a) 1930
(b) 1929
(c) 1942
(d) 1946

3. Permanent Revenue Settlement a Bengal was introduced by

(a) Clive
(b) Hastings
(c) Wellesley
(d) Cornwallis

4. Which one of the following is political right ?

(a) Right to freedom
(b) Right to contest elections
(c) Right to equality before law
(d) Right to life

5. Antyodaya Programme is associated with

(a) Liberation of bonded labour
(b) Bringing up cultural revolutia in India
(c) Demands of textile labourer
(d) Upliftment of the poorest the poor

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6. The main function of the judiciar is:

(a) law formulation
(b) law execution
(c) law adjudication
(d) law application

7. The salaries and emoluments in the judges of the Supreme Court are charged on

(a) The Reserve Bank of India
(b) The Contingency Fund of India
(c) The Consolidated Fund of India
(d) The Finance Commission

8. Article 370 of the Constitution is applicable to the State of:

(a) Nagaland
(b) Mizoram
(c) Manipur
(d) Jammu and Kashmir

9. Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees Indian citizens

(a) Equal protection of laws
(b) Equality before law
(c) Equal distribution of economic resources
(d) Equality before law and equal protection of the laws

10. Article 19 of the Indian Constitution provides

(a) 6 freedoms
(b) 7 freedoms
(c) 8 freedoms
(d) 9 freedoms

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Answer Key :

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (a)

RRB GROUP-D Exam - Model Questions (Set-54)

1. Who broadcasts with the bye-line “Sabse Tej” ?

(a) Zee News
(b) NDTV
(c) Star News
(d) Aaj Tak

2. What is the prize money given with Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna?

(a) Rs. 1.50 lakh
(b) Rs. 2 lakhs
(c) Rs. 3 lakhs
(d) Rs. 5 lakhs

3. Who amongst the following is re- nowned in, the field of painting?

(a) Parveen Sultana
(b) Prof. T.N. Krishnan
(c) Ram Kinkar
(d) Raja Ravi Varma

4. Which is the most ancient musical instrument of India ?

(a) Flute
(b) Tabla
(c) Veena
(d) Sitar

5. Who out of the following was not a great master of Carnatic music?

(a) Swathi Thirunaal
(b) Vishnu Digambar Paluskar
(c) Muthuswami Dikshitar
(d) Shyama Shastri

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6. Who was the pioneer of the Bengal School of Art ?

(a) Nandlal Bose
(b) B.C. Sanyal
(c) Jamini Roy
(d) Abanindranath Tagore

7. Who was the first Indian to be made a fellow of the Royal Society of London ?

(a) Srinivas Ramanujam
(b) A. C. Wadia
(c) C.V. Raman
(d) P.C. Mahalanobis

8. The proposed sea-route “Sethu Samudram” is a canal through which of the sea-lanes ?

(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Malacca Strait
(c) Gulf of Kutch
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

9. Which of these battles proved decisive in the Anglo- French rivalry in India ? .

(a) Battle of Wandiwash
(b) Battle of Assaye
(c) Battle of Chillianwala
(d) Battle of Seringapatam

10. ‘Do or Die’ is the famous slogar given by

(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Rajiv Gandhi

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Answer Key :

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (a)

RRB GROUP-D Exam - Model Questions (Set-53)

1. Who amongst the following is renowned in Hindustani Classical Music (vocal) ?

(a) Shovana Narayan
(b) M.S. Subbalakshmi
(c) Pt. Jasraj
(d) M.S. Gopalakrishnan

2. Who was awarded the Jawaharlal Nehru Award (a trophy, citation and Rs. 25 lakh) in 2004 ?

(a) Lee Kuan Yew
(b) Goh Chok Tong
(c) Aung San Suu Kyi
(d) Mahathir Mohamed

3. Which is the latest manufacturing units being set up by the Indian Railways ?

(a) Rail Coach Factory, Kapurthala
(b) Wheel Factory, Chapra
(c) Wheel and Axle Plant, Durgapur
(d) Rail Wheel Factory, Bangalore

4 Who amidst the following won the Nobel Prize in Science in two different disciplines ?

(a) Russell Hulse
(b) David Lee
(c) Madame Curie
(d) Paul Boyer

5. Which are the cities connected by “Sada-e-Sarhad” bus services?

(a) Aligarh : Amritsar
(b) Delhi : Lahore
(c) Suchetgarh : Sialkot
(d) Srinagar : Muzzaffarabad

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6. Which of the following is true about the “World Intellectual Property Organisation” ?

(a) It protects the rights of the third world countries in the field of global communication
(b) It protects the copyright materials in inventions, trade- marks, literary works, etc.
(c) It promotes the collaboration among countries in the field of education, science and culture
(d) It helps the countries in the development of human resources

7. Who is the author of “Business m Speed of Thought” ?

(a) Dick Francis
(b) John Gray
(c) Bill Gates
(d) David Baldacci

8. Which of the following places is well-known for the embroidery formof “ Chikankari’ ?

(a) Hyderabad
(b) Jaipur
(c) Bhopal
(d) Lucknow

9. Match the following Folk form

A. Heer song
B. Bhatiali song
C. Garba dance
D. Raas dance

States where popular

1. Bengal
2. Punjab
3. U.P.
4. Gujarat 

    A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 3 4 1

10. Where is the oldest working refinery ?

(a) Bahamas
(b) Basra
(c) Digboi
(d) Texas

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Answer Key :

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (d)

RRB GROUP-D Exam - Model Questions (Set-52)

1. Diamond is harder than graphite because of

(a) difference in layers of atoms
(b) tetrahedral structure of diamond
(c) difference of crystalline structures
(d) None of these

2. Gobar gas contains mainly

(a) methane
(b) ethylene
(c) propylene
(d) acetylene

3. Which of the following elements is non-radioactive ?

(a) Uranium
(b) Thorium
(c) Plutonium
(d) Zirconium

4. Who invented Radar ?

(a) J. H. Van Tassel
(b) Wilhelm K. Roentgen
(c) P.T. Farnsworth
(d) A. H. Taylor & Leo C. Young

5. Who developed the concept ‘World Wide Web’?

(a) Tim Berners-Lee
(b) Microsoft
(c) Arthur Clarke
(d) AT & T Bell La

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6. Who scripted Gandhiji’s favorite song ‘Vaishnav Jan To?

(a) Narsinh Mehta
(b) Premanand
(c) Chunilal
(d) Dharmiklal

7. Yamini Krishna Murthy is famous for which style of dancing

(a) Manipuri
(b) Garba
(c) Bharatanatyam
(d) Kathak

8. Identify the goodwill ambassador for the UNICEF from the following

(a) Amitabh Bachchan
(b) N.R. Narayana Murthy
(c) Vijay Amritraj
(d) Michael Schumacher

9. Whose autobiography is “My Life”?

(a) Nelson Mandela
(b) Bill Clinton
(c) Margaret Thatcher
(d) J.M. Lyngdoh

10. Which country won the Euro 2004 Football Championship ?

(a) Germany
(b) Czech Republic
(c) Portugal
(d) Greece

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Answer Key :

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (d)

RRB GROUP-D Exam - Model Questions (Set-51)

Directions: In question nos. 17to 22, find the odd one out from the given alternatives.

1.

(a) 369
(b) 862
(c) 462
(d) 761

2.

(a) 117, 13
(b) 162, 18
(c) 171, 19
(d) 304, 16

Directions: In question no. 23 to 25, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

3. 18, 24, 21, 27, ? , 30, 27

(a) 33
(b) 30
(c) 24
(d) 21

4. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, ?

(a) 63
(b) 65
(c) 67
(d) 69

5. A, D, H, M, ?, Z

(a) B
(b) G
(c) S
(d) N

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6. A compact disc (CD) is a data storage system of the type

(a) magnetic
(b) optical
(c) electrical
(d) electro-mechanical

7. Tungsten is used for the manufacture of the filament of an electric bulb, because

(a) It is a good conductor
(b) It is economical
(c) It is malleable
(d) It has a very high melting point

8. What is the wavelength of visible spectrum ?

(a) 1300 A-3000 A
(b) 3900 A - 7600 A
(c) 7800 A - 8000 A
(d) 8500 A - 9800 A

9. How was Burma (now Myanmar) known to ancient Indians ?

(a) Malayamandalam
(b) Yavadwipa
(c) Suvamabhumi
(d) Suvarnadwipa

10. The ratio of pure gold in 18 carat gold is

(a) 60%
(b) 75%
(c) 80%
(d) 90%

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Answer Key :

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (b)

RRB GROUP-D Exam - Model Questions (Set-50)

Directions: In question nos. 11 to 16 select the related letters/ word/ number/figure from the given alternatives.

1. Smoke : Pollution : : War : _?_

(a) Victory
(b) Peace
(c) Treaty
(d) Destruction

2. Hour : Second : : Tertiary

(a) Ordinary
(b) Secondary
(c) Primary
(d) Intermediary

3. BEHK : YVSP :: CFIL : ?

(a) XVSQ
(b) XWUT
(c) XURO
(d) XUSP

4. ADHM : ZWSN : : CFJO : ?

(a) YVRM
(b) WSPK
(c) XWTP
(d) ZXVT

5. 5 : 36 : : 6 : ?

(a) 48
(b) 50
(c) 49
(d) 56

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6. 182 : ? : : 210 : 380

(a) 342
(b) 272
(c) 240
(d) 156

Directions: In question nos. 17to 22, find the odd one out from the given alternatives.

7.

(a) MIZORAM
(b) SIKKIM
(c) KOHIMA
(d) MANIPUR

8.

(a) Pond - Lake
(b) Pistol - Gun
(c) Car - Bus
(d) Church - Monument

9.

(a) AYBZ
(b) BXCY
(c) DVEW
(d) MPON

10.

(a) ACDF
(b) TUOP
(c) HIVW
(d) FGKL

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Answer Key :

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (a)

RRB GROUP-D Exam - Model Questions (Set-49)

1. A, B, C, D, E, F & G are sitting in line facing the East. C is immediate right of D. B is at an extreme end and has E as his neighbour. G is between E and F. D is sitting third from the South end. Who are the persons sitting at the extreme ends

(a) A & E
(b) A & B
(c) F & B
(d) C & D

2. Sita is the niece of Ashok. Ashok’s mother is Lakshmi. Kalyani is Lakshmi’s mother. Kalyani’s husband is Gopal. Parvathi is the mother-in-law of Gopal. How is Sita related to Gopal

(a) Great grandson’s daughter
(b) Gopal is Sita’s father
(c) Sita is Gopal’s great grand daughter
(d) Grand niece

3. A is B’s sister, C is B’s mother, D is C’s father, E is D’s mother, then how A is related to D ?

(a) Grandfather
(b) Daughter
(c) Grandmother
(d) Grand daughter

4. ‘All beggars are poor.’ If the above statement is true, which of the following conclusions can be drawn?

(a) All those who are poor are beggars.
(b) If A is rich, then A is not a beggar.
(c) If A is not rich, then A is not a beggar.
(d) If A is a beggar, then A is not rich.

Directions: In thefollowing question, number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series is increased by one. Which of the following series observes the rule ?

5.

(a) ACFJN
(b) ACFJO
(c) ADFJO
(d) ACFKO

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6. Which letter represents the Artists who are Doctors and Dancers ?

(a) H
(b) G
(c) D
(d) A

7. Which letters represent the Artists who are neither Scientists nor Doctors

(a) A & 8
(b) A & L
(c) B & G
(d) L & H

8. Which letters represent the Artists who are Dancers as well Doctors ?

(a) A&D
(b) G&H
(c) C & A
(d) C & D

9. Which letter represents the Artists who are neither Doctors nor Scientists nor Dancers ?

(a) D
(b) F
(c) A
(d) G

10. Which letter represents the Scientists who are not Artists?

(a) B
(b) D
(c) L
(d) F

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Answer Key :

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) (4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (c)

RRB GROUP-D Exam - Model Questions (Set-48)

1. If a : b = c : d = e : f = 1 : 2, then (pa + qc + re) : (pb + qd + rf) is equal to

(a) p : (q + r)
(b) (p + q) : r
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 1 : 2

2. If x : y = 3 : 1, then x³– y³: x³+ y³= ?

(a) 13 : 14
(b) 14 : 13
(c) 10 : 11
(d) 11 : 10

3. If 10% of m is the same as 20% of n, then m : n is equal to

(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 10
(d) 1 :20

4. How many sides does a regular polygon have whose interior and exterior angles are in the ratio 2 : 1?

(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 12

5. The area (in sq.cm.) of the largest circle that can be drawn inside a square of side 28 cm, is

(a) 17248
(b) 784
(c) 8624
(d) 616

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6. The circumference of the base of a circular cylinder is 67π cm. The height of the cylinder Is equal to the diameter of the base. How many litres of water can it hold?

(a) 54 π cc
(b) 36 π cc
(c) 0.054 π cc
(d) 0.54 π cc

7. If the circumference of a circle increases from 4n to 8, what change occurs in its area?

(a) It doubles
(b) It triples
(c) It quadruples
(d) It is halved

8. A starts business with Rs. 3500/- and after 5 months, B joins with A as his partner. After a year, the profit is divided in the ratio 2 : 3. What is B’s contribution in the capital?

(a) Rs. 8000/-
(b) Rs. 8500/-
(c) Rs. 9000/-
(d) Rs. 7500/-

9. A, B and C rent a pasture. A puts in 10 oxen for 7 months, B 12 oxen for 5 months and C 15 oxen for 3 months for grazing. If the rent of the pasture is Rs. 175/-, how much must C pay as his share of rent

(a) Rs. 45/-
(b) Rs. 50/-
(c) Rs.55/-
(d) Rs. 60/-

10. A reduction of 20% in the price of oranges enables a man to buy 5 oranges more for Rs. 10/-. The price of an orange before reduction was:

(a) 20 paise
(b) 40 paise
(c) 50 paise
(d) 60 paise

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Answer Key :

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c)

RRB GROUP-D Exam - Model Questions (Set-47)

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 1/2
 

2. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 8. Which one of the following can never be their L.C.M.?

(a) 24
(b) 48
(c) 56
(d) 60

3. If the sum of two numbers is 22 and the sum of their squares is 404, then the product of the numbers is:

(a) 40
(b) 44
(c) 80
(d) 88

4. 1/0.04 is equal to:

(a) 1/40
(b) 2/5
(c) 5/2
(d) 25

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6. The sum of first 20 odd natural numbers is equal to :

(a) 210
(b) 300
(c) 400
(d) 420

(a) 625/16
(b) 625/8
(c) 625/32
(d) 16/ 625

8. (6.5 × 6.5 – 45.5 + 3.5 × 3.5) is equal to :

(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 7
(d) 6

9. What number should be subtracted from both terms of the ratio 15 : 19 in order to make it 3 : 4?

(a) 9
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 3

10. If p : q = r : s = t : u = 2 : 3, then (mp + nr + ot) : (mq + ns + ou) is equal to :

(a) 1 : 3
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 3 : 2

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Answer Key :

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)

RRB GROUP-D Exam - Model Questions (Set-45)

1. A circular plate, a cube and a sphere, all made up of same material and having the same mass, are heated to 300°C and left in a room. Which of them will have the slowest rate of cooling?

(a) Circular plate
(b) Cube
(c) Sphere
(d) All will cool at the same rate

2. Where does the oxygen that keeps us alive come from?

(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Carbonates absorbed from soil
(c) Oxides of minerals
(d) Water

3. Reserpine is used to

(a) reduce high blood pressure
(b) increase blood pressure when it is low
(c) alleviate pain
(d) cure arthritis

4. ‘ELISA’ test is employed to diagnose:

(a) Polio virus
(b) AIDS antibodies
(c) Tuberculosis bacterium
(d) Cancer

5. Why excessive heating and repeated use of cooking oil is most undesirable?

(a) The oil vapours can cause indoor pollution
(b) Carcinogenic substances like benzpyrene are produced
(c) Nutrient value of food is lost
(d) Loss and wastage of oil

RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

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6. The gas used for artificial fruit ripening of green fruit is-

(a) Ethylene
(b) Acetylene
(c) Ethane
(d) Methane

7. Optic fibres are used in

(a) CAT scans
(b) X-ray photos
(c) Ultrasound scans
(d) Endoscopy

68. The three elements most needed in common fertilisers ar

(a) Sulphur, Phosphorous and Sodium
(b) Nitrogen, Potassium and Phosphorous
(c) Phosphorous, Sodium and Nitrogen
(d) Calcium, Phosphorous and Potassium

9. What was the ultimate goal of Mahatma Gandhi’s Salt Satyagraha

(a) repeal of Salt Satyagraha
(b) curtailment of the Government’s power
(c) economic relief to the common people
(d) ‘Purna Swaraj’ for India

10. Who persuaded the ratings of the RIN (Royal India Navy) to surrender on the 23rd February 1946

(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru and Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Vallabh Bhai Patel and M.A. Jinnah
(d) Morarji Desai and J.B. Kripalani

RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

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RRB Group-D Exam Online Tests Series

Answer Key :

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)

RRB GROUP-D Exam - Model Questions (Set-44)

1. What was the exact constitutional position of the Indian Republic when the Constitution was brought into force with effect from 26th January, 1950?

(a) A Democratic Republic
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(d) A Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic

2. Fabianism is closely related to:

(a) Fascism
(b) Scientific socialism
(c) Democratic socialism
(d) Liberalism

3. A federal structure for India was first put forward by the

(a) Act of 1909
(b) Act of 1919
(c) Act of 1935
(d) Act of 1947

4. Which Writ is issued by a High Court or the Supreme Court to compel an authority, to perform a function that it was not performing?

(a) Writ of Certiorari
(b) Writ of Habeas Corpus
(c) Writ of Mandamus
(d) Writ of Quo Warranto

5. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament over a non-money bill

(a) the bill will lapse
(b) the President may sign it into a law
(c) the President may call a joint sitting of both the Houses to consider it.
(d) the President may ask both the Houses to reconsider it.

RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

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6. Commercial nitric acid is coloured because it contains dissolved

(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Nitrogen dioxide
(d) Coloured impurities

7. Fertiliser having high nitrogen content is

(a) Urea
(b) Ammonium sulphate
(c) Ammonium nitrate
(d) Calcium citrate

8. Quantity of fresh air required for a man is

(a) 1000 cubic feet of air for every 20 minutes
(b) 1000 cubic feet of air for every 20 seconds
(c) 1000 cubic feet of air for every 10 minutes
(d) 1000 cubic feet of air for every 10 seconds

9. A compact disc (CD) is a data storage system of the type

(a) Magnetic
(b) Optical
(c) Electrical
(d) Electro mechanical

10. Surface tension in a liquid is due to

(a) Adhesive force between molecules
(b) Cohesive force between molecules
(c) Gravitational force between molecules
(d) Electrical force between molecules.

RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

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RRB Group-D Exam Online Tests Series

Answer Key :

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)

RRB GROUP-D Exam - Model Questions (Set-43)

1. The largest irrigation canal in India is called the

(a) Yamuna canal
(b) Sirhand canal
(c) Indira Gandhi canal
(d) Upper Ban Doab canal

2. Atmospheric pressure exerted on earth is due to

(a) rotation of earth
(b) revolution of earth
(c) gravitational pull
(d) uneven heating of earth

3. Pruning is an essential part in cultivation of

(a) Rubber
(b) Tobacco
(c) Coffee
(d) Tea

4. Operating surplus arises in the

(a) Government sector
(b) Production for self-consumption
(c) Subsistence farming
(d) Enterprise sector

5. The most important of the non-tariff trade barriers are:

(a) Quotas
(b) Health regulations
(c) Pollution standards
(d) Labelling and packaging regulations

RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

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6. The maximum area under crops in India is used for the cultivation of:

(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Cotton

7. Investment is equal to:

(a) gross total of all types of physical capital assets
(b) gross total of all capital assets minus wear and tear
(c) stock of plants, machines and equipments
(d) None of the above

8. The Tarapore Committee recommended that before capital account was made convertible the rate of inflation should be brought down for three years to within :

(a) 3.5%
(b) 0.3%
(c) 4.6%
(d) 5.7%

9. Who among the following are not appointed by the President of India?

(a) Governors of States
(b) Chief Justice and Judges of High Court
(c) Vice-President
(d) Chief Justice and Judges of Supreme Court

10. What is the period within which a proclamation of national emergency made by the President is to be placed before each house of the Parliament for approval?

(a) within one month
(b) within two months
(c) within four months
(d) within six months

RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

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Answer Key :

1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (a)