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(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Date: 08 Dec 2016 Shift-1 (Mathematics)

 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key

Date: 08 Dec 2016 Shift-1 (Mathematics)

Q1. A student was asked to divide a number by 3. But instead of dividing it, he multipled it by 3 and got 29.7. What was the correct answer ?

a. 3.3
b. 3.9
c. 9.9
d. None of the above

Q2. What is the smallest number by which 3600 must be divided to make a perfect cube ?

a. 45
b. 50
c. 300
d. 450

Q3. A rope makes 140 rounds of the circumference of a cylinder, the radius of whose base is 14 cm. How many times can the same rope go round a cylinder with radius 20 Cm ?

a. 28
b. 98
c. 116
d. None of the above

Q4. A man completes a journey in 8 hours. He covers half the distance at 40 km/hr and the rest at 60 km/hr. the length of the journey is :

a. 450 km
b. 420 km
c. 384 km
d. None of the above

Q5. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of tea costing Rs.15 and Rs.20perkg respectively so as to get a mixture worth Rs.16.50 per kg ?

a. 3:7
b. 5 : ?
c. 7 : 3
d. None of the above

Q6. (0.07% of 1250) - (0.02% of 650) - ?

a. 0.545
b. 0.625
c. 0.745
d. None of the above

Q7. The product of two positive numbers is 2500. If one is four the other. then the sum of two numbers is

a. 25
b. 125
c. 225
d. None of the above

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Q8. The marked price of an object is Rs. 1920. The shopkeeper allows a discount of 10% and gains 8%. If no di aunt is allowed his gain percent would be :

a. 18%
b. 20%
c. 22.5%
d. None of the above

Q9. One year ago a man was 7 times as old as his son. Now his age is equal to the square of his son's age. The present age of the man is :

a. 36 Years
b. 49 Years
c. 64 Years
d. None of the above

Q10. The ratio of cost price and selling price of an articl k is 20 : 21. What is the profit percent on it ?

a. 5%
b. 6.25%
c. 7.5%
d. None of the above

Q11. Which of the following is the lowest ratio ?

a. 7 : 13
b. 17 : 25
c. 17 : 15
d. 15 : 23

Q12. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 11 and their L.C.M. is 7700. If one of the numbers is 275, the other is :

a. 279
b. 283
c. 308
d. None of the above

Q13. A, B, C started a shop by investing Rs.27,000, Rs.81,000 and Rs.72,000 respectively. At the end of one yi ar, B's share of total profit was Rs.36,000. What was the total profit ?

a. Rs. 116000
b. Rs. 108000
c. Rs. 80000
d. None of the above

Q14. A mixture of 40 litres of milk and water contains 10% of water. How much water should be added to this mixture so that the new mixture contains 20% water ?

a. 4 litres
b. 5 litres
c. 7.5 litres
d. None of the above

Q15. Price of 5 chairs and 2 tables is Rs. 1350. Two chairs cost as much as one table. What is the price of one chair and one table ?

a. Rs. 350
b. Rs. 450
c. Rs. 500
d. Rs. 550

Q16. If 3 persons weave 336 shawls in 14 days, how many shawls will 8 persons weave in 5 days ?

a. 360
b. 320
c. 180
d. None of the above

Q17. Average of 15 numbers is 7. Out of them the average of first 8 numbers is 6.5 and the average of last eight numbers is 9.5. The middle number is :

a. 21
b. 22
c. 23
d. None of the above

Q18. he sum of the ages of Kidambi and Srikanth 14 years hence will be equal to 2 times their present age. If at present Kidambi is 8 years elder to Srikanth, then what are their present ages?

a. 22, 8
b. 29, 12
c. 18, 10
d. 13, 6

Q19. Mayank said to his friend “If you subtract 18 from my age the two digits of my age will reverse their positions. Also my age is six less than 8 times the sum of digits of my age”. Find Mayank's age.

a. 46 years
b. 37 years
c. 56 years
d. 42 years

Q20. If the average age of a class is 15 (including the age of the teacher); that of the boys is 10 and if the age of the teacher is 13 more than the average age of the girls , then what is the average age of the girls, given that the number of boys and girls is the same?

a. 11
b. 12
c. 13
d. NA

Q21. There are three Pathan brothers Yusuf Pathan, Irfan Pathan and Saddam Pathan. The sum of the squares of the their ages (in completed years) is 325. If the product of their ages does not exceed 1000, find the age (in years) of the youngest brother.

a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 9

Q22. The average age of a family of five members is 20 years. If the age of the youngest member is 10 years as of now, what was the average age of the family just a day before the birth of the youngest member? Assume that no other members have been added to or removed from this family in this period?

a. 15 years
b. 12.5 years
c. 16 years
d. 11 years

Q23. If 6 years is subtracted from the present age of Randheer and the remainder is divided by 18, then the present age of his grandson Anup is obtained, If Anup is 2 year younger than Mahesh whose age is 5 Years, then what is the age of Randheer?

a. 96 years
b. 84 years
c. 48 years
d. 60 years

Q24. A shopkeeper deals in milk and 45 litre mixture is to be distributed in Milk & Water in the ratio of 4 : 1. If 4 litre milk & 3 litre water will be added in the mixture then what will be the new ratio of water and milk?

a. 5 : 6
b. 3 : 10
c. 4 : 5
d. 7 : 8

Q25. The least number which when divided by 6, 9, 12, 15, 18 leaves the same remainder 2 in each case, is:

a. 176
b. 178
c. 180
d. 182

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Answer:
1. (a), 2. (d), 3. (b), 4. (c), 5. (c), 6. (c), 7. (b), 8. (b), 9. (c), 10. (a), 11. (a), 12. (c), 13. (c), 14. (b), 15. (b), 16. (b), 17. (c), 18. (c), 19. (d), 20. (d), 21. (a), 22. (b), 23. (d), 24. (b), 25. (d)

 

 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Date: 08 Dec 2016 Shift-1 (General Science)

 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key

Date: 08 Dec 2016 Shift-1 (General Science)

Q1. As compared to pure water, a body in salty water will :

a. Sink more
b. Sink less
c. Remain same
d. Depends on the Way the body is reed

Q2. Which of the following is a colloidal solution?

a. Vinegar solution
b. Paint
c. Muddy water
d. Sugar solution

Q3. If the mass of a body is 'm' on the surface of the earth, its mass on the surface of the moon will be :

a. m/6
b. m+ 6
c. m
d. 6m

Q4. Which of the following is attracted by magnet ?

a. Sulphur
b. Iron filings
c. Iron Sulphide
d. None of the above

Q5. Which organ of the body is affected by Leukoderma ?

a. Heart
b. Kidney
c. Lungs
d. Skin

Q6. A mixture of sand and salt can be separated by :

a. Sublimation
b. Sieving
c. Dissolving salt in water and then filtration
d. Dissolving salt in water and then distillation

Q7. The conversion of a solid directly into its vapour is called :

a. Evaporation
b. Condensation
c. Vaporisation
d. Sublimation

Q8. Which fins do NOT help fish in balancing in water ?

a. Dorsal
b. Pelvic
c. Anal
d. Tail

Q9. The common Alum is :

a. Potassium Alum
b. Sodium Alum
c. Ferro Alum
d. Chrome Alum

Q10. On applying a constant force to a body, it moves with uniform_:

a. Momentum
b. Speed
c. Velocity
d. Acceleration

Q11. The persistence of sound in an auditorium is due to :

a. Single reflection of sound
b. Repeated reflections of sound
c. Repeated refraction of sound
d. Vibration of objects placed in the auditorium

Q12. Which among the following is NOT present in animal cell ?

a. Mitochondria
b. Chloroplast
c. Nucleolus
d. Plasma membrane

Q13. Tendon connects :

a. Bone to bone
b. Muscles to bone
c. Muscles to uscles
d. Nerve to muscles

Q14. The longest cell in human body is :

a. Skeletal cells
b. RBC
c. Nerve cells
d. WBC

Q15. Group of cells having a common origin and performing similar functions are called :

a. Tissues
b. Organs
c. Organ systems
d. None of the above

Q16. The acid present in the stomach which helps in the digestion of food is":

a. Nitric acid
b. Sulphuric acid
c. Hydrogen chloride
d. None of the above

Q17. Which pair is NOT correctly matched ?

a. Pisciculture - Fish
b. Sericulture - Earthworms
c. Green Revolution - Agriculture
d. White Revolution - Milk

Q18. If the mass of a solid is doubled, its density :

a. becomes two times
b. becomes half
c. remains unchanged
d. becomes four times

Q19. Fluid part of Blood after removal of Corpuscles is called :

a. Vaccine
b. Lymph
c. Serum
d. Plasma

Q20. CG is done to diagnose an ailment connected with?

a. Kidney
b. Heart
c. Brain
d. Blood

Q21. Which of the following is the purest form of Carbon?

a. Charcoal
b. Granite
c. Diamond
d. Graphite

Q22. Which instrument is used to record Atmospheric pressure?

a. Thermometer
b. Barometer
c. Seismometer
d. Oscilloscope

Q23. Quinine is obtained from which of the following Plant?

a. Cinchona
b. Cocoa
c. Mulberry
d. Eucalyptus

Q24. Which instrument is used to record the speed of a vehicle?

a. Thermometer
b. Barometer
c. Speedometer
d. Oscilloscope

Q25. Humerus bone is situated in?

a. Thigh
b. Upper arm
c. Knee
d. Fore arm

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Answer:
1. (b), 2. (b), 3. (a), 4. (b), 5. (d), 6. (d), 7. (d), 8. (d), 9. (a), 10. (d), 11. (a), 12. (b), 13. (a), 14. (c), 15. (a), 16. (c), 17. (b), 18. (a), 19. (b), 20. (b), 21. (c), 22. (b), 23. (a), 24. (c), 25. (a)

 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Date: 08 Dec 2016 Shift-1 (General Knowledge)

 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key

Date: 08 Dec 2016 Shift-1 (General Knowledge)

Q1. One of the following is correctly matched ?

a. Rabindranath Tagore - Nil Darpan
b. Dadabhai Naomi! - India Unrest
c. Dinbandhu Mitra - Godaan
d. Ramesh Chandra Dull - Economic History of India

Q2. Which river is also referred as 'Dakshin Gangs' ?

a. Mahanadi
b. Krishna
c. Brahmaputra
d. Godavari

Q3. During Which administration was "Ashtapradhan Mandel" the name of Council of Ministers ?

a. Guptas
b. Mauryas
c. Kakatiyas
d. Marathas

Q4. The Sarvodaya Movement was started by :

a. Mahatma Gandhi
b. Jayprakash Narayan
c. Vinoba Bhav
d. Jyotiba Phule

Q5. In the Indian Constitution, the power to issue a Writ of "Habeas Corpus` is vested in :

a. Supreme court only
b. High Court only
c. Subordinate courts
d. Supreme court and High Court

Q6. Where are Berra Caves located ?

a. Odisha
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Maharashtra
d. Andhra Pradesh

Q7. Which of the following issued initial Public Offer no rins for Life Insurance

a. CRISIL
b. SEBI
c. RBI
d. IRDA

Q8. Which among the following fighter plane is manufactured in France ?

a. Dassault Rafale
b. MIG-35
c. Lockheed Martin
d. None of the above

Q9. Who is the present of National Commission for Women in India ?

a. Nimlala Samant Prabhavalkar
b. Mamta Sharrna
c. Jayanti Patnaik
d. None of the above

Q10. Which of the following is incorrect ?

a. S.K. Pottekkat - Telugu
b. Tulsidas - Awadhi
c. Amitav Ghosh - English
d. Akilan - Tamil

Q11. In which Governor - General‘s reign was the first train service started in 1853 ?

a. Lord William Bentick
b. Lord Cornwallis
c. Lord Canning
d. Lord Dalhousie

Q12. Token currency was introduced in India for the first tune by :

a. Alan-din-Khilji
b. Sher Shah Sari
c. Ghiyasud-din-Tughlaq
d. Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq

Q13. Which of the following is incorrect ?

a. Jodhabai - Salim
b. Manmati - Khurram
c. Jijabai - Shivaji
d. Tarabax - Shahuji

Q14. Where was the first general Post Office opened in India ?

a. Delhi
b. Mumbai
c. Kolkata
d. None of the above

Q15. What type of the star is the SUN ?

a. Gaint
b. Supergiant
c. Dwarf
d. None of the above

Q16. "Din-i-llahi" was founded by:

a. Guru Nanak
b. Kabir
c. Akbar
d. Shah Johan

Q17. Who was the Prime Minister of Britain when India got the Freedom ?

a. Clement Aileen
b. Winston Churchill
c. Neville Chamberlain
d. None of Ole above

Q18. What does NASSCOM stand for ?

a. National Association of Shares and -rules Companies
b. National Association of Software and Service Companies
c. National Agency of Secret Se/Vice Companies
d. None of the above

Q19. Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar award is given for exemplary work done in the field of :

a. Journalism
b. Literature
c. Science and Technology
d. None of the above

Q20. Which part of the Constitution of India refers to the responsibility of the state towards International Peace and Security ?

a. Fundamental Rights
b. Direct Principles
c. Preamble
d. None of the above

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Answer:
1. (d), 2. (d), 3. (d), 4. (b), 5. (d), 6. (d), 7. (c), 8. (a), 9. (b), 10. (a), 11. (d), 12. (d), 13. (a), 14. (c), 15. (c), 16. (c), 17. (a), 18. (b), 19. (c), 20. (b)

 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Date: 18 Sep 2018 Shift-2 (General Science)

 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key

Date: 18 Sep 2018 Shift-2 (General Science)

Q1. ___________is prevented by coating the conducting wire with pvc.

a. Overloading
b. Fusing
c. Dripping
d. Short-Circuit

Q2. The molecular mass of O2 is_________

a. 8
b. 16
c. 32
d. 64

Q3. An Object of mass 6 kg and having a potential energy of 480 J is placed at a height. Find the height of the object w.r.t the ground (g=10m/s)

a. 7
b. 8
c. 4
d. 6

Q4. If the electronic configuration of an element is 2, 8, 2, to which period of the Modern Periodic Table does it belong?

a. 4
b. 2
c. 12
d. 3

Q5. The walls of sclerenchyma cells are thickened due to ________

a. Pectin
b. Hemi-cellulose
c. Cellulose
d. Lignin

Q6. The electronic configuration of an element belonging to period 2 and showing strong catenation property is:

a. 2,6
b. 2,8,4
c. 2,8,2
d. 2,4

Q7.a milkman adds a small amount of baking soda to fresh milk:

a. To improve taste of milk
b. To prevent acidisation of milk
c. To improve the consistency of milk
d. To increase the cream in the milk

Q8. An object is released from a certain height above the ground. Just at the time it touches the ground, it will possess_______

a. Kinetic energy
b. Chemical energy
c. Heat energy
d. Potential energy

Q9. The _______ acts as a food store in plant seeds.

a. Radicle
b. Ovule
c. Plumule
d. Cotyledons

Q10. The prefix added to the name of the hydrocarbon with 4 carbon atoms is.

a. Eth
b. Hept
c. But
d. Prop

Q11. Clouds looking white in colour are due to the phenomenon of ________

a. Refraction of light
b. Reflection of light
c. Scattering of light
d. Radiation

Q12. ___________ is the commercial unit of energy.

a. Kilowatt hour
b. Joule
c. Kilowatt
d. Watt hour

Q13. The millions period consists of the places:

a. M, TH, HM
b. O,T,M
c. M,TM
d. TTh, HTh, M

Q14. An electric bulb having voltage 240V and current 0.6 A has a power of _____________

a. 40W
b. 400W
c. 144W
d. 14.4W

Q15. Select the most appropriate option.
 1KWH = _____________

a. 3,60,000 J
b. 3,600 J
c. 36,00,000 J
d. 36,000 J

Q16. Which of the following is the ore of mercury?

a. Stibnite
b. Arsenic
c. Cinnabar
d. Bauxite

Q17. The gravitational force of attraction between a satellite and the earth gives rise to ___________

a. Centrifugal force
b. Planar force
c. Centripetal force
d. Tension

Q18. Bifocal lenses are used by people suffering from__________

a. Myopia or Hypermetropia
b. Myopia but not Hypermetropia
c. Hypermetropia but not Myopia
d. Myopia and Hypermetropia

Q19. The source of the Sun’s energy is the process of:

(a) Photoelectric emission
(b) Nuclear fission
(c) Nuclear fusion
(d) Thermionic emission

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ANSWER:
1. (d), 2. (c), 3. (b), 4. (d), 5. (d), 6. (d), 7. (b), 8. (a), 9. (d), 10. (c), 11. (c), 12. (a), 13. (a), 14. (c), 15. (c), 16. (c), 17. (c), 18. (d), 19. (c)

 

(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Date: 18 Sep 2018 Shift-2 (General Knowledge)

 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key

Date: 18 Sep 2018 Shift-2 (General Knowledge)

Q1. Which organization has set up the Govardhan Eco Village in Maharashtra?

a. RSS
b. GaugiyaMath
c. ISKCON
d. Isha Foundation

Q2. Who among the following had resigned from the post of Head Coach of Indian Cricket team in 2017?

a. Anil Kumble
b. Kapil Dev
c. Rahul Dravid
d. Ravi Shastri

Q3. ________does not belong to the class Annelida.

a. Ascaris
b. Earthworm
c. Leech
d. Neries

Q4. An object is stationary then the force is still acting on it is:

a. Momentum
b. Impulse
c. Acceleration
d. Weight

Q5. What is the initiative of FSSAI that will enable collection and conversion of used cooking oil to bio-diesel?

a. RUSA
b. RAMA
c. RENO
d. RUCO

Q6. In which state is the Pagladia Dam located?

a. Nagaland
b. West Bengal
c. Meghalaya
d. Assam

Q7. Sadhguru jaggi Vasudev has been awarded with Padma vibhushan award in 2017 by the government of India for his contribution towards which of the following?

a. Music
b. Spiritually
c. Sports
d. Politics

Q8. ________Contributed to the theories of inheritance of traits in living things

a. JBS Haldane
b. Stanley Miller
c. Charles Darwin
d. Gregor Mendel

Q9. Name the athletic event in which Manpreet Kaur won a glod medal in the first leg of Asian Grand Prix Athletics Meet?

a. Discus throw
b. High jump
c. Long jump
d. Shot put

Q10. In which year Goa was captured by Portuguese?

a. 1512
b. 1510
c. 1516
d. 1515

Q11. The former RBI governor Raghuram Rajan authored the book-

a. The Ministry of Utmost Happiness
b. Emergency-Indian Democracy’s Darkest Hour
c. The Unseen Indira Gandhi
d. I Do What I Do

Q12. Who among the following is the founder of Swatantra Party?

a. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
b. Vallabhbhai Patel
c. Kamaraj
d. C Rajagopalachari

Q13. Who among the following has been honoured with the Global Diversity Award 2017 by the British Parliament House?

a. Akshay Kumar
b. Ranbir Kapoor
c. Salman Khan
d. Aamir Khan

Q14. In which Indian state has The Union Government sanctioned ₹98.35 Cr for the development of a Heritage Circuit?

a. Shimla
b. Assam
c. Nagaland
d. Tripura

Q15. Which organization has been honoured with the NABARD 2018 award?

a. Repco Micro Finance
b. HDFC Mutual Fund
c. Shriram Mutual Funds
d. ICICI Prudential

Q16. Who among the following hosts the Hindi version of “Bigg Boss-11”?

a. Aamir Khan
b. Farhan Akhtar
c. Shilpa Shetty
d. Salman Khan

Q17. What is the maximum strength of Lok sabha?

a. 552
b. 550
c. 545
d. 548

Q18. Which of the following is the indigenously designed and developed long-range subsonic cruise missile of India?

a. Helina
b. Nirbhay
c. Pinaka
d. Nag

Q19. We can control the urge to urinate as ________

a. Bladder is filled with less water
b. Bladder does not fill up easily
c. The muscular bladder is under nervous control
d. Sphincter muscle is present between bladder and urethra

Q20. Who won the Golden Boot Award in 2018 FIFA World Cup?

a. Lionel Messi
b. Antoine Griezmann
c. Harry Kane
d. Gabriel Jesus

Q21. The Ninety East Ridge is a submarine volcanic ridge located in which ocean?

a. Indian Ocean
b. Pacific Ocean
c. Arctic Ocean
d. Atlantic Ocean

Q22. Who launched India’s largest ‘train the trainers’ programme recently?

a. Sachin Tendulkar
b. Kapil Dev
c. Prakash Padukone
d. Pullela Gopichand

Q23. Who among the following has been names the “British Indian of the year”?

a. Ishwar Sharma
b. Ishwar Verma
c. Ishwar Kumar
d. Ishwar Gupta

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ANSWER
1. (c), 2. (a), 3. (a), 4. (a), 5. (d), 6. (d), 8. (b), 9. (d), 10. (d), 11. (b), 12. (d), 13. (d), 14. (c), 15. (a), 16. (a), 17. (d), 18. (b), 19. (c), 20. (c), 21. (a), 22. (d), 23. (a)

(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Date: 18 Sep 2018 Shift-2 (Reasoning)

 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key

Date: 18 Sep 2018 Shift-2 (Reasoning)

Q1. Read the given question and decide which of the following statements is/are sufficient to answer the question?
What is the age of Sriram?

Statement:

1. Sriram is 32 years elder to Shyam.
2. Shyam is 2 years old now.

a. Both 1 and 2 are sufficient
b. Either I or 2 is sufficient
c. Only 1 is sufficient
d. Only 2 is sufficient

Q2. Which answer figures will come next in the given problem figure series?

Q3. Read the given statement and conclusion carefully and select which of the conclusions logically follow from the statement.

Statement:

  • All mud are vessels
  • All vessels are containers

Conclusion:
1. All containers are mud.
2. Some vessels are mud

Q4. Consider the given statement to be true even if be true even if it seems to be at variance with commonly known facts and decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the statement.

Statement:

  • Waste management is one of our country’s most important concerns these these days given the fast pace growing population and increasing wastes.

Conclusion:

I. The indisposed waste caused a lot of harm to our environment and breeds various diseases.
II. It will certainly be helpful to address public or students at any institution on waste management.

a. Only conclusion I follows
b. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
c. Both conclusion I and II follows
d. Only conclusion II follows

Q5. Joy points out to a picture and says, ‘This is my mother’s sister’s husband,’ How is the person in the picture related to Joy?

a. Maternal Uncle
b. Brother
c. Paternal Uncle
d. Son

Q6. Identify the founder of Paytm who was listed in TIME magazine’s most influential people list 2017 along with Prime Minister Narendra Modi?

a. Vijay malya
b. Vijay Bhaskar
c. Narendra Kumar
d. Vijay Shekhar Sharma

Q7. Choose the most suitable Venn diagram for the following words.

Garlic, Ginger, Chilly

Q8. Choose the mirror image for the following figure when the mirror is kept at the MN line.

Q9. Which of the options bears the closest resemblance to the following figure?

Q10. Consider the given statement and decide which of the following assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.

Statement:

  • Stories are the best way to make children remember concepts in the early years of their life.

Assumptions:

I. Children like stories
II. Stories improve children’s imagination and visualization skills.

a. Only I is implicit
b. Only II is implicit
c. Both I and II are implicit
d. Neither I nor II is implicit

Q11. Which of the option figures bears the closed resemblance to the question figure?

Q12. If KIN is written as PRM then how would you write THREAD?

a. GSIVYW
b. GSIVWZ
c. GSIVZW
d. GRIUZW

Q13. Which of the following Venn diagram correctly represents the relationship between:

A. Mobile
B. Laptop
C. Electronic

Q14. In which of the following activities is work said to be done?

a. Pinki is walking on a leveled road with a book on her head
b. Khishi is pushing a wall of a house but fails to do so
c. Harsh is reading a book
d. Shruti is sitting on a chair

Q15. Which of the given elements A,B,C,D and E with atomic number 2,3,7,10 and 30 respectively belong to the same period?

a. B,D,E
b. A,B,C
c. A,D,E
d. B,C,D

Q16. Which assumptions are implied from the below statement?

“Trees can communicate and share nutrients with other trees in a forest” says a scientist.

Assumptions:
 

I. Plants share extra nutrients with other plants
II. Underneath the earth everything is connected.

a. Neither I nor II is implicit
b. Only II is implicit
c. Only I is implicit
d. Both I and II are implicit

Q17. Which of the following does NOT belong to this group?

a. Ant
b. Caterpillar
c. Hamster
d. Locust

Q18. Find the next letter-pair in the following series.

DO, EP, FQ, GR, ?

a. SH
b. HS
c. ST
d. HV

Q19. Choose the one that does NOT belong to the group.

a. Aluminium
b. Gold
c. Silver
d. Hydrogen

Q20. Find the odd one out.

a. C
b. B
c. A
d. D

Q21. Given is a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. Considered the statement and the following assumptions and decided which of the assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.

Statement:

  • Global warming, species extinction and deforestation are posing a threat to the environment

Assumptions:

I. The more we exploit and degrade out environment, the more ecological imbalance we create, ultimately putting the very existence of human life at risk.
II. Every species is dependent on every other species for survival, directly or indirectly. Human beings are the ones who depend on maximum number of species for not only our survival but also for our development needs.

a. Only assumption I is implicit
b. Neither assumption I nor II is implicit
c. Both assumptions I and II are implicit
d. Only assumption II is implicit

Q22. A is standing facing East. B is standing 750 m to the West of A. At 500 m to the right of A, there is a big pole. What is the direction of the pole with respect to B’s position?

a. North – East
b. South – West
c. North – West
d. South – East and

Q23. If “MAP” is coded as KYN in a code language, how will “REDUCE” be written in the same code?

a. OBASBD
b. PCBSAB
c. OBARBD
d. PCBSAC

Q24. Read the given statement and conclusion carefully and select which of the conclusions logically follow from the statement

Statement:

  • All cars are four-wheelers
  • All four-Wheelers are vehicles.

Conclusion:

  1. All cars are vehicles.
  2. Some vehicles are four-wheelers

a. No conclusion follow
b. Only conclusion 1 follows
c. All the conclusion follow
d. Only conclusion 2 follows

Q25. Sarang is facing West. He turns 135° clockwise and then 45° anticlockwise. In which direction he is facing now?

a. West
b. North
c. East
d. South

Q26. Find the missing term in the following series.

B-24, ?, F-9, H-4

a. T-19
b. D-20
c. D-16
d. S-18

Q27. Soham is 10 years younger than partha. Eight years ago three times the age of soham was 4 more than twice the age of Partha. Find Soham’s present age.

a. 32 years
b. 28 years
c. 30 years
d. 33 years

Q28. What is the next term is this series:

12A6Z, 24C4X, 36E2V,_____________

a. 48F0T
b. 48F9T
c. 48F9S
d. 48G0T

Q29. If today is Monday, then find the day after 61 days?

a. Friday
b. Saturday
c. Monday
d. Tuesday

Q30. Select the option figure that will complete the series of question figures.

a. D
b. C
c. A
d. B

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ANSWER:
1. (a), 2. (c), 3. (a), 4. (c), 5. (a), 6. (d), 7. (a), 8. (b), 9. (c), 10. (c), 11. (d), 12. (c), 13. (b), 14. (a), 15. (d), 16. (c), 17. (c), 18. (b), 19. (d), 20. (d), 21. (c), 22. (d), 23. (d), 24. (c), 25. (b), 26. (c), 27. (a), 28. (d), 29. (b), 30. (c)





 

 


 

(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Date: 18 Sep 2018 Shift-2 (Mathematics)

 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key

Date: 18 Sep 2018 Shift-2 (Mathematics)

Q1. The sum of two fractions is 7/4, One of them is 5/3, What is the other function?

a. 1/12
b. 1/5
c. 1/10
d. 2

Q2. Sita bought certain number of pens at 8 for Rs.7 and sold them at 6 for Rs. 5. The gain or loss percentage is?

a. No profit no loss
b. 100/21% loss
c. 99/21% loss
d. 100/21% profit

Q3. {8+(24+3)}/9=?

a. 3
b. 9
c. 8
d. 4

Q4. On a certain sum, simple interest for 5/2 years at an annual rate of 12% is Rs. 50 less than the interest on the same sum for 7/2 years at an annual rate rate of 10%. Find the sum.

a. Rs.1500
b. Rs.1000
c. Rs.2000
d. Rs.1200

Q5. Find the values of k for which x2+5kx+k2+5 is exactly divisible by x+2 but not divisible by x+3.

a. Neither 1 nor 9
b. 1
c. Both 1 and 9
d. 9

Q6. From the top of a platform 7m high, the angle of elevation of a tower was 30°. If the tower was 47 m high, how far away from the tower was the platform was the platform positioned?

a. 45√3m
b. 40m
c. 40√3m
d. 15√3m

Q7. A tap can fill the tank in 25 minutes and the other can empty the tank in 50 minutes. If both the taps are opened simultaneously, then the tank will be filled in time?

a. 50 minutes
b. 1 hour, 10 minutes
c. 1 hour, 5 minutes
d. 55 minutes

Q8. If the cost of tomatoes increases by 25% per kg and Sudha wants to spend only 15% more on the tomatoes. Calculate the percentage decrease in the quantity of tomatoes that Sudha gets.

a. 12.5%
b. 12%
c. 8%
d. 10%

Q9. On selling a jute bag for Rs. 48, Ashmitha incurs a loss of 20%. In order to make a profit of 20% what should be the selling price of the jute bag?

a. 56
b. 72
c. 52
d. 68

Q10. If √108 + √243 = 25.98 find the value of √147 + √192.

a. 25.98
b. 34.248
c. 27.712
d. 26.89

Q11. Vella is a farmer he owns few acres of land. Last month he had a good harvest which gave him a 90% profit on his initial investment. Approximately how much money he needs to invest each season?

a. 3,00,000
b. 1,50,000
c. 1,00,000
d. 6,00,000

Q12. Keerthi and Malathi together can complete a task in 12 days, while Malathi can finish it in 30 days. In how many days can Keerthi alone complete the task?

a. 10 Days
b. 40 Days
c. 20 Days
d. 30 Days

Q13. In a library, there are 10 different sections and the librarian categorises the book over 20 days. Which section has the least number of books?

a. Section 7
b. Section 5
c. Section 8
d. Section 9

Q14. The square root of 882/1922 is:

a. 22/31
b. 21/31
c. 19/31
d. 20/31

Q15. An inlet pipe an outlet pipe are taking turns to fill and drain a cistern, respectively, for an hour each at a time, starting with the inlet pipe when the cistern is empty. It takes the inlet pipe 15 hours to fully fill the empty cistern, whereas the outlet pipe can drain the filled cistern completely in 21 hours. How many hours will it take for the cistern to be full?

a. 99
b. 52.5
c. 100
d. 105

Q16. There is a maximum gap of x years between two successive leap years. What is the value of x?

a. 4
b. 1
c. 8
d. 2

Q17. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 8. Which one of the following can never be their L.C.M.?

a. 24
b. 48
c. 56
d. 60

Q18. The given pie chart shows information about the mobile phone manufacturing companies in India. The total number of mobile phone units manufactured is 12,40,000. Which company produces the least number of mobile phones?

a. DEF
b. PQR
c. XYZ
d. ABX

Q19. What is the quantity of copper in 1kg of alloy if the alloy contains 32% copper, 40% zinc and the rest is nickel?

a. 320 g
b. 280 g
c. 400 g
d. 240 g

Q20. A 161.5 m long train crosses a 758.5 m long bridge in 46 seconds. What is the speed of the train?

a. 72 km/h
b. 78 km/h
c. 75 km/h
d. 80 km/h

Q21. What is the greatest four-digit number that is exactly divisible by 49?

a. 9998
b. 9994
c. 9996
d. 9992

Q22. By walking at 4/5 of his usual speed, Soham is 6 minutes late to office. How much time does he usually take to get to the office?

a. 25 minutes
b. 20 minutes
c. 24 minutes
d. 16 minutes

Q23. The wickets taken by a bowler in 12 cricket matches are as follows:
2,6,4,3,5,0,3,2,1,3,2,3.    Find the mode of the data

a. 1
b. 4
c. 2
d. 3

Q24. The area of the circumcircle of a right angle triangle whose sides are 6cm, 8cm and 10cm will be:

a. 16π cm2
b. 9π cm2π
c. 25π cm2
d. 24.5π cm2

Q25. √0.00069169 =?

a. 0.00243
b. 0.243
c. 0.0263
d. 0.000243

Q26. How many factors of 1296 are perfect squares?

a. 12
b. 8
c. 9
d. 10

Q27. If the radius of curvature of a concave mirror is 6.2 cm, its focal length is __________cm.

a. 2.6
b. 3.1
c. 6
d. 12.4

Q28. How many right-angled triangles are there in the following figure?

a. 14
b. 15
c. 12
d. 16

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ANSWER:
1. (a), 2. (b), 3. (a), 4. (b), 5. (d), 6. (c), 7. (a), 8. (c), 9. (b), 10. (a), 11. (c), 12. (c), 13. (a), 14. (b), 15. (a), 16. (c), 17. (d), 18. (a), 19. (a), 20. (a), 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (d), 24. (c), 25. (c), 26. (c), 27. (b), 28. (d)

 

 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Date: 11 Dec 2018 Shift-1 (Reasoning)

 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key

Date: 11 Dec 2018 Shift-1 (Reasoning)

Q1. Mallika is cleaning the bi-framed group-photo of her friend’s portrait that atoms her living room. She had laid it flat on the floor. The top side of the frame points to the west. She starts cleaning from the south-east comer and then diagonally moves her hand to the opposite side. Which direction is her hand now?

a. West-east
b. South-east
c. East-north
d. North-west

Q2. Choose the mirror image for the following figure:

Q3. A man from point ‘O’ and travels km towards east to reach point ‘A’; then, he turns right and travels 10 km to reach point ‘B’; then, he turns right and travel 9 km to reach point ‘C’; then, he turns right and travel 5 km to reach point ‘D; then , he turns left and travel 12 km to reach point E’; and finally he turns right and travel 6 km to reach point ‘F’.

a. East
b. South
c. West
d. North

Q4. What is the time between 2 o’clock and 3 o’clock at which the minute hand and the hour hand form an angle of 60° with each other?

a. 228/11 minute past 2
b. 240/11 minute past 2
c. 262/11 minute past 2
d. 250/11 minute past 2

Q5. Shoes is related to Slippers in the same way as Coat is related to:

a. Pen
b. Short
c. Socks
d. Tie

Q6. Read the given question and decide which of the following statements is/are sufficient to answer the question?

What is the age of Sriram?
Statement:

1. Sriram is 32 years elder to Shyam.
2. Shyam is 2 years old now.

a. Both 1 and 2 are sufficient
b. Either I or 2 is sufficient
c. Only 1 is sufficient
d. Only 2 is sufficient

Q7. A statement is given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Consider the given statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance with the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statement disregarding commonly known facts.

Statement: In view of further sudden increase in the international oil prices, the Government will review the present policy on fuel price

Conclusions:
I. The Government will increase the price of the fuel after the sudden increase in the international prices.
II. The Government will not increase the price of the fuel even after the sudden increase in the international oil prices.

a. Either I or II follows
b. Only conclusions II follows
c. Only conclusions I follows
d. Neither I nor II follows

Q8. Select the appropriate combination of symbols that when sequentially placed in place of the equation will correctly complete the equation.
((10?10)?25)?10 = 2510

a. x, x, +
b. -, x, /
c. +, /, /
d. -, /, /

Q9. In a certain coding language, if wind = tfka and back = yxzh, then joke = ?

a. glhb
b. hehu
c. gehu
d. heho

Q10. Starting from point O facing West a man walks 4 km reach point A, turns right walks 4 km reach point B, turn right walks 4km reach point C, turns right walks 3 km reach point D, turns left walks 4 km reach point E, turns right walks 5 km reach point F.  The shortest distance between the point B and point E (in Km) is:

a. 2√73
b. √27
c. √73
d. √37

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Q11. 4 W X Z 8 Q P O J 6 G T M V E U H 5 3 B
If the letters in the position 7, 8, 15 and 17 are picked from the left to form a meaningful word, then the third letter of the word will be:

a. E
b. J
c. O
d. P

Q12. Read the gives question and decide which of the following statement is/are sufficient /necessary to answer the question

Questions:
What is the distance between A and known C If the three towns A, B and C lie on a straight line?

Statements:
I. The distance between town B and town C is 20Km
II. The distance between town A and town B is 35 Km

a. Both I and II are necessary
b. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
c. Neither I nor II is sufficient
d. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient.

Q13. Consider the following statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which of the conclusion logically follows, from the statements.

Statement:
No pigeon is a dove.
All doves are oriental rollers

Conclusions:
No pigeons are oriental rollers
Some oriental rollers are dove

a. Only Conclusions2 follows
b. Both conclusions 1 and 2 follow
c. Only conclusions 1 follows
d. Either conclusions 1 or 2 follows

Q14. Three out of the four options given below are related in a particular way. Choose options that is different or odd from the others.

a. Patna
b. Kohima
c. Orissa
d. Gangtok

Q15. Consider the following question and decide which of the statement is sufficient to answer the question ]

Question: What is the measure of angle A in a right angle triangle ABC right angled at angle B?

Statement: Angle C is 20°

a. Statement 1 alone is sufficient while statement 2 alone is not sufficient
b. Each statement alone is sufficient
c. Statement 2 alone is sufficient while sufficient 1 alone is not sufficient
d. Both Statements 1 and 2 together are sufficient

Q16. Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information in the statement is true, even if they appear to be in variance with commonly known facts, select which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement (s) beyond reasonable doubt.

Statement : “ Sunday morning my friend cooked delicious chicken biryani, “ mentioned Sudha about her friend.

Conclusions:
I. Sudha’s friend is a good chef
II. Chicken biryani ids the only which is delicious

a. Only I follows
b. Only II follows
c. Either I or II follows
d. Neither I nor II follows

Q17. Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.
Fish: Shoal::Goods:______?

a. Gang
b. Mob
c. Items
d. Stock

Q18. Find the next term in the series.
R9H, P11J, N13L,_________

a. L14N
b. L15N
c. L12N
d. N15L

Q19. Identity the option that relates to the third figure in the same way that the second figure relates to the third figure.

Q20. A statement is followed by two arguments. Decide which of the arguments is/are strong with respect to the statement

Statement:
Drinking tea and coffee are addictive

Arguments:
I. Yes, the caffeine in coffee or tea is a central, nervous system stimulated and it is the world’s most widely consumed addictive stimulant.
II.No, as it is widely accepted caffeine is good for health

a. Only argument II is strong
b. Neither I nor II are strong
c. Both arguments I and II are strong
d. Only argument I is strong

Q21. Every morning, Albert starts riding towards the rising sum. He rides 2 km, turns to his left and continues for 4 km. He then turns to his right and continues for 3 Km . Finally, he turns to his left and reaches his office after riding for another 8 km How far is his office from his home aerially?

a. 12Km
b. 13 Km
c. 18 Km
d. 19 Km

Q22. Take the given statement to be true and decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
All cars are rockers. All cycles are rockers

Conclusions:
1. Some cars are cycles
2. some rockers are cycles
3. Some cycles are cars

a. None of the conclusions follows
b. Only conclusions 1 follows
c. Both conclusions 1 and 3 follow
d. Only conclusions 2 follows

Q23. What is the next term is this series:
12A6Z, 24C4X, 36E2V,_____________

a. 48F0T
b. 48F9T
c. 48F9S
d. 48G0T

Q24. Read the given question and decide which of the following statement is/are sufficient to answer the question.

Who is standing in the middle among Y, O and P?

Statements:
1. Y is standing to the right of O.
2. P is standing to the right of Y.

a. Statements 1 and 2 together are insufficient.
b. Statement 1 alone is sufficient.
c. Statements 1 and 2 together are sufficient
d. Statement 2 alone is sufficient

Q25. If ‘+’ is ‘x‘ , ‘-‘ is ‘+’ , ‘x’ is ‘+’ and ‘+’ is ‘-‘ then
5 – 9 + 7 x 3 6 = ?

a. 20
b. 0
c. 26
d. 10

Q26. From the following Allotropes of Carbon, pick the odd one out.

a. Carbon Black
b. Coke
c. Charcoal
d. Graphite

Q27. Find the next term in the following series:
ZW, VS, RO,__________.

a. NP
b. NS
c. NL
d. NK

Q28. Choose the figure that sign different from the rest.

a. b
b. e
c. c
d. d

Q29. Select the term that relates to the third term in the same way that the second term relates to the firs t term.
House : House : Flaw : ______?

a. Mob
b. Defect
c. Assume
d. Peace

Q30. Consider the following statement and decide which of the conclusions logically follows from the statements.

Statements:
Cactus has thick stem and it requires less water.

Conclusions:

1. All plants with thick stem requires less water.
2. Cactus grow in places where there is less water.
3. Neither 1 nor 2 follows
4. Both 1 and 2 follows

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Answer:
1. (d), 2. (b), 3. (c), 4. (b), 5. (b), 6. (a), 7. (a), 8. (a), 9. (a), 10. (c), 11. (d), 12. (a), 13. (a), 14. (c), 15. (b), 16. (a), 17. (d), 18. (b), 19. (a), 20. (d), 21. (b), 22. (d), 23. (d), 24. (c), 25. (a), 26. (d), 27. (d), 28. (c), 29. (b), 30. (b)

 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Date: 11 Dec 2018 Shift-1 (Mathematics)

(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key

Date: 11 Dec 2018 Shift-1 (Mathematics)

Q1. Suraj had 50 paise coins, 1 coins and 5 coins in the ratio of 8:5:9. The total amount of money with Suraj is 648. What is the number of paise coins with him?

a. 96
b. 108
c. 84
d. 60

Q2. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 12 and 720. How many such pair(s) of numbers are possible?

a. 4
b. 1
c. 3
d. 2

Q3. From a cloth store, 25 bought trousers, 15 bought frocks, 20 bought winter wear 2 bought all the three and 8 bought at least 2 of these. How many bought at least one type of clothes from the store?

a. 39
b. 25
c. 42
d. 50

Q4. 0.00025 / 12.5 = _______?

a. 0.000002
b. 0.0025
c. 0.00002
d. 0.0002

Q5. 350 / 5² x 7 – 3 = _______ ?

a. 3.5
b. -1
c. 95
d. 350/172

Q6. A cistern can be filled with two pipes together in 43/4 minutes. The large pipe would fill the cistern in 12minutes less than the smaller one. Find the time taken by the larger pipe alone to fill the cistern?

a. 12minutes
b. 24 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. 18 minutes

Q7. What is the HCF of 156 and 546?

a. 39
b. 26
c. 13
d. 78

Q8. The average of 81 results is 54. If the average of the first 59 results is 52, and that of the last 21 results is 60, calculate the 60th result.

a. 46
b. 52
c. 62
d. 60

Q9. The two sides containing the right angle of a right-angled triangle are 7 cm and 24 cm long. What will be the radius of the circumference of the said triangle?

a. 12.5cm
b. 15.5 cm
c. 9.5 cm
d. 8.5 cm

Q10. The following pie diagram shows the revenue of the company ABC which manufacture leather products. The total revenue of the company for the year 2015 was 36, 28, 000


How much revenue was made by company ABC on the sales of “belts”?

a. Rs. 3,62,800
b. Rs.7,25,600
c. Rs.1,81,400
d. Rs.90,700

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Q11. Ashok is as younger to Vimal as he is older than Arun. If the sum of the ages of Arun and Vimal is 40 years, how old is Ashok?

a. 35 years
b. 20years
c. 30years
d. 27years

Q12. What is the smallest natural number 216 should be multiplied by so that the number of factors of the product is odd?

a. 6
b. 4
c. 12
d. 8

Q13. A son of money invested at 16% simple interest per annum for 3.5years yields the same interest as another sum invested at 12.6% simple interest per annum for 5 years. What is the ratio of the two sum invested?

a. 14: 9
b. 9 : 8
c. 6 : 5
d. 8 : 7

Q14. Two sides of a rectangle are 10cm and 8cm, respectively. They are increased by 15% and 20%. Find the percentage increased in the areas.

a. 38%
b. 37%
c. 35%
d. 36%

Q15. If tan∝ =5+2 √6, then the value of tan∝ + cot∝ is:

a. 5 – 2√6
b. 4√6
c. 5
d. 10

Q16. The number of diagonals in a 28-gon is:

a. 175
b. 350
c. 304
d. 280

Q17. Parvej belongs to Town A and Gautam belongs to Town B. They start their journeys towards each other's town following the same route at the same time. They meet somewhere on the way and continue with their journeys. After meeting Gautam, Parvez takes another 12 hours to reach the destination while Gautam takes another 3 hours to reach Parvez’s town . If Parvez travelled at a speed of 60 km/h, find gautam’s speed in Km/h

a. 90
b. 120
c. 125
d. 105

Q18. The length of an edge of a cube is 70cm. There is a circle painted in green on each face of the cube. What is the total area of the unpainted surface of the cube if the circles area of the largest area possible?

a. 6650cm2
b. 6300 cm2
c. 6500 cm2
d. 6350 cm2

Q19. 42 / 21 x 2 – 6 = _________?

a. -5
b. -0.5
c. -8
d. -2

Q20. 40 people could complete a work in 24 days. But after they worked together for 4 days their employer wanted that the work should be completed in a total of 12 days. How many more workers need to be employed to meet to be employed to meet the deadline?

a. 60
b. 70
c. 50
d. 80

Q21. Biju’s age is 28 years less than three times the age of Subham, who in turn is 16 years older than 4/5 of the age of Amir. Kaveri is 10 years younger than Amir and half the age of Subham. What is the sum of all their age?

a. 180 years
b. 196 years
c. 188 years
d. 182 years

Q22. The square root of 26896 is :

a. 154
b. 162
c. 164
d. 158

Q23. If 3+√8/3-√8 = a+ b√8; then, a = ?

a. √18
b. 15
c. 17
d. 16

Q24. By selling a laptop for Rs.21,150 keshav makes a profit of 17.5%. What should have been the selling price to make a profit of 22.5%?

a. Rs.22,350
b. Rs.21,950
c. Rs.22,150
d. Rs.22 ,050

Q25. A train a 520 m long platform in 36 seconds. How long was the train if it was travelling at a speed of 70 km/h?

a. 150m
b. 180m
c. 140m
d. 160m

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RRB Group-D Exam Online Tests Series

Answer:
1. (a), 2. (a), 3. (d), 4. (c), 5. (c), 6. (d), 7. (d), 8. (a), 9. (a), 10. (b), 11. (b), 12. (a), 13. (b), 14. (a), 15. (d), 16. (b), 17. (b), 18. (b), 19. (d), 20. (a), 21. (d), 22. (c), 23. (c), 24. (d), 25. (c)

 

 

 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Date: 11 Dec 2018 Shift-1 (General Science)

 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key

Date: 11 Dec 2018 Shift-1 (General Science)

Q1. Atomic radius ______ in a group and _____ in a period .

a. decrease, increases
b. increases, decreases
c. increases, increases
d. decreases, decreases

Q2. The potential energy of a hammer of 5 kg, when it is raised to a height of 8m, is _______. [take g = 10ms-2]

a. 400 Dyne
b. 400 N
c. 400 Pa
d. 400 J

Q3. A current of 0.5 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb for 10 minutes. Find the amount of electric charge that flows through the circuit.

a. C
b. 50C
c. 30C
d. 300C

Q4. The movement of a part of a plant towards the stimulus of gravity is called______

a. chemotropism
b. gravitropism
c. Phototropism
d. Hydrotropism

Q5. Which film has won the Best Popular Film award at the 2018 Jio Filmfare Awards?

a. Padmaavat
b. Neerja
c. Hindi medium
d. Airlift

Q6. A wire suspended vertically from one of its ends is stretched by attaching a weight of 200N to the lower end. The weight stretched the wire by 1mm. Then the elastic energy stored in the wire is:

a. 0.1 J
b. 0.01J
c. 1 J
d. 10 J

Q7. A car falls a ledge and drops to the ground in 0.6s Given g =10ms-2, what is speed on striking the ground?

a. 6 ms2
b. 6 ms-2
c. 6 ms1
d. 6 ms-1

Q8. Which of the following is the first element of the Modern Periodic Table?

a. Hydrogen
b. Helium
c. Carbon
d. Lithium

Q9. Which of the following does NOT increase as we go down a group?

a. Valency
b. Atomic radius
c. Valence shells
d. Metallic character

Q10. If a doctor counts 80 heartbeats in 1 minute, then the frequency of the heartbeat is:

a. 2.39 Hz
b. 1.33 Hz
c. 1.39 Hz
d. 1.99 Hz

Q11. A solution contains 50g of common salt in 950g of water. Calculate the concentration in terms of mass by mass percentage of the solution.

a. 5%
b. 8%
c. 7%
d. 6.96%

Q12. Cambium is also called________ .

a. Calary meristem
b. Apical meristem
c. Intercalary meristem
d. Lateral meristem

Q13. __________ is formed after fertilization.

a. Embryo
b. Ovule
c. Zygote
d. Germ cell

Q14. Which formed doest NOT belong to Protista?

a. Euglena
b. Amoeba
c. Yeast
d. Diatoms

Q15. Sound is produced due to __________.

a. Vibration of object
b. Slow movement of air
c. Collision of two objects
d. Sudden release of force

Q16. Which of the following options are amorphous allotropes of carbon?

a. Liquid carbon, coal, lamp black, sugar charcoal
b. Coke, coal, lamp black, sugar charcoal
c. Coke, solid carbon, lamp black, sugar charcoal
d. Coke, charcoal gas, lamp black, sugar charcoal

Q17. Which one of the following does NOT relate to force?

a. Kg ms-2
b. Kg ms-1
c. Newton
d. Dyne

Q18. The SI unit of electric charge is ___________ .

a. Wait
b. Ohm
c. Amphere
d. Coulomb

Q19. The value of acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ depends on:

1. Constant of Gravitation ‘G’
2. Mass of the earth ‘M’
3. Mass of the falling object ‘m’
4. Radius of the earth ‘R’

a. a, c, d
b. b, c, d
c. a, b, c
d. a, b, d

Q20. A ball of mass m is moving with a momentum p. The Kinetic energy of the ball is:

a. P2/(2m)
b. P2/m
c. P/m
d. 2p2/m

Q21. A spring of force constant 10N per meter has no initial stretch of 0.20m. In changing the stretch to 0.25 m, the increase in potential energy is about:

a. 0.1J
b. 0.3 J
c. 0.2 J
d. 0.05 J

Q22. ‘a’ and ‘b’ are van der Waals constants for gases. Chlorine is more easily liquefied than ethane because:

a. for Cl2 < a for C2H6 but b for Cl2 ,<b for C2H6
b. for Cl2 > a for C2H6 but b for Cl2 ,<b for C2H6
c. for Cl2 < a for C2H6 but b for Cl2 > b for C2H6
d. for Cl2 > a for C2H6 but b for Cl2 >b for C2H6

Q23. A flower that has four or more whorls, at least one each of calyz, corolla, androecium and gynoecium, is called a –

a. Hermaphrodite
b. Unisexual flower
c. Complex flower
d. Bisexual flower

Q24. The atomic mass of Nitrogen is 14, that of Hydrogen is 1 and that of Chlorine is 35.. What will be the molecules mass of Ammonium Chloride?

a. 53.5
b. 88.5
c. 50.5
d. 100.5

Q25. If u = o m/s, a = 5ms-2 and t = 5 s then v = ?

a. 10ms-1
b. 25 ms-1
c. 10 ms-1
d. 25 ms-1

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RRB Group-D 2018 Papers with Answers PDF Download

RRB Group-D Exam Practice Sample Papers Download

RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

RRB Group-D Exam Online Tests Series

Answer:
1. (a), 2. (d), 3. (d), 4. (b), 5. (c), 6. (a), 7. (d), 8. (a), 9. (a), 10. (b), 11. (a), 12. (d), 13. (c), 14. (b), 15. (a), 16. (b), 17. (b), 18. (d), 19. (d), 20. (a), 21. (a), 22. (b), 23. (c), 24. (a), 25. (b)

 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Date: 11 Dec 2018 Shift-1 (General Knowledge)

 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key

Date: 11 Dec 2018 Shift-1 (General Knowledge)

Q1. India is located in the part of asia.

a. northern
b. eastern
c. south eastern
d. southern

Q2. Through which Amendment Act was the word ‘Secularism’ added to the Preamble of the Constitution?

a. 42nd
b. 21st
c. 73rd
d. 61st

Q3. Bhilai Plant is located in _______

a. Chattisgarh
b. Odisha
c. Madhya Pradesh
d. Karnataka

Q4. ______ ‘Tarikh-i-Firuz Shahi gives the history of the first six years of Firoz shah Tughlaq’s reign.

a. Firoz shah Tughlaq’s
b. Abul Fazl’s
c. Gulbadan Begum’s
d. Zia-ud-din Barani’s

Q5. Among the following, who is Director General of UNESCO as of July 2018?

a. Federico Mayor
b. Koichiro Matsuura
c. Audrey Azoulay
d. Amadou- Mahtar- M’Bow

Q6. India’s first runway on a sea bridge will come up in which state/union territory?

a. Lakshadweep
b. Goa
c. Chennai
d. Kerala

Q7. India’s _____ has won silver medal in Under 23 Senior World Wrestling competition held in Poland.

a. Ritu Phogat
b. Baboita Phogat
c. Geeta Phogat
d. Priyanka Phogat

Q8. The word Veda means ______.

a. Hymns
b. Period
c. Grammer
d. Knowledge

Q9. Who was appointed as Managing Director and CEO of Dhanlaxmi Bank in July 2018?

a. Rajeev Rishi
b. Thanu Padmanabhan
c. T Latha
d. Suresh Patel

Q10. Who was conferred while with the Global Icon award at the Zee Cine Awards 2018 held in Mumbai?

a. Priyanka Chopra
b. Aishwarya Rai Bachchan
c. Ajay Devgan
d. Katrina Kaif

RRB Group-D 2018 Papers with Answers PDF Download

RRB Group-D Exam Practice Sample Papers Download

RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

RRB Group-D Exam Online Tests Series

Q11. In may 2018, which national cricket governing body signed an agreement with UN Environment to promote green cricket in that country?

a. BCCI
b. Pakistan Cricket Board
c. Cricket Australia
d. Afganistan Criket Board

Q12. Who launched ‘NETA’, a mobile application that allows users to rate and review elected representatives?

a. Pranab Kumar Mukherjee
b. Rahul Gandhi
c. Narendra Modi
d. Arun Jaitley

Q13. Trinamool Congress is a political party originated from which of the following states?

a. Rajasthan
b. UP
c. Bihar
d. West Bengal

Q14. Which of the following mines is locked in Assam?

a. Khetri
b. Mayurbhanj
c. Digboi
d. Singhbum

Q15. Who is the Chief minister of Odisha as of August 2018?

a. Biplab Dev
b. Manohar Parrikar
c. Vilas Rao Deshmukh
d. Naveen Patnaik

Q16. The National Football museum is in which country?

a. Brazil
b. England
c. India
d. USA

Q17. Which of the following programs has been launched by the Ministry of Drinking Water and sanitation?

a. Swachh Pani Yojana 2018
b. Swachh Vyatavaran Yojana 2018
c. Swachh Survekshan Yojana 2018
d. Swachh Kisan Yojana 2018

Q18. _____ is the name of one of the many dummers of the Beatles.

a. Lars Ulrich
b. Dave Lomabardo
c. Ringo Starr
d. Keith Moon

Q19. Chaudhary Charan singh Jayanti or the birth anniversary of Ch. Charan singh is on ___ and is observed as the Kisan

a. 23 December
b. 13 December
c. 31 December
d. 3 December

Q20.  ________does not belong to the class Annelida.

a. Ascaris
b. Earthworm
c. Leech
d. Neries 

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RRB Group-D 2018 Papers with Answers PDF Download

RRB Group-D Exam Practice Sample Papers Download

RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

RRB Group-D Exam Online Tests Series

Answer:
1. (d), 2. (a), 3. (a), 4. (d), 5. (c), 6. (a), 7. (a), 8. (d), 9. (c), 10. (a), 11. (a), 12. (a), 13. (d), 14. (c), 15. (d), 16. (b), 17. (c), 18. (c), 19. (a), 20. (a)

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB NTPC) Sample Paper : सांख्यिकी अभिक्षमता - 241


रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB NTPC) Sample Paper : सांख्यिकी अभिक्षमता - 241


1. दो संख्याओं का म.स. 8 है। तब निम्न में से कौन-सी संख्या ऐसी है जो उनका ल.स. नहीं हो सकती ?

(a) 24
(b) 48
(c) 56
(d) 60

2. दो संख्याओं का ल.स. 3456 है और उनका म.स. 48 है। यदि उनमें से एक संख्या 432 है, तो दूसरी संख्या होगी

(a) 384
(b) 192
(c) 108
(d) 96

3. √3 को 1.732 और √2 को 1.414 मान कर 1/√3+√2 का मान है

(a) 0.064
(b) 0.308
(c) 0.318
(d) 2.146

4. 8, 9 और 10 में से प्रत्येक से विभाज्य सबसे छोटी वर्ग संख्या है

(a) 900
(b) 1600
(c) 2500
(d) 3600

5. तीन अंकों की सबसे बड़ी संख्या कौन-सी है जिसे 10, 12, 15 से भाग करने पर हर बार 4 शेष बचता है ?

(a) 964
(b) 984
(c) 992
(d) 996

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) एनटीपीसी परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a)

RRB NTPC SAMPLE PAPER - GENERAL AWARENESS - 241


RRB NTPC SAMPLE PAPER - GENERAL AWARENESS - 241


1. What was the exact constitutional position of the Indian Republic when the Constitution was brought into force with effect from 26th January, 1950?

(a) A Democratic Republic
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(d) A Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic

2. Fabianism is closely related to:

(a) Fascism
(b) Scientific socialism
(c) Democratic socialism
(d) Liberalism

3. A federal structure for India was first put forward by the

(a) Act of 1909
(b) Act of 1919
(c) Act of 1935
(d) Act of 1947

4. Which Writ is issued by a High Court or the Supreme Court to compel an authority, to perform a function that it was not performing?

(a) Writ of Certiorari
(b) Writ of Habeas Corpus
(c) Writ of Mandamus
(d) Writ of Quo Warranto

5. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament over a non-money bill

(a) the bill will lapse
(b) the President may sign it into a law
(c) the President may call a joint sitting of both the Houses to consider it.
(d) the President may ask both the Houses to reconsider it.

Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) NTPC Exams Study Kit

Answer:

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c)

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB NTPC) Sample Paper : सामान्य तर्क - 240


रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB NTPC) Sample Paper : सामान्य तर्क - 240


1. कुछ समीकरण एक विशेष पद्धति पर आधारित हैं । उसी आधार पर अनुत्तरित समीकरण का सही उत्तर ज्ञात कीजिए यदि 14 × 13 = 128 और 16 Ø 23 = 280, तो 15 × 11 = ?

(a) 516
(b) 156
(c) 165
(d) 615

निर्देश (प्र. 2-5): निम्न प्रश्नों में, से लुप्त अंक ज्ञात कीजिए।

2.

(a) 210
(b) 225
(c) 196
(d) 421

3. 5      8      13
    6      9      15
    4    12      ?
   60   432  1560

(a) 16
(b) 32
(c) 29
(d) 120

4.
 

(a) 511
(b) 141
(c) 331
(d) 451

निर्देश (प्र० 5): निम्न प्रश्न में कुछ वक्तव्य दिए गए हैं, आपको विचार करना है कि वक्तव्य सत्य हैं चाहे वे सामान्यत: ज्ञात तथ्यों से भिन्न प्रतीत होते हों। आपको निर्णय करना है कि दिए गए वक्तव्यों में से कौन-सा निष्कर्ष निश्चित रूप से सही लागू होता है ?

5. सभी आदमी मत्र्य हैं

रामू आदमी है

(a) कोई आदमी मत्र्य नहीं है
(b) रामू मत्र्य है
(c) रामू अमर नहीं है
(d) सभी आदमी अमर हैं

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) एनटीपीसी परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

Answer:

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b)

RRB NTPC SAMPLE PAPER - General Intelligence and Reasoning - 240


RRB NTPC SAMPLE PAPER - General Intelligence and Reasoning - 240


Directions: Find the odd one out from the given alternatives.

1. (a) Sociologist
(b) Economist
(c) Neurologist
(d) Educationist

2. (a) DINS
(b) CHNR
(c) BGLQ
(d) AFKP

3. (a) ACE
(b) FHJ
(c) KLM
(d) SUW

4. (a) (52, 142)
(b) (54, 126)
(c) (56, 168)
(d) (58, 184)

5.

Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) NTPC Exams Study Kit

Answer:

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d)

RRB NTPC SAMPLE PAPER - GENERAL AWARENESS - 238


RRB NTPC SAMPLE PAPER - GENERAL AWARENESS - 238


1. The maximum area under crops in India is used for the cultivation of:

(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Cotton

2. Investment is equal to:

(a) gross total of all types of physical capital assets
(b) gross total of all capital assets minus wear and tear
(c) stock of plants, machines and equipments
(d) None of the above

3. The Tarapore Committee recommended that before capital account was made convertible the rate of inflation should be brought down for three years to within :

(a) 3.5%
(b) 0.3%
(c) 4.6%
(d) 5.7%

4. Who among the following are not appointed by the President of India?

(a) Governors of States
(b) Chief Justice and Judges of High Court
(c) Vice-President
(d) Chief Justice and Judges of Supreme Court

5. What is the period within which a proclamation of national emergency made by the President is to be placed before each house of the Parliament for approval?

(a) within one month
(b) within two months
(c) within four months
(d) within six months

Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) NTPC Exams Study Kit

Answer:

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a)

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB NTPC) Sample Paper : सांख्यिकी अभिक्षमता - 238


रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB NTPC) Sample Paper : सांख्यिकी अभिक्षमता - 238


1. 1000 में से सबसे छोटी किस संख्या को घटाने पर प्राप्त परिणामी संख्या एक पूर्ण वर्ग होगी ?

(a) 37
(b) 38
(c) 39
(d) 40

2. दो नल किसी हौज को अलग-अलग 10 घण्टे तथा 15 घण्टे में पूरा भर सकते हैं। वे मिलकर हौज को कितने समय में पूरा भरेंगे ?

(a) 6 घण्टे
(b) 7 घण्टे
(c) 8 घण्टे
(d) 9 घण्टे

3. किसी संख्या को 0.72 से गुणा करने के बजाय एक विद्यार्थी ने उस संख्या को 7.2 से गुणा कर दिया है। यदि इससे उसका उत्तर सही उत्तर से 2592 अधिक आया हो, तो आरम्भिक संख्या थी

(a) 400
(b) 420
(c) 500
(d) 560

4. 7, 77, 777, 777 ÷ 77 बराबर है

(a) 1111
(b) 101001
(c) 10101
(d) 1010101

5. [13 + 23 + 33 + .... +93 + 103] बराबर है

(a) 3575
(b) 2525
(c) 5075
(d) 3025

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) एनटीपीसी परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d)

RRB NTPC SAMPLE PAPER - General Intelligence and Reasoning - 237


RRB NTPC SAMPLE PAPER - General Intelligence and Reasoning - 237


Directions: Select the related figure from the Answer Figures.

1. Question Figures

2. Question Figures

3. Question Figures

Directions: Find the odd one out from the given alternatives.

4. (a) node
(b) abode
(c) shy
(d) across

5. (a) Microbe
(b) Microfilm
(c) Microphone
(d) Microscope

Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) NTPC Exams Study Kit

Answer:

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a)

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB NTPC) Sample Paper : सामान्य तर्क - 237


रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB NTPC) Sample Paper : सामान्य तर्क - 237


1. सुमा, उमा से छोटी है, नेहा, सुमा से लम्बी है, सुधा, उमा से लम्बी है लेकिन हेमा से छोटी है, उमा, नेहा से लम्बी है। उनमें सबसे लम्बी कौन है ?

(a) हेमा
(b) उमा
(c) सुधा
(d) नेहा

2. किसी फोटोग्राफ में एक ९ाा०हला की ओर संकेत करते हुए मीरा ने कहा, ‘‘उसके पिता के एकमात्र पुत्र की पत्नी मेरी सास है।’’ मीरा के पति का फोटो वाली महिला से क्या सम्बन्ध है ?

(a) भतीजा
(b) चाचा
(c) पुत्र
(d) पिता

3. यदि परसों शुक्रवार था, तो आगामी परसों के बाद तीसरा दिन क्या होगा ?

(a) ब्रहस्पतिवार
(b) शुक्रवार
(c) शनिवार
(d) रविवार

4. 16 लड़कियों की एक पंक्ति में जब हेमा को दो स्थान बार्इं ओर खिसकाया गया, तो वह बाएँ सिरे से 7वीं हो गई। पहले दाएँ सिरे से उसकी क्या स्थिति थी ?

(a) 7वीं
(b) 8वीं
(c) 9वीं
(d) 10वीं

5. आपकी आयु आपकी माता की आयु के आधे से 10 वर्ष कम है, जो आपके पिता से 5 वर्ष छोटी है । यदि आपके पिता की आयु 45 वर्ष है, तो आपकी क्या आयु है?

(a) 20 वर्ष
(b) 15 वर्ष
(c) 10 वर्ष
(d) 5 वर्ष

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) एनटीपीसी परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

Answer:

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c)

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB NTPC) Sample Paper : सामान्य जानकारी/जागरूकता - 236


रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB NTPC) Sample Paper : सामान्य जानकारी/जागरूकता - 236


1. मुम्बई में 26 नवम्बर, 2008 को हुए आतंकवादी हमले के बाद, भारत का गृह मन्त्री किसे नियुक्त किया गया ?

(a) श्री शिव राज पाटिल
(b) श्री प्रणब मुखर्जी
(c) श्री पी. चिदम्बरम्
(d) श्री ए.के. एन्टनी

2. संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका के राष्ट्रपति बराक ओबामा द्वारा निम्नलिखित में से किसको विदेश मन्त्री (सेक्रेटरी ऑ़फ स्टेट) नियुक्त किया गया है ?

(a) हिलेरी क्लिन्टन
(b) जो बिडेन
(c) कॉन्डोली़जा राइस
(d) बेन पॉरिट

3. वीरता के लिए संजय चोपड़ा राष्ट्रीय पुरस्कार 2008 किसने जीता है ?

(a) सौमिका मिश्रा
(b) सन्तोष सेन
(c) अमित कुमार
(d) पप्पू

4. भारत के राष्ट्रपति द्वारा 2007 के लिए दादासाहेब फाल्के पुरस्कार किसे दिया गया था ?

(a) तपन सिन्हा
(b) मधुर भण्डारकर
(c) दिलीप कुमार
(d) लता मंगेशकर

5. हमारे संविधान में राज्य नीति के निदेशक सिद्धान्त की अवधारणा कहाँ के संविधान से ली गई थी ?

(a) यू.एस.ए.
(b) कनाडा
(c) यू.एस.एस.आर.
(d) आयरलैण्ड

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) एनटीपीसी परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

Answer:

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d)

RRB NTPC SAMPLE PAPER - ARITHMETIC - 236


RRB NTPC SAMPLE PAPER - ARITHMETIC - 236


1. A shopkeeper marks his goods 20% above cost price, but allows 30% discount for cash. His net loss is:

(a) 8%
(b) 10%
(c) 16%
(d) 20%

2. The arithmetic mean of the scores of a group of students in a test was 52. The brightest 20% of them secured a mean score of 80 and the dullest 25% a mean score of 31. The mean score of remaining 55% is :

(a) 45%
(b) 50%
(c) 51.4% approx.
(d) 54.6% approx.

3. A cricketer whose bowling average is 24.85, runs per wicket, takes 5 wickets for 52 runs and thereby decreases his average by 0.85. The number of wickets taken by him till the last match was:

(a) 64
(b) 72
(c) 80
(d) 96

4. The sum and product of two numbers are 12 and 35 respectively. What will be the sum of their reciprocals?

(a) 1/3
(b) 1/5
(c) 12/35
(d) 35/12

5. Which of the following is a perfect square as well as a cube?

343, 125, 81, or 64

(a) 81
(b) 125
(c) 343
(d) 64

Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) NTPC Exams Study Kit

Answer:

1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d)

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB NTPC) Sample Paper : सांख्यिकी अभिक्षमता - 235


रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB NTPC) Sample Paper : सांख्यिकी अभिक्षमता - 235


1. दो संख्याओं के योगफल तथा गुणनफल क्रमश: 11 तथा 18 हैं। उनके व्युत्क्रमों का योगफल होगा

(a) 2/11
(b) 11/2
(c) 18/11
(d) 11/8

2. यदि 3x+y = 81 तथा 81x-y = 3 हो, तो x का मान होगा

(a) 42
(b) 15/8
(c) 17/8
(d) 39

3. दो संख्याएँ 3 : 4 के अनुपात में हैं। उनके म.स. तथा ल.स. का गुणनफल 2028 है। संख्याओं का योगफल होगा

(a) 68
(b) 72
(c) 86
(d) 91

4. (256)0.16 × (4)0.36 बराबर है

(a) 64
(b) 16
(c) 256.25
(d) 4

5. [13 + 23 + 33 + .... +93 + 103] बराबर है

(a) 3575
(b) 2525
(c) 5075
(d) 3025

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) एनटीपीसी परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (d)

RRB NTPC SAMPLE PAPER - GENERAL AWARENESS - 235


RRB NTPC SAMPLE PAPER - GENERAL AWARENESS - 235


1. The largest irrigation canal in India is called the

(a) Yamuna canal
(b) Sirhand canal
(c) Indira Gandhi canal
(d) Upper Ban Doab canal

2. Atmospheric pressure exerted on earth is due to

(a) rotation of earth
(b) revolution of earth
(c) gravitational pull
(d) uneven heating of earth

3. Pruning is an essential part in cultivation of

(a) Rubber
(b) Tobacco
(c) Coffee
(d) Tea

4. Operating surplus arises in the

(a) Government sector
(b) Production for self consumption
(c) Subsistence farming
(d) Enterprise sector

5. The most important of the non-tariff trade barriers are:

(a) Quotas
(b) Health regulations
(c) Pollution standards
(d) Labelling and packaging regulations

Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) NTPC Exams Study Kit

Answer:

1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b)

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB NTPC) Sample Paper : सामान्य तर्क - 234


रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB NTPC) Sample Paper : सामान्य तर्क - 234


1.

2. निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से वह शब्द चुनिए जो दिए गए शब्द के अक्षरों का प्रयोग करके नहीं बनाया जा सकता। दिया शब्द :

ORGANISATION

(a) STRONG
(b) ORANGE
(c) NOTION
(d) GROAN

3. दिए गए शब्द में हर अक्षर की संख्या हर विकल्प में दी गई है। सही विकल्प चुनिए

COMMISSION

(a) C1 O2 M2 I2 S2 N1
(b) C1 O1 M2 I2 S2 N1
(c) C1 O2 M2 I2 S2 N1
(d) C1 O2 M2 I2 S2 N1

4. यदि RUSH को कूट भाषा में 66 लिखा जाए, तो GIRL को कैसे लिखा जाएगा ?

(a) 75
(b) 64
(c) 47
(d) 46

5. यदि TORTISE को कूट भाषा में VQTVKUG लिखा जाए, तो ELEPHANT को कैसे लिखा जाएगा ?

(a) GRJPVNOR
(b) RNRQGCOV
(c) GNGRJCPV
(d) GRJCPVGN

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) एनटीपीसी परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

Answer:

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c)

RRB NTPC SAMPLE PAPER - General Intelligence and Reasoning - 234


RRB NTPC SAMPLE PAPER - General Intelligence and Reasoning - 234


Directions: Find the related word/letters/number to complete the analogy.

1. Thunder : Rain :: ? : Night

(a) Day
(b) Dusk
(c) Dark
(d) Evening

2. 18 : 30 :: 36 : ?

(a) 64
(b) 66
(c) 54
(d) 62

3. 0.16: 0.0016:: 1.02: ?

(a) 10.20
(b) 0.102
(c) 0.0102
(d) 1.020

4. ACEG : NPRT :: ADGJ : ?

(a) NRTX
(b) ORVX
(c) NQSU
(d) NQTW

5. FHEG : JLIK :: PROQ : ?

(a) TVSU
(b) VTUS
(c) TVUS
(d) SUVT

Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) NTPC Exams Study Kit

Answer:

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a)

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB NTPC) Sample Paper : सामान्य जानकारी/जागरूकता - 233


रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB NTPC) Sample Paper : सामान्य जानकारी/जागरूकता - 233


1. निवेश और बचत से सम्बन्धित योजना ‘जीवन आस्था’ 2008-09 में शुरू की गई थी

(a) टाटा ए.आई.जी. द्वारा
(b) आई.सी.आई.सी.आई. प्रूडेन्शियल द्वारा
(c) बजाज एलाएन्ज द्वारा
(d) एल.आई.सी. द्वारा

2. भारत द्वारा बीजिंग ओलम्पिक्स में जीते गए तीन पदक थे

(a) शूटिंग, मुक्केबा़जी और कुश्ती में
(b) शूटिंग, मुक्केबा़जी और तीरन्दा़जी में
(c) शूटिंग, कुश्ती और टेनिस में
(d) शूटिंग, मुक्केबाजी और हॉकी में

3. ए.टी.एम. (ATM) का पूरा नाम है

(a) ऑटोमैटिक टेलर मशीन
(b) ऑटोमेटिड टेलर मशीन
(c) ऑटोमैटिक टैली मशीन
(d) ऑटोमेटिड टैली मैकेनि़ज्म

4. ए.एफ.सी. (एशियन फूटबाल कनफेडरेशन), फाइनल, 2008 में भारत से कौन हारा था ?

(a) म्यांमार
(b) श्रीलंका
(c) पाकिस्तान
(d) त़जाकिस्तान

5. अगस्त, 2008 में यू०एस० ओपन टेनिस पुरुष एकल किसने जीता था ?

(a) रोजर फेडरर
(b) रै़फेल नडाल
(c) महेश भूपति
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) एनटीपीसी परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a)

RRB NTPC SAMPLE PAPER - GENERAL ENGLISH - 233


RRB NTPC SAMPLE PAPER - GENERAL ENGLISH - 233


Directions: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer.

1. In present the (a)/prices of food grains (b)/are high all (c)/over the world (d)

2. Majority of the banks (a)/today uses technology (b)/to reach out to those (c)/living in rural areas (d)

3. I will give (a)/you the advance (b)/if you repay it as (c) No error (d).

4. Though he is very (a)/wealthy and powerful (b)/he has any (c)/concern for the poor (d)

5. Mala has the (a)/liability to handle (b)/many tasks at (c)/the same time (d)

Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) NTPC Exams Study Kit

Answer:

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d)

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB NTPC) Sample Paper : सांख्यिकी अभिक्षमता - 232


रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB NTPC) Sample Paper : सांख्यिकी अभिक्षमता - 232


1. 50 तक की सभी विषम संख्याओं का औसत है

(a) 24
(b) 50
(c) 49
(d) 25

2. किसी शहर की जनसंख्या में प्रति 5 वर्ष में 10% की वृद्धि होती है। यदि शहर की जनसंख्या वर्ष 1990 में 134310 रही हो, तो वह वर्ष 1980 में कितनी थी ?

(a) 100000
(b) 110000
(c) 111000
(d) 121000

3. किसी परिवार में, पिता और बेटे, पिता और माता, तथा माता और बेटे की आयुओं के औसत क्रमश: 25, 40 तथा 24 वर्ष हैं। बेटे की आयु है

(a) 9 वर्ष
(b) 19/2 वर्ष
(c) 10 वर्ष
(d) 21/2 वर्ष

4. यदि x2 + y2 तथा xy = 20 हो, जबर्कि x > 0, y < 0 तो तथा का औसत होगा

(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 4.5
(d) 3.5

5. 4 वर्ष पूर्व एक परिवार, जिसमें एक पिता, एक माता तथा एक बेटा सम्मिलित हो, की औसत आयु 28 वर्ष थी। अब परिवार में एक बेटी भी सम्मिलित हो गई तथा उस समय परिवार की औसत आयु 49/2 वर्ष है। बेटी की वर्तमान आयु है   

(a) 3 वर्ष
(b) 2.5 वर्ष
(c) 2 वर्ष
(d) 1 वर्ष

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) एनटीपीसी परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c)

RRB NTPC SAMPLE PAPER - ARITHMETIC - 232


RRB NTPC SAMPLE PAPER - ARITHMETIC - 232


1. The volume of a right circular cylinder whose height is 40cm, and circumference of its base is 66 cm, is

(a) 55440 cm3
(b) 3465 cm3
(c) 7720 cm3
(d) 13860 cm3

2. ABC is a triangle with base AB. D is a point on AB such that AB = 5 and DB = 3. What is the ratio of the area of ∠ADC to the area of ∠ABC ?

(a) 3/2
(b) 2/3
(c) 3/5
(d) 2/5

3. A sum of Rs. 1600/- gives a simple interest of Rs. 252/­ in 2 years and 3 months. The rate of interest per annum is:

(a) 11/2%
(b) 8%
(c) 7%
(d) 6%

4. A sum of Rs.400/- amounts to Rs. 480/- in 4 years. What will it amount to if the rate of interest is increased by 2%?

(a) Rs. 484
(b) Rs. 560
(c) Rs. 512
(d) None of these

5. The marked price of a watch was Rs. 720/-. A man bought the same for Rs. 550.80, after getting two successive discounts, the first at 10%. What was the second discount rate?

(a) 12%
(b) 14%
(c) 15%
(d) 18%

Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) NTPC Exams Study Kit

Answer:

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c)

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB NTPC) Sample Paper : सामान्य तर्क - 231


रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB NTPC) Sample Paper : सामान्य तर्क - 231


1. अक्षरों का कौन-सा समूह खाली स्थानों पर क्रमवार रखने से दी गई अक्षर शृंखला को पूरा करेगा ?

 -wi--w-nt-in-wi-

(a) nttwiwn
(b) ttinwin
(c) tntiwtn
(d) tntwitn

निर्देश (प्र. 2-5): निम्न प्रश्नों में एक अनुक्रम दिया गया है, जिसमें एक पद लुप्त है । दिए गए विकल्पों में से वह सही विकल्प चुनिए जो अनुक्रम को पूरा करे।

2. FNC,HQG,JTK, ?

(a) LXO
(b) LMO
(c) KMT
(d) LWO

3. 44,56,69,83, ?, 114

(a) 90
(b) 98
(c) 100
(d) 110

4. 6,7,18,23,38, ?

(a) 49
(b) 47
(c) 87
(d) 92

5.
   

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) एनटीपीसी परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

Answer:

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a)

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