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 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Date: 18 Sep 2018 Shift-2 (General Science)

 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key

Date: 18 Sep 2018 Shift-2 (General Science)

Q1. ___________is prevented by coating the conducting wire with pvc.

a. Overloading
b. Fusing
c. Dripping
d. Short-Circuit

Q2. The molecular mass of O2 is_________

a. 8
b. 16
c. 32
d. 64

Q3. An Object of mass 6 kg and having a potential energy of 480 J is placed at a height. Find the height of the object w.r.t the ground (g=10m/s)

a. 7
b. 8
c. 4
d. 6

Q4. If the electronic configuration of an element is 2, 8, 2, to which period of the Modern Periodic Table does it belong?

a. 4
b. 2
c. 12
d. 3

Q5. The walls of sclerenchyma cells are thickened due to ________

a. Pectin
b. Hemi-cellulose
c. Cellulose
d. Lignin

Q6. The electronic configuration of an element belonging to period 2 and showing strong catenation property is:

a. 2,6
b. 2,8,4
c. 2,8,2
d. 2,4

Q7.a milkman adds a small amount of baking soda to fresh milk:

a. To improve taste of milk
b. To prevent acidisation of milk
c. To improve the consistency of milk
d. To increase the cream in the milk

Q8. An object is released from a certain height above the ground. Just at the time it touches the ground, it will possess_______

a. Kinetic energy
b. Chemical energy
c. Heat energy
d. Potential energy

Q9. The _______ acts as a food store in plant seeds.

a. Radicle
b. Ovule
c. Plumule
d. Cotyledons

Q10. The prefix added to the name of the hydrocarbon with 4 carbon atoms is.

a. Eth
b. Hept
c. But
d. Prop

Q11. Clouds looking white in colour are due to the phenomenon of ________

a. Refraction of light
b. Reflection of light
c. Scattering of light
d. Radiation

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Q12. ___________ is the commercial unit of energy.

a. Kilowatt hour
b. Joule
c. Kilowatt
d. Watt hour

Q13. The millions period consists of the places:

a. M, TH, HM
b. O,T,M
c. M,TM
d. TTh, HTh, M

Q14. An electric bulb having voltage 240V and current 0.6 A has a power of _____________

a. 40W
b. 400W
c. 144W
d. 14.4W

Q15. Select the most appropriate option.
 1KWH = _____________

a. 3,60,000 J
b. 3,600 J
c. 36,00,000 J
d. 36,000 J

Q16. Which of the following is the ore of mercury?

a. Stibnite
b. Arsenic
c. Cinnabar
d. Bauxite

Q17. The gravitational force of attraction between a satellite and the earth gives rise to ___________

a. Centrifugal force
b. Planar force
c. Centripetal force
d. Tension

Q18. Bifocal lenses are used by people suffering from__________

a. Myopia or Hypermetropia
b. Myopia but not Hypermetropia
c. Hypermetropia but not Myopia
d. Myopia and Hypermetropia

Q19. The source of the Sun’s energy is the process of:

(a) Photoelectric emission
(b) Nuclear fission
(c) Nuclear fusion
(d) Thermionic emission

Click Here to Download PDF

RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

RRB Group-D Exam Online Tests Series

ANSWER:
1. (d), 2. (c), 3. (b), 4. (d), 5. (d), 6. (d), 7. (b), 8. (a), 9. (d), 10. (c), 11. (c), 12. (a), 13. (a), 14. (c), 15. (c), 16. (c), 17. (c), 18. (d), 19. (c)

 

(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Date: 18 Sep 2018 Shift-2 (General Knowledge)

 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key

Date: 18 Sep 2018 Shift-2 (General Knowledge)

Q1. Which organization has set up the Govardhan Eco Village in Maharashtra?

a. RSS
b. GaugiyaMath
c. ISKCON
d. Isha Foundation

Q2. Who among the following had resigned from the post of Head Coach of Indian Cricket team in 2017?

a. Anil Kumble
b. Kapil Dev
c. Rahul Dravid
d. Ravi Shastri

Q3. ________does not belong to the class Annelida.

a. Ascaris
b. Earthworm
c. Leech
d. Neries

Q4. An object is stationary then the force is still acting on it is:

a. Momentum
b. Impulse
c. Acceleration
d. Weight

Q5. What is the initiative of FSSAI that will enable collection and conversion of used cooking oil to bio-diesel?

a. RUSA
b. RAMA
c. RENO
d. RUCO

Q6. In which state is the Pagladia Dam located?

a. Nagaland
b. West Bengal
c. Meghalaya
d. Assam

Q7. Sadhguru jaggi Vasudev has been awarded with Padma vibhushan award in 2017 by the government of India for his contribution towards which of the following?

a. Music
b. Spiritually
c. Sports
d. Politics

Q8. ________Contributed to the theories of inheritance of traits in living things

a. JBS Haldane
b. Stanley Miller
c. Charles Darwin
d. Gregor Mendel

Q9. Name the athletic event in which Manpreet Kaur won a glod medal in the first leg of Asian Grand Prix Athletics Meet?

a. Discus throw
b. High jump
c. Long jump
d. Shot put

Q10. In which year Goa was captured by Portuguese?

a. 1512
b. 1510
c. 1516
d. 1515

Q11. The former RBI governor Raghuram Rajan authored the book-

a. The Ministry of Utmost Happiness
b. Emergency-Indian Democracy’s Darkest Hour
c. The Unseen Indira Gandhi
d. I Do What I Do

Q12. Who among the following is the founder of Swatantra Party?

a. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
b. Vallabhbhai Patel
c. Kamaraj
d. C Rajagopalachari

Q13. Who among the following has been honoured with the Global Diversity Award 2017 by the British Parliament House?

a. Akshay Kumar
b. Ranbir Kapoor
c. Salman Khan
d. Aamir Khan

RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

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Q14. In which Indian state has The Union Government sanctioned ₹98.35 Cr for the development of a Heritage Circuit?

a. Shimla
b. Assam
c. Nagaland
d. Tripura

Q15. Which organization has been honoured with the NABARD 2018 award?

a. Repco Micro Finance
b. HDFC Mutual Fund
c. Shriram Mutual Funds
d. ICICI Prudential

Q16. Who among the following hosts the Hindi version of “Bigg Boss-11”?

a. Aamir Khan
b. Farhan Akhtar
c. Shilpa Shetty
d. Salman Khan

Q17. What is the maximum strength of Lok sabha?

a. 552
b. 550
c. 545
d. 548

Q18. Which of the following is the indigenously designed and developed long-range subsonic cruise missile of India?

a. Helina
b. Nirbhay
c. Pinaka
d. Nag

Q19. We can control the urge to urinate as ________

a. Bladder is filled with less water
b. Bladder does not fill up easily
c. The muscular bladder is under nervous control
d. Sphincter muscle is present between bladder and urethra

Q20. Who won the Golden Boot Award in 2018 FIFA World Cup?

a. Lionel Messi
b. Antoine Griezmann
c. Harry Kane
d. Gabriel Jesus

Q21. The Ninety East Ridge is a submarine volcanic ridge located in which ocean?

a. Indian Ocean
b. Pacific Ocean
c. Arctic Ocean
d. Atlantic Ocean

Q22. Who launched India’s largest ‘train the trainers’ programme recently?

a. Sachin Tendulkar
b. Kapil Dev
c. Prakash Padukone
d. Pullela Gopichand

Q23. Who among the following has been names the “British Indian of the year”?

a. Ishwar Sharma
b. Ishwar Verma
c. Ishwar Kumar
d. Ishwar Gupta

Click Here to Download PDF

RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

RRB Group-D Exam Online Tests Series

ANSWER
1. (c), 2. (a), 3. (a), 4. (a), 5. (d), 6. (d), 8. (b), 9. (d), 10. (d), 11. (b), 12. (d), 13. (d), 14. (c), 15. (a), 16. (a), 17. (d), 18. (b), 19. (c), 20. (c), 21. (a), 22. (d), 23. (a)

(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Date: 18 Sep 2018 Shift-2 (Reasoning)

 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key

Date: 18 Sep 2018 Shift-2 (Reasoning)

Q1. Read the given question and decide which of the following statements is/are sufficient to answer the question?
What is the age of Sriram?

Statement:

1. Sriram is 32 years elder to Shyam.
2. Shyam is 2 years old now.

a. Both 1 and 2 are sufficient
b. Either I or 2 is sufficient
c. Only 1 is sufficient
d. Only 2 is sufficient

Q2. Which answer figures will come next in the given problem figure series?

Q3. Read the given statement and conclusion carefully and select which of the conclusions logically follow from the statement.

Statement:

  • All mud are vessels
  • All vessels are containers

Conclusion:
1. All containers are mud.
2. Some vessels are mud

Q4. Consider the given statement to be true even if be true even if it seems to be at variance with commonly known facts and decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the statement.

Statement:

  • Waste management is one of our country’s most important concerns these these days given the fast pace growing population and increasing wastes.

Conclusion:

I. The indisposed waste caused a lot of harm to our environment and breeds various diseases.
II. It will certainly be helpful to address public or students at any institution on waste management.

a. Only conclusion I follows
b. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
c. Both conclusion I and II follows
d. Only conclusion II follows

Q5. Joy points out to a picture and says, ‘This is my mother’s sister’s husband,’ How is the person in the picture related to Joy?

a. Maternal Uncle
b. Brother
c. Paternal Uncle
d. Son

Q6. Identify the founder of Paytm who was listed in TIME magazine’s most influential people list 2017 along with Prime Minister Narendra Modi?

a. Vijay malya
b. Vijay Bhaskar
c. Narendra Kumar
d. Vijay Shekhar Sharma

Q7. Choose the most suitable Venn diagram for the following words.

Garlic, Ginger, Chilly

Q8. Choose the mirror image for the following figure when the mirror is kept at the MN line.

Q9. Which of the options bears the closest resemblance to the following figure?

Q10. Consider the given statement and decide which of the following assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.

Statement:

  • Stories are the best way to make children remember concepts in the early years of their life.

Assumptions:

I. Children like stories
II. Stories improve children’s imagination and visualization skills.

a. Only I is implicit
b. Only II is implicit
c. Both I and II are implicit
d. Neither I nor II is implicit

Q11. Which of the option figures bears the closed resemblance to the question figure?

Q12. If KIN is written as PRM then how would you write THREAD?

a. GSIVYW
b. GSIVWZ
c. GSIVZW
d. GRIUZW

Q13. Which of the following Venn diagram correctly represents the relationship between:

A. Mobile
B. Laptop
C. Electronic

Q14. In which of the following activities is work said to be done?

a. Pinki is walking on a leveled road with a book on her head
b. Khishi is pushing a wall of a house but fails to do so
c. Harsh is reading a book
d. Shruti is sitting on a chair

Q15. Which of the given elements A,B,C,D and E with atomic number 2,3,7,10 and 30 respectively belong to the same period?

a. B,D,E
b. A,B,C
c. A,D,E
d. B,C,D

Q16. Which assumptions are implied from the below statement?

“Trees can communicate and share nutrients with other trees in a forest” says a scientist.

Assumptions:
 

I. Plants share extra nutrients with other plants
II. Underneath the earth everything is connected.

a. Neither I nor II is implicit
b. Only II is implicit
c. Only I is implicit
d. Both I and II are implicit

Q17. Which of the following does NOT belong to this group?

a. Ant
b. Caterpillar
c. Hamster
d. Locust

Q18. Find the next letter-pair in the following series.

DO, EP, FQ, GR, ?

a. SH
b. HS
c. ST
d. HV

Q19. Choose the one that does NOT belong to the group.

a. Aluminium
b. Gold
c. Silver
d. Hydrogen

Q20. Find the odd one out.

a. C
b. B
c. A
d. D

Q21. Given is a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. Considered the statement and the following assumptions and decided which of the assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.

Statement:

  • Global warming, species extinction and deforestation are posing a threat to the environment

Assumptions:

I. The more we exploit and degrade out environment, the more ecological imbalance we create, ultimately putting the very existence of human life at risk.
II. Every species is dependent on every other species for survival, directly or indirectly. Human beings are the ones who depend on maximum number of species for not only our survival but also for our development needs.

a. Only assumption I is implicit
b. Neither assumption I nor II is implicit
c. Both assumptions I and II are implicit
d. Only assumption II is implicit

Q22. A is standing facing East. B is standing 750 m to the West of A. At 500 m to the right of A, there is a big pole. What is the direction of the pole with respect to B’s position?

a. North – East
b. South – West
c. North – West
d. South – East and

Q23. If “MAP” is coded as KYN in a code language, how will “REDUCE” be written in the same code?

a. OBASBD
b. PCBSAB
c. OBARBD
d. PCBSAC

Q24. Read the given statement and conclusion carefully and select which of the conclusions logically follow from the statement

Statement:

  • All cars are four-wheelers
  • All four-Wheelers are vehicles.

Conclusion:

  1. All cars are vehicles.
  2. Some vehicles are four-wheelers

a. No conclusion follow
b. Only conclusion 1 follows
c. All the conclusion follow
d. Only conclusion 2 follows

Q25. Sarang is facing West. He turns 135° clockwise and then 45° anticlockwise. In which direction he is facing now?

a. West
b. North
c. East
d. South

Q26. Find the missing term in the following series.

B-24, ?, F-9, H-4

a. T-19
b. D-20
c. D-16
d. S-18

Q27. Soham is 10 years younger than partha. Eight years ago three times the age of soham was 4 more than twice the age of Partha. Find Soham’s present age.

a. 32 years
b. 28 years
c. 30 years
d. 33 years

Q28. What is the next term is this series:

12A6Z, 24C4X, 36E2V,_____________

a. 48F0T
b. 48F9T
c. 48F9S
d. 48G0T

Q29. If today is Monday, then find the day after 61 days?

a. Friday
b. Saturday
c. Monday
d. Tuesday

Q30. Select the option figure that will complete the series of question figures.

a. D
b. C
c. A
d. B

Click Here to Download PDF

RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

RRB Group-D Exam Online Tests Series

ANSWER:
1. (a), 2. (c), 3. (a), 4. (c), 5. (a), 6. (d), 7. (a), 8. (b), 9. (c), 10. (c), 11. (d), 12. (c), 13. (b), 14. (a), 15. (d), 16. (c), 17. (c), 18. (b), 19. (d), 20. (d), 21. (c), 22. (d), 23. (d), 24. (c), 25. (b), 26. (c), 27. (a), 28. (d), 29. (b), 30. (c)





 

 


 

(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Date: 18 Sep 2018 Shift-2 (Mathematics)

 (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key

Date: 18 Sep 2018 Shift-2 (Mathematics)

Q1. The sum of two fractions is 7/4, One of them is 5/3, What is the other function?

a. 1/12
b. 1/5
c. 1/10
d. 2

Q2. Sita bought certain number of pens at 8 for Rs.7 and sold them at 6 for Rs. 5. The gain or loss percentage is?

a. No profit no loss
b. 100/21% loss
c. 99/21% loss
d. 100/21% profit

Q3. {8+(24+3)}/9=?

a. 3
b. 9
c. 8
d. 4

Q4. On a certain sum, simple interest for 5/2 years at an annual rate of 12% is Rs. 50 less than the interest on the same sum for 7/2 years at an annual rate rate of 10%. Find the sum.

a. Rs.1500
b. Rs.1000
c. Rs.2000
d. Rs.1200

Q5. Find the values of k for which x2+5kx+k2+5 is exactly divisible by x+2 but not divisible by x+3.

a. Neither 1 nor 9
b. 1
c. Both 1 and 9
d. 9

Q6. From the top of a platform 7m high, the angle of elevation of a tower was 30°. If the tower was 47 m high, how far away from the tower was the platform was the platform positioned?

a. 45√3m
b. 40m
c. 40√3m
d. 15√3m

Q7. A tap can fill the tank in 25 minutes and the other can empty the tank in 50 minutes. If both the taps are opened simultaneously, then the tank will be filled in time?

a. 50 minutes
b. 1 hour, 10 minutes
c. 1 hour, 5 minutes
d. 55 minutes

Q8. If the cost of tomatoes increases by 25% per kg and Sudha wants to spend only 15% more on the tomatoes. Calculate the percentage decrease in the quantity of tomatoes that Sudha gets.

a. 12.5%
b. 12%
c. 8%
d. 10%

Q9. On selling a jute bag for Rs. 48, Ashmitha incurs a loss of 20%. In order to make a profit of 20% what should be the selling price of the jute bag?

a. 56
b. 72
c. 52
d. 68

Q10. If √108 + √243 = 25.98 find the value of √147 + √192.

a. 25.98
b. 34.248
c. 27.712
d. 26.89

Q11. Vella is a farmer he owns few acres of land. Last month he had a good harvest which gave him a 90% profit on his initial investment. Approximately how much money he needs to invest each season?

a. 3,00,000
b. 1,50,000
c. 1,00,000
d. 6,00,000

Q12. Keerthi and Malathi together can complete a task in 12 days, while Malathi can finish it in 30 days. In how many days can Keerthi alone complete the task?

a. 10 Days
b. 40 Days
c. 20 Days
d. 30 Days

Q13. In a library, there are 10 different sections and the librarian categorises the book over 20 days. Which section has the least number of books?

a. Section 7
b. Section 5
c. Section 8
d. Section 9

Q14. The square root of 882/1922 is:

a. 22/31
b. 21/31
c. 19/31
d. 20/31

RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

RRB Group-D Exam Online Tests Series

 

Q15. An inlet pipe an outlet pipe are taking turns to fill and drain a cistern, respectively, for an hour each at a time, starting with the inlet pipe when the cistern is empty. It takes the inlet pipe 15 hours to fully fill the empty cistern, whereas the outlet pipe can drain the filled cistern completely in 21 hours. How many hours will it take for the cistern to be full?

a. 99
b. 52.5
c. 100
d. 105

Q16. There is a maximum gap of x years between two successive leap years. What is the value of x?

a. 4
b. 1
c. 8
d. 2

Q17. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 8. Which one of the following can never be their L.C.M.?

a. 24
b. 48
c. 56
d. 60

Q18. The given pie chart shows information about the mobile phone manufacturing companies in India. The total number of mobile phone units manufactured is 12,40,000. Which company produces the least number of mobile phones?

a. DEF
b. PQR
c. XYZ
d. ABX

Q19. What is the quantity of copper in 1kg of alloy if the alloy contains 32% copper, 40% zinc and the rest is nickel?

a. 320 g
b. 280 g
c. 400 g
d. 240 g

Q20. A 161.5 m long train crosses a 758.5 m long bridge in 46 seconds. What is the speed of the train?

a. 72 km/h
b. 78 km/h
c. 75 km/h
d. 80 km/h

Q21. What is the greatest four-digit number that is exactly divisible by 49?

a. 9998
b. 9994
c. 9996
d. 9992

Q22. By walking at 4/5 of his usual speed, Soham is 6 minutes late to office. How much time does he usually take to get to the office?

a. 25 minutes
b. 20 minutes
c. 24 minutes
d. 16 minutes

Q23. The wickets taken by a bowler in 12 cricket matches are as follows:
2,6,4,3,5,0,3,2,1,3,2,3.    Find the mode of the data

a. 1
b. 4
c. 2
d. 3

Q24. The area of the circumcircle of a right angle triangle whose sides are 6cm, 8cm and 10cm will be:

a. 16π cm2
b. 9π cm2π
c. 25π cm2
d. 24.5π cm2

Q25. √0.00069169 =?

a. 0.00243
b. 0.243
c. 0.0263
d. 0.000243

Q26. How many factors of 1296 are perfect squares?

a. 12
b. 8
c. 9
d. 10

Q27. If the radius of curvature of a concave mirror is 6.2 cm, its focal length is __________cm.

a. 2.6
b. 3.1
c. 6
d. 12.4

Q28. How many right-angled triangles are there in the following figure?

a. 14
b. 15
c. 12
d. 16

Click Here to Download PDF

RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

RRB Group-D Exam Online Tests Series

ANSWER:
1. (a), 2. (b), 3. (a), 4. (b), 5. (d), 6. (c), 7. (a), 8. (c), 9. (b), 10. (a), 11. (c), 12. (c), 13. (a), 14. (b), 15. (a), 16. (c), 17. (d), 18. (a), 19. (a), 20. (a), 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (d), 24. (c), 25. (c), 26. (c), 27. (b), 28. (d)

 

(Detailed Notification) RRB Non Technical Popular Categories (NTPC) CEN No. RRC 01/2019

(Detailed Notification) RRB Non Technical Popular Categories (NTPC) CEN No. RRC 01/2019

IMPORTANT DATES & TIME

Date of Publication in RRB websites

28.02.2019

Opening of online registration of Applications

01.03.2019 at 16.00 hrs.

Closing  of online registration of Applications

31.03.2019 at 23.59 hrs.

Closing Date & Time for Payment of Application Fee

through:

 

(a) Online (Net Banking/ Credit Card/ Debit Card/UPI)

05.04.2019 at 23.59 hrs.

(b) SBI Challan

05.04.2019 at 15.00 hrs.

(c) Post Office Challan

05.04.2019 at 15.00 hrs.

Final submission of Applications

12.04.2019 at 23.59 hrs.

1st Stage Computer Based Test (CBT)

Tentatively scheduled

between

June to September 2019

DETAILS OF VACANCIES AT A GLANCE

  1. Under Graduate Posts with Minimum Educational Qualification of 12th (+2 Stage) or its equivalent examination and Age between 18 to 30 Years as on 01.07.2019.

Sl.

No.

 

Name of the post

Level in

7th CPC

Initial

pay (Rs.)

Medical

Standard

Total Vacancies

(All RRBs)

1

Junior Clerk cum Typist

2

19900

C-2

4319

2

Accounts Clerk cum Typist

2

19900

C-2

760

3

Junior Time Keeper

2

19900

C-2

17

4

Trains Clerk

2

19900

A-3

592

5

Commercial cum Ticket Clerk

3

21700

B-2

4940

Grand Total

10628

    2.   Graduate Posts with Minimum Educational Qualification of a University Degree or its equivalent and Age between 18 to 33 Years as on 01.07.2019.

 

Sl. No.

 

Name of the post

Level

th

in 7

CPC

Initial

pay

(Rs.)

 

Medical

Standard

Total

Vacancies

(All RRBs)

1

Traffic Assistant

4

25500

A-2

88

2

Goods Guard

5

29200

A-2

5748

3

Senior Commercial cum Ticket Clerk

5

29200

B-2

5638

4

Senior Clerk cum Typist

5

29200

C-2

2873

5

Junior Account Assistant cum Typist

5

29200

C-2

3164

6

Senior Time Keeper

5

29200

C-2

14

7

Commercial Apprentice

6

35400

B-2

259

8

Station Master

6

35400

A-2

6865

Grand Total

24649

EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS

  • Candidates should have requisite minimum educational qualifications indicated for posts in Annexure•A of this CEN from recognized Board/University/Institute as on the closing date for ONLINE Registration. Those awaiting results of the final examination of the prescribed minimum educational qualification SHOULD NOT apply.

MEDICAL STANDARDS FOR THE POSTS

Candidates called for document verification will have to pass requisite medical fitness test(s) conducted by the Railway Administration to ensure that the candidates are medically fit to carry out the duties connected with the post(s) opted by them. Visual Acuity Standard is one of the important criteria of medical fitness of railway staff. The medical standards are outlined below:

Sl.

No.

Medical

standard

General

fitness

 

Visual acuity

 

 

 

1

 

 

 

A-2

 

Physically fit in all respects

Distant  Vision:  6/9 6/9   without  glasses  (No

fogging test).

Nea Vision:   Sn   0.6 0. without   glasses and Must pass test for Colour Vision, Binocular Vision, Night Vision and Myopic vision.

Sl.

No.

Medical

standard

General

fitness

 

Visual acuity

 

 

 

2

 

 

 

A-3

 

Physically fit in all respects

Distant Vision: 6/9,  6/9  with or without glasses

(power of lenses not to exceed 2D).

Near Vision: Sn 0.6, 0.6 with or without glasses and Must pass test for Colour Vision, Binocular Vision, Night Vision and Myopic vision.

 

 

 

3

 

 

 

B-2

 

Physically fit in all respects

Distance Vision: 6/9, 6/12 with or without glasses

(Power of lenses not to exceed 4D).

Near Vision: Sn 0.6, 0.6 with or without glasses when reading or close work is required and must pass test for Field of Vision(Binocular Vision) etc.

 

4

 

C-2

Physically fit in all respects

Distant Vision: 6/12, nil with or without glasses. Near  Vision:  Sn  0.6  combined  with  or  without glasses where reading or close work is required.

 

AGE LIMIT

  • The lower and upper age limit indicated for the post(s) in the Vacancy Table will be reckoned as on 01.07.2019. 5.2 For 7th CPC Level-2 and 3 (Under Graduate Level Posts), the Date of Birth of candidates should be between the dates given below (both dates inclusive):

 

 

Age

Group

 

Upper Limit of Date of Birth

(Not earlier than)

Lower Limit of Date of

Birth (Not later than) for

Under Graduate Posts

 

UR

OBC-Non

Creamy Layer

 

SC/ST

For all community /

categories

18 to 30

02.07.1989

02.07.1986

02.07.1984

01.07.2001

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The summary of the various stages of recruitment process detailed as above for the notified posts are tabulated below:

 

 

Sl. No.

 

Name of the post

Level

th

in 7

CPC

1st stage

CBT

2nd stage

CBT

 

Skill Test requirement

1

Junior Clerk cum

Typist

2

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Common for all posts

 

Common for all Level 2 posts

Typing Skill Test

2

Accounts Clerk cum

Typist

2

Typing Skill Test

3

Junior Time Keeper

2

Typing Skill Test

4

Trains Clerk

2

-----

5

Commercial cum

Ticket Clerk

3

Separate for

Level 3 post

------

6

Traffic Assistant

4

Separate for

Level 4 post

Computer

Based Aptitude

Test

7

Goods Guard

5

 

 

 

 

Common for all Level 5 posts

------

8

Senior Commercial

cum Ticket Clerk

5

------

9

Senior Clerk cum

Typist

5

Typing Skill Test

10

Junior Account

Assistant cum Typist

5

Typing Skill Test

11

Senior Time Keeper

5

Typing Skill Test

12

Commercial

Apprentice

6

 

Common for all Level 6 posts

-------

13

Station Master

6

Computer

Based Aptitude

Test

 

RECRUITMENT PROCESS:

Only single ONLINE application (common to all the notified posts in opted RRB) has  to be submitted by the candidate through the link provided on the official websites of RRBs. The recruitment process shall involve 1st Stage Computer Based Test (CBT), 2nd Stage Computer Based Test (CBT), Typing Skill Test/Computer Based Aptitude Test (as applicable) and Document Verification/Medical Examination. Selection is made strictly as per merit, on the basis of above mentioned recruitment stages. The date, time and venue for all the activities viz. CBTs, Typing Skill Test/Computer based Aptitude Test, Document Verification, Medical Examination or any other additional activity as applicable shall be fixed by the RRBs and shall be intimated to the eligible candidates in due course. Request for postponement of any of the above activity or for change of venue, date and shift will not be entertained under any circumstances.

1st Stage Computer Based Test (CBT) • Common for all notified posts of this CEN 01/2019.

Exam

Duration in

Minutes

No. of Questions (each of 1 mark) from

 

Total No. of

Questions

General

Awareness

 

Mathematics

General Intelligence

and Reasoning

90

40

30

30

100

The examination duration will be 120 Minutes for eligible PwBD candidates accompanied with Scribe.

The section wise distribution given in the above table is only indicative and there may be some variations in the actual question papers. There will be negative marking and 1/3 mark shall be deducted for each wrong answer.

The 1st Stage CBT is of screening nature and the standard of questions for the CBT will be generally in conformity with the educational standards prescribed for the posts. The normalized score of 1st Stage CBT shall be used for short listing of candidates for 2nd Stage CBT as per their merit. Candidates who are shortlisted for 2nd Stage CBT availing the reservation benefits of OBC(NCL)/SC/ST/EWS, PwBD and ExSM shall continue to be considered only against OBC(NCL)/SC/ST/EWS, PwBD and ExSM for all subsequent stages of recruitment process.

The Questions will be of objective type with multiple choices and are likely to include questions pertaining to:

a. Mathematics:

Number System, Decimals, Fractions, LCM, HCF, Ratio and Proportions, Percentage, Mensuration, Time and Work, Time and Distance, Simple and Compound Interest, Profit and Loss, Elementary Algebra, Geometry and Trigonometry, Elementary Statistics etc

b. General Intelligence and Reasoning:

Analogies, Completion of Number and Alphabetical Series, Coding and Decoding, Mathematical Operations, Similarities and Differences, Relationships, Analytical Reasoning, Syllogism, Jumbling, Venn Diagrams, Puzzle, Data Sufficiency, Statement- Conclusion, Statement- Courses of Action, Decision Making, Maps, Interpretation of Graphs etc.

c. General Awareness:

Current Events of National and International Importance, Games and Sports, Art and Culture of India, Indian Literature, Monuments and Places of India, General Science and Life Science (up to 10th CBSE), History of India and Freedom Struggle, Physical, Social and Economic Geography of India and World, Indian Polity and Governance- constitution and political system, General Scientific and Technological Developments including Space and Nuclear Program of India, UN and Other important World Organizations, Environmental Issues Concerning India and World at Large, Basics of Computers and Computer Applications, Common Abbreviations, Transport Systems in India, Indian Economy, Famous Personalities of India and World, Flagship Government Programs, Flora and Fauna of India, Important Government and Public Sector Organizations of India etc.

Minimum percentage of marks for eligibility in various categories: UR-40%, EWS- 40%, OBC (Non creamy layer) -30%, SC-30%, ST-25%. These percentages of marks for eligibility may be relaxed by 2% for PwBD candidates in case of shortage of PwBD candidates against vacancies reserved for them.

2nd Stage Computer Based Test (CBT):

Separate 2nd Stage CBT shall be taken for each of the 7th CPC Level i.e. Level 2,
3, 4, 5 and 6 with graded difficulty level. All posts falling within same level of 7th CPC shall have a common 2nd stage CBT. If candidates are eligible for more than one level of 7th CPC posts as per their educational qualifications, they have to give common 1st stage CBT and corresponding 2nd stage CBT for each level of 7th CPC as per the table given in Para 13.6.

Shortlisting of Candidates for the 2nd Stage CBT shall be based on the normalized marks obtained by them in 1st Stage CBT and the options for various posts exercised by them keeping in view the educational qualification of the candidate i.e. 10+2 or Graduate. Total no. of candidates to be shortlisted shall be 20 times the community wise vacancies of posts notified against the RRB as per their merit in 1st Stage CBT cum choice of posts. However, Railways reserve the right to increase/decrease this limit in total or for any specific category(s) as required to ensure availability of adequate candidates for all the notified posts.

The examination duration and number of questions for 2nd stage CBT are indicated below:
 

 

Exam Duration in Minutes

No of Questions (each of 1 mark) from

 

Total No of

Questions

General

Awareness

 

Mathematics

General Intelligence and Reasoning

90

50

35

35

120

 

The examination duration will be 120 Minutes for eligible PwBD candidates accompanied with Scribe.

The section wise distribution given in the above table is only indicative and there may be some variations in the actual question papers. There will be negative marking and 1/3 mark shall be deducted for each wrong answer.

The Questions will be of objective type with multiple choices and are likely to include questions pertaining to:

a. Mathematics:

Number System, Decimals, Fractions, LCM, HCF, Ratio and Proportions, Percentage, Mensuration, Time and Work, Time and Distance, Simple and Compound Interest, Profit and Loss, Elementary Algebra, Geometry and Trigonometry, Elementary Statistics etc.

b. General Intelligence and Reasoning:

Analogies, Completion of Number and Alphabetical Series, Coding and Decoding, Mathematical Operations, Similarities and Differences, Relationships, Analytical Reasoning, Syllogism, Jumbling, Venn Diagrams, Puzzle, Data Sufficiency, Statement- Conclusion, Statement- Courses of Action, Decision Making, Maps, Interpretation of Graphs etc.

c. General Awareness:

Current Events of National and International Importance, Games and Sports, Art and Culture of India, Indian Literature, Monuments and Places of India, General Science and Life Science (up to 10th CBSE), History of India and Freedom Struggle, Physical, Social and Economic Geography of India and World, Indian Polity and Governance- constitution and political system, General Scientific and Technological Developments including Space and Nuclear Program of India, UN and Other important World Organizations, Environmental Issues Concerning India and World at Large, Basics of Computers and Computer Applications, Common Abbreviations, Transport Systems in India, Indian Economy, Famous Personalities of India and  World, Flagship Government Programs, Flora and Fauna of India, Important

Government and Public Sector Organizations of India etc.

Minimum percentage of marks for eligibility in various categories: UR-40%, EWS-
40%, OBC (Non creamy layer)-30%, SC-30%, ST-25%. These percentages of marks for eligibility may be relaxed by 2% for PwBD candidates in case of shortage of PwBD candidates against vacancies reserved for them.

The normalized marks scored by the candidate in the 2nd stage CBT shall be used for short listing the candidates for document verification for the posts which do not have Typing Skill TestIComputer based Aptitude Test. For the posts having Typing Skill TestIComputer based Aptitude Test, the normalized marks scored by the candidate in the 2nd stage CBT shall be used for shortlisting the candidates for Typing Skill TestIComputer based Aptitude Test.

Computer Based Aptitude Test (CBAT) (Only for candidates who have opted for Traffic Assistant and Station Master)

Qualifying marks: The candidates need to secure a minimum T•Score of 42 marks in each of the test batteries to qualify. This is applicable to all candidates irrespective of community or category i.e. irrespective of SC/ST/OBC•NCL/EWS/PwBD/Ex SM and no relaxation in the minimum T• Score is permissible

Candidates equal to 8 times the number of vacancies of Station Master (SM)ITraffic Assistant (TA) for each of the communities i.e. UR, OBC-NCL, SC, ST and EWS (including ExSM) shall be short listed for CBAT based on their performance in 2nd Stage CBT from among the candidates who have opted for the post of SMITA. Such shortlisted candidates should produce the Vision Certificate in the prescribed format as per Annexure VI in original during CBAT, failing which they will not be permitted
to appear in the CBAT.

Candidates will have to qualify in each of the test batteries of CBAT for considering them for the post of SMITA. The CBAT shall have questions and answer options only in English and Hindi. There shall be no negative marking in CBAT.

The SMITA merit list will be drawn only from amongst the candidates qualifying in the CBAT, with 70% weightage for the marks obtained in the 2nd Stage CBT and 30% weightage for the marks obtained in CBAT.

Candidates are advised to visit websites of RDSO (www.rdso.indianrailways.gov.in - >Directorates->Psycho Technical Directorate ->Guidelines for Aptitude Test) for question patterns and other details of CBAT.

Typing Skill Test (TST):

For the posts Senior Clerk cum Typist, Junior Accounts Assistant cum Typist, Senior Time Keeper, Junior Clerk cum Typist, Accounts Clerk cum Typist and Junior Time Keeper, Typing Skill Test (TST) of qualifying nature (marks obtained in typing skill test shall not be added for making merit) shall be conducted for which the number of candidates equal to eight times the number of vacancies for each of the community shall be called for. The candidates should be able to type 30 words per minute (WPM) in English or 25 WPM in Hindi on Personal Computer only without editing tools and spell check facility. For guidelines of those who appear for typing skill test in Hindi, Kruti Dev and Mangal font shall be made available for typing skill test on Personal Computer. Exemption in Typing Skill Test may be extended to candidates who are permanently disabled due to BlindnessILow Vision, Cerebral Palsy & Loco Motor Disability with not less than 40% permanent disability. Such eligible PwBD candidates have to upload a scanned copy of Typing Skill Test Exemption Certificate issued by the Competent Medical Board in the website of respective RRBs before conduct of typing skill test in the format at Annexure V(E). The merit will be drawn  only for the candidates qualified in the TST or TST exempted PwBD candidates based on performance in 2nd Stage CBT.
13.5 Document Verification (DV):

Based on the performance of candidates in 2nd Stage CBT and based on the performance of candidates in both 2nd Stage CBT and CBATlTST (as applicable), candidates equal to the number of vacancies will be called for Document Verification as per their merit and options. In addition, candidates equal to 50% (may increase or decrease at the discretion of RRBs) of the number of vacancy for various posts will also be called for document verification.

These additional candidates will, however, be considered for empanelment only if there is a shortfall in empanelment from the merit list orland as replacement against the shortfall on account of not joining of recommended candidates in the working post orland any other special requirements. In case of two or more candidates securing same marks, their merit position shall be determined by age criteria i.e., older person shall be placed at higher merit and in case age being same, then alphabetical order (A to Z) of the name shall be taken into account to break the tie. Appointment of selected candidates is subject to their passing requisite Medical Fitness Test to be conducted by the Railway Administration, final verification of educational and community certificates and verification of antecedentslcharacter of the candidates. Candidates may please note that RRBs only recommend names of the empanelled candidates and appointment is offered ONLY by the respective Railway Administrations.

The summary of the various stages of recruitment process detailed as above for the notified posts are tabulated below:

 

Sl. No.

 

Name of the post

Level

th

in 7

CPC

1st stage

CBT

2nd stage

CBT

 

Skill Test requirement

1

Junior Clerk cum

Typist

2

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Common for all posts

 

Common for all Level 2 posts

Typing Skill Test

2

Accounts Clerk cum

Typist

2

Typing Skill Test

3

Junior Time Keeper

2

Typing Skill Test

4

Trains Clerk

2

-----

5

Commercial cum

Ticket Clerk

3

Separate for

Level 3 post

------

6

Traffic Assistant

4

Separate for

Level 4 post

Computer

Based Aptitude

Test

7

Goods Guard

5

 

 

 

 

Common for all Level 5 posts

------

8

Senior Commercial

cum Ticket Clerk

5

------

9

Senior Clerk cum

Typist

5

Typing Skill Test

10

Junior Account

Assistant cum Typist

5

Typing Skill Test

11

Senior Time Keeper

5

Typing Skill Test

12

Commercial

Apprentice

6

 

Common for all Level 6 posts

-------

13

Station Master

6

Computer

Based Aptitude

Test

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RRB जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) Sample Paper : सामान्य तर्क (वर्णमाला पर आधारित प्रश्न ) - 40

RRB जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) Sample Paper : सामान्य तर्क (वर्णमाला पर आधारित प्रश्न ) - 40

1. लड़की : सुन्दर : : लड़का : ?

(a) चतुर
(b) वीर
(c) साहसी
(d) मनोहर

2. मेरा : मै : : ?

(a) हमारा और हमको
(b) वह और उसकी यस्त्रीद्ध
(c) उसका और वह यपुरुषद्ध
(d) उनका और उन्हें

3. बिल्ली :दुध :: घोड़ा : ?

(a) फल (b) चना
(c) तेल (d) अस्तबल

4. मछली : गलफड़ा : : मानव : ?

(a) कान
(b) आँख
(c) फेफड़ा
(d) नाक

5. कूँची : पेस्ट : : बेलचा : ?

(a) तेल
(b) पानी
(c) कोयला
(d) ईंट

आरबी जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) परीक्षा (चरण -1) के लिए अध्ययन किट

1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c)

(अधिसूचना) आरआरबी गैर तकनीकी लोकप्रिय श्रेणियाँ (एनटीपीसी) CEN No. RRC 01/2019

(अधिसूचना) आरआरबी गैर तकनीकी लोकप्रिय श्रेणियाँ (एनटीपीसी) CEN No. RRC 01/2019

आरआरबी एनटीपीसी परीक्षा

Event Dates
आरआरबी एनटी नॉन-टेक ऑनलाइन आवेदन शुरू होता है 28 FEB 2019
पैरा मेडिकल स्टाफ के लिए ऑनलाइन आवेदन 04 March 2019
मंत्रिस्तरीय और पृथक रिक्तियों के लिए ऑनलाइन एफओआरएम 08 March 2019
स्तर 1 (आरआरसी) के लिए ऑनलाइन आवेदन 12 March 2019

रिक्तियों और नौकरी प्रोफ़ाइल

सीईएन श्रेणियाँ आरआरबी एनटीपीसी रिक्ति 2019
आरआरबी / सीईएन 01/2019 गैर-तकनिकि 30,000
आरआरबी / सीईएन 02/2019 पैरा मेडिकल
आरआरबी / सीईएन 03/2019 मंत्रिस्तरीय और पृथक
आरआरस-01/2019 आरआरसी स्तर 1 100000
संपूर्ण 1,30,000 नौकरियां

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RRB NTPC Job Profile

गैर-तकनीकी लोकप्रिय श्रेणियां
  • जूनियर क्लर्क सह टाइपिस्ट
  • खाता क्लर्क सह टाइपिस्ट
  • ट्रेनों के क्लर्क
  • वाणिज्यिक सह टिकट क्लर्क
  • यातायात सहायक
  • गुड्स गार्ड
  • वरिष्ठ वाणिज्यिक
  • वरिष्ठ क्लर्क सह टाइपिस्ट
  • कनिष्ठ लेखाकार सह टाइपिस्ट
  • वाणिज्यिक अपरेंटिस
  • स्टेशन मास्टर
पैरा मेडिकल
  • परिचारिका
  • स्वास्थ्य और मलेरिया निरीक्षक
  • फार्मेसिस्ट
  • ईसीजी टेक
  • प्रयोगशाला सहायक
  • लब सपट
मंत्रिस्तरीय और पृथक
  • स्टेनो
  • मुख्य विधि सहायक
  • जूनियर अनुवादक (हिंदी)
स्तर 1 आरआरसी
  • ट्रैक मेंटेनर
  • ग्रेड IV
  • हेल्पर / सहायक
  • सहायक अंक
  • लेवल -1 पोस्ट

 

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RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: General Awareness (Indian Polity)-39


RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: General Awareness (Indian Polity)-39

1. A Panchayat Samiti at the Block level is

(a) an advisory body
(b) an administrative authority
(c) a consultant committee
(d) a supervisory authority

2. Panchayats were given constitutional status by

(a) the 72nd Amendment
(b) the 73rd Amendment
(c) the 74th Amendment
(d) the 75th Amendment

3. Panchayati Raj is

(a) the functioning of village republics in a democracy
(b) the self-government of the villagers in India
(c) a complex system of rural local government
(d) a hierarchical set up for rural administration

4. Who are generally the members of Gram Sabba?

(a) All the heads of families of the respective villages
(b) All the voters in the respective villages
(c) All adult males in the villages
(d) Nominated members

5. Local government institutions:

(a) can levy taxes with prior approval of the State government
(b) can levy all taxes
(c) propose taxes to the state governments
(d) can levy taxes

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1(b), 2(a), 3(c), 4(b), 5(d)

RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: Mathematics-39


RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: Mathematics-39

1. Manvi spend 30% of her income on food, 1 part on rent, 15% on clothes and saves rest of the money. She spends least money on

(a) food
(b) rent
(c) clothes
(d) savings

2. Government gave wires to his four employees Narendra Harish, Mohan and Suresh as 2200 m, 290 m, 450 m, 300 m. These wires are to be set on the boundries of four different ponds. If

(i) the pond made by Narendra is of circle shape of radius 25m.
(ii) the pond made by Harish is rectangular with length and width 67 m and 63 m respectively.
(iii) the pond made by Mohan is of square shape with side 90 m.
(iv) the pond made by Suresh is triangular with sides 70 m, 77m and 191 m.

Then who has the shortage of wire?

(a) Narendra
(b) Harish
(c) Mohan
(d) Suresh

3. Ramesh is to get his home painted within 2 days. He has four men to do this work.

(i) First man paints 10 sq m in one hour but work only 8 h in a day.
(ii) Second man paints 5 sq m in one hour but work only 12 h in a day.
(iii) Third man paints 20 sq m in one hour but work only 4 h in a day.
(iv) Fourth man paints 15 sq m in one hour but work only 6 h in a day.

If 175 sq m area is to be painted, then which men will complete the work alone in time ?

(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth

4. In the women cricket team of 11 players, each of four players Mithali Raj, Anjum, Jhulan and Sharda are replaced by a new player of 28 yr, then the following respective changes occur.

(i) Average age of team decreases by 0.5 yr
(ii) Average age of team decreases by 1 yr
(iii) Average age of team increases by 0.5 yr
(iv) Average age of team decreases by 0.75 yr

Which of the following players has maximum age?

(a) Mithali Raj
(b) Anjum
(c) Jhulan
(d) Sharda

5. HCF of 105, 150 and 210 is x, HCF of 126, 396, 1080 is y and HCF of 440, 180 and 280 is z. Which of the following is greatest?

(a) x
(b) y
(c) z
(d) All are equal

Study Kit for RRB Junior Engineer EXAM (Phase-1)

1(c), 2(d), 3(d), 4(b), 5(c)`

RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: Reasoning (Series)-39


RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: Reasoning (Series)-39

Directions: Find the missing term in each of the following series:

1. 2, 3, 4, 9, 3, 4, 5, 12, 4, 5, 6, 15, 5, … 7, 18

(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) 9

2. 1, 3, 7, 13, 21, …

(a) 36
(b) 31
(c) 38
(d) 39

3. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26

(a) 33
(b) 34
(c) 35
(d) 37

4. 0, 7, 26, 63, 124, … 342

(a) 215
(b) 214
(c) 216
(d) 213

5. 50, 44, 39, 35

(a) 31
(b) 32
(c) 33
(d) 34

Study Kit for RRB Junior Engineer EXAM (Phase-1)

1(c), 2(b), 3(d), 4(a), 5(b)

RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: General Science-39


RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: General Science-39

1. Photo oxidation process is initiated by

(a) light
(b) heat
(c) oxygen
(d) catalyst

2. Ultraviolet radiation striking this earth is due to the depletion of

(a) carbon monoxide
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) ozone
(d) oxygen

3. Major gaseous pollutant of the thermal power station is

(a) H2S
(b) NH3
(c) NO2
(d) S02

4. The process of removing calcium and magnesium from hard water is known as

(a) Sedimentation
(b) Filtration
(c) Flocculation
(d) Water softening

5. The tip of the matchstick contains

(a) phosphor us pentoxide
(b) white phosphorus
(c) red phosphorus
(d) phosphorus trichloride

Study Kit for RRB Junior Engineer EXAM (Phase-1)

1(b), 2(c), 3(b), 4(c), 5(a)

RRB जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) Sample Paper : सामान्य तर्क (दिशा ज्ञान परीक्षण) - 39

RRB जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) Sample Paper : सामान्य तर्क (दिशा ज्ञान परीक्षण) - 39

1. मोहन पूरब की ओर 15 मीटर चला फिर, दाएँ मुड़ा और 20 मीटर चला । फिर वह दाएँ मुड़ा और 15 मीटर चला । अब मोहन अपने शुरूआती बिंदु से किस दिशा की ओर है ?

(a) उत्तर
(b) दक्षिण
(c) पश्चिम
(d) डाटा अपर्याप्त है

2. पीटर 5 मीटर पश्चिम की ओर जाता है, दाएँ मुड़ता है और 5 मीटर चलता है । वह पुन: दाएँ मुड़ता है और 20 मीटर चलता है । अंत में फिर वह दाएँ मुड़ता है और रुकने से पहले 5 मीटर चलता है । वह आरंभिक बिंदु से कितनी दूर है ?

(a) 20 मीटर
(b) 5 मीटर
(c) 25 मीटर
(d) 15 मीटर

3. मेघना कार चलाती हुई 10 किमी दक्षिण जाती है, फिर वह दाएँ मुड़कर 6 किमी जाती है । पुन: वह दाएँ मुड़ती है और 10 किमी जाकर रुक जाती है । वह प्रारंभिक स्थान से अब कितनी दूरी पर है ?

(a) 16 किमी
(b) 6 किमी
(c) 4 किमी
(d) 12 किमी

4. प्रिया एक स्थान से उत्तर की ओर 20 मीटर जाती है फिर दाएँ मुड़कर 40 मीटर जाती है, फिर बाएँ मुड़कर 20 मीटर जाती है । वहाँ से वह बाएँ मुड़कर 30 मीटर जाती है जहाँ से बाएँ मुड़कर 40 मीटर चलती है । प्रारंभिक स्थान से वह कितनी दूरी पर है ?

(a) 50 मीटर
(b) 20 मीटर
(c) 10 मीटर
(d) 10 मीटर

5. अनु प्रारंभ में 20 मीटर उत्तर जाती है । फिर 30 मीटर पूरब फिर 10 मीटर दक्षिण, फिर 40 मीटर पश्चिम जा कर रुक जाती है । अब, वह प्रारंभिक स्थान के मुकाबले किस दिशा में है ?

(a) उत्तर–पूरब
(b) उत्तर–पश्चिम
(c) पश्चिम
(d) उत्तर
 

आरबी जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) परीक्षा (चरण -1) के लिए अध्ययन किट

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b)

RRB जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) Sample Paper : गणित-39

RRB जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) Sample Paper : गणित-39

1. 25000 पर 12% वार्षिक दर से 3 वर्ष का चक्रवृद्ध ब्याज क्या होगा ?

(a) 9000·30
(b) 10123·20
(c) 10483·20
(d) 9720

2. आनन्द ने निशा से 15000, 12% वार्षिक दर से चक्रवृद्ध ब्याज पर  लिये । इस  को चुकता करने के लिए आनन्द को 2 वर्ष बाद कितना देना होगा ?

(a) 18600
(b) 18618
(c) 18816
(d) 18869

3. 16000 का 3 वर्ष का चक्रवृद्ध ब्याज क्या होगा जबकि ब्याज की दर पहले वर्ष 5%, दूसरे वर्ष 6% तथा तीसरे वर्ष 25/4% वार्षिक हो ?

(a) 2385
(b) 2921
(c) 2941
(d) 3131

4. 11200 का 10% वार्षिक दर से 3/2 वर्ष का चक्रवृद्ध ब्याज क्या होगा, जबकि ब्याज वार्षिक देय हो ?

(a) 1765·40
(b) 1747
(c) 1736
(d) 1680

5. 20480 का 25/4% वार्षिक दर से 2 वर्ष 73 दिन का चक्रवृद्ध ब्याज क्या होगा ?

(a) 2929
(b) 3131
(c) 3636
(d) 3240

आरआरबी जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) परीक्षा (चरण -1) के लि, अध्ययन किट

उत्तर:

1(b), 2(c), 3(b), 4(c), 5(a)

RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: General Awareness (Geography)-38


RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: General Awareness (Geography)-38

1. The northern limit of cotton belt in USA is defined by

(a) 200 frost free days
(b) 50 cm isohyet
(c) 30°C summer isotherm
(d) Southern limit of podzolic soil

2. Which one of the following is known as the Manchester of the East?

(a) Tokyo
(b) Shanghai
(c) Kuala Lumpur
(d) Osaka

3. Which one of the following countries is the largest exporter of wheat?

(a) Argentina
(b) China
(c) India
(d) Ukraine

4. Grozny is famous for the production of

(a) Petroleum
(b) Uranium
(c) Gold
(d) Thorium

5. Fruits and vegetables are grown for export in

(a) Israel
(b) Holland
(c) Egypt
(d) Mauritius

Study Kit for RRB Junior Engineer EXAM (Phase-1)

1(a), 2(d), 3(a), 4(a), 5(b)

RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: Mathematics-38


RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: Mathematics-38

1. The least positive integer which leave a remainder 2, when divided by each of the numbers 4, 6, 8,12 and 16.

(a) 46
(b) 48
(c) 50
(d) 52

2. The number of integers between 200 and 600, that are divisible by 2, 3 and 7 is

(a) 14
(b) 9
(c) 11
(d) 10

3. If three natural numbers, whose LCM is 360, are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4, then the largest of them is

(a) 60
(b) 90
(c) 120
(d) 180

4. The GCD and LCM of two numbers are 66 and 384 respectively. If the first number is divided by 2, the resulting answer is 66. The second number is

(a) 192
(b) 196
(c) 384
(d) 576

5. The LCM and GCD of two numbers are 240 and 16 respectively. If the two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5, the numbers are

(a) 24,40
(b) 21,35
(c) 36,60
(d) 48,80

Study Kit for RRB Junior Engineer EXAM (Phase-1)

1(c), 2(d), 3(c), 4(a), 5(d)`

RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: Reasoning (Series)-38


RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: Reasoning (Series)-38

Directions: Find the missing term in each of the following series:

1. 6, 7, 12, 14, … 21, 24

(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 17
(d) 18

2. 20, 80, 30, 60, 40, … 50, 20

(a) 40
(b) 51
(c) 50
(d) 41

3. 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, … 256, 512

(a) 127
(b) 128
(c) 129
(d) 130

4. 6, 13, 27, 55, 111, … 447

(a) 221
(b) 222
(c) 223
(d) 224

5. 24, 92, 216, 252, 236

(a) 429
(b) 492
(c) 249
(d) 294

Study Kit for RRB Junior Engineer EXAM (Phase-1)

1(d), 2(a), 3(b), 4(c), 5(b)

RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: General Science-38


RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: General Science-38

1. The most abundant element in the human body is

(a) carbon
(b) iron
(c) nitrogen
(d) oxygen

2. Which of the following is riot a greenhouse gas ?

(a) Hydrogen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitric oxide
(d) Chlorofluorocarbon

3. Wax used for making candle is chemically a mixture of

(a) aliphatic hydrocarbons
(b) aromatic hydrocarbons
(c) cyclic hydrocarbons
(d) aliphatic and aromatic hydrocarbons

4. Litmus is obtained from

(a) a bacterium
(b) a fungus
(c) an algae
(d) lichen

5. Vinegar made by fermentation from cane sugar contains

(a) palmitic acid
(b) lactic acid
(c) citric acid
(d) acetic acid

Study Kit for RRB Junior Engineer EXAM (Phase-1)

1(a), 2(c), 3(c), 4(d), 5(a)

RRB जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) Sample Paper : सामान्य तर्क (दिशा ज्ञान परीक्षण) - 38

RRB जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) Sample Paper : सामान्य तर्क (दिशा ज्ञान परीक्षण) - 38

1. मोहन 20 मीटर पश्चिम की ओर जाकर दाएँ मुड़ा और 30 मीटर चला फिर दाएँ मुड़कर 20 मीटर चला तो अब वह किस दिशा की ओर मुँह किये हुए है ?

(a) उत्तर
(b) दक्षिण
(c) पूरब
(d) उत्तर–पूरब

2. अशोक P बिंदु से चलना शुरू कर 5 किमी पूरब जाता है । उसी बिंदु से भरत चलना शुरू करता है और 5 किमी उसके विपरीत में जाता है । पुन: अशोक बाएँ तथा भरत दाएँ मुड़कर 5 किमी चलते हैं तो अब दोनों के बीच की दूरी कितनी है ?

(a) 10 किमी
(b) 15 किमी
(c)5 किमी
(d) जानकारी अधूरी है

3. D 30 मीटर दक्षिण की ओर चलने के बाद बायीं ओर मुड़ता है तथा 20 मीटर चलता है । उसके बाद वह दाहिने मुड़कर 30 मीटर चलता है और अपनी दाहिनी ओर मुड़कर रुक जाता है । जब वह रुका तो किस दिशा की ओर उसका मुख (चेहरा) था ?

(a) पूरब
(b) पश्चिम
(c)उत्तर
(d) आँकड़े अधूरी हैं

4. प्रकाश पश्चिम की ओर 30 मीटर चलकर बाएँ मुड़ता है तथा 20 मीटर चलता है । वह पुन: बाएँ मुड़ता है और 30 मीटर चलता है । उसके बाद वह दाएँ मुड़कर रुक जाता है । जब वह रुकता है तो उसका मुख किस दिशा को इंगित करता है ?

(a) दक्षिण
(b) उत्तर
(c)पूरब
(d) आँकड़े अधूरी हैं

5. K, 5 मीटर उत्तर की ओर जाता है । वहीं से बाएँ मुड़कर 10 मीटर चलता है । इसके बाद वह दाएँ मुड़ता है और 20 मीटर चलता है और फिर दाएँ मुड़ता है और 10 मीटर चलता है अब वह प्रारंभिक बिंदु से कितनी दूरी पर स्थित है ?

(a) 20 मीटर
(b) 15 मीटर
(c)25 मीटर
(d) 30 मीटर
 

आरबी जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) परीक्षा (चरण -1) के लिए अध्ययन किट

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b)

RRB जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) Sample Paper : गणित-38

RRB जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) Sample Paper : गणित-38

1. कोई  चक्रवृद्ध ब्याज से 15 वर्ष में दुगुना हो जाता है– कितने वर्ष में यह अपने से 8 गुना हो जायेगा

(a) 20 वर्ष 
(b) 40 वर्ष
(c) 45 वर्ष
(d) 80 वर्ष

2. किसी पर एक निश्चित दर से 2 वर्ष का साधारण ब्याज 120 तथा चक्रवृद्ध ब्याज 124 रू॰ है ब्याज की वार्षिक दर कितनी है ?

(a) 10/3%
(b) 20/3%
(c) 8%
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

3. किसी पर 2 वर्ष का चक्रवृद्ध ब्याज 282ऽ15 तथा साधारण ब्याज 270 रू॰ है ब्याज की वार्षिक दर कितनी है ?

(a) 6·07%
(b) 10%
(c) 9%
(d) 12·15%

4. किसी पर 3 वर्ष का चक्रवृद्ध मिश्रन 13380 तथा 6 वर्ष का चक्रवृद्ध मिश्रन 20070 है वह  कितना है ?

(a) 8800
(b) 8890
(c) 8920
(d) 9040

5. 15000 का 2 वर्ष का चक्रवृद्ध ब्याज तथा साधारण ब्याज का अन्तर 96 है– ब्याज की वार्षिक दर कितनी है ?

(a) 8%
(b) 10%
(c) 12%
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

आरआरबी जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) परीक्षा (चरण -1) के लि, अध्ययन किट

उत्तर:

1(c), 2(b), 3(c), 4(c), 5(a)

RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: General Awareness (History)-37


RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: General Awareness (History)-37

1. The most decisive battle between the forces of Dara and Aurangzeb in the war of succession was fought at

(a) Khajwa
(b) Samugarh
(c) Deorai
(d) Khanua

2. Aurangzeb usurped power in June 1658 and imprisoned his father Shah Jahan at the place at

(a) Delhi
(b) Agra
(c) Fatehpur Sikri
(d) Lahore

3. Assuming the title of Alamgir, Aurangzeb crowned himself as emperor in July 1658 at

(a) Delhi
(b) Agra
(c) Fatehpur Sikri
(d) Aurangabad

4. Who was the famous Mughal general who conquered Assam, Chittagong, etc. in the north-east?

(a) Raja Jai Singh
(b) Mir Jumla
(c) Jaswant Singh
(d) Shaista Khan

5. During the last twenty-five years of his reign, Aurangzeb was mainly involved in long-drawn wars against

(a) Bijapur
(b) Central Asia
(c) Marathas
(d) North-East

Study Kit for RRB Junior Engineer EXAM (Phase-1)

1(b), 2(a), 3(b), 4(c), 5(d)

RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: Mathematics-37


RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: Mathematics-37

1. What is the difference between the greatest and the smallest five digit numbers formed using the digits 7,0,3, 4 and 2 without repeating the digits?

(a) 65672
(b) 53973
(c) 54672
(d) 65978

2. A boy had to do a multiplication. Instead of taking 35 as one of the multipliers, he took 53. As a result the product went up by 540. What is the new product ?

(a) 1590
(b) 1450
(c) 1550
(d) 1420

3. Five bells begin to toll together and toll respectively at intervals of 6, 7, 8, 9 and 12. How many times they will toll together in one hour, excluding the one at the start?

(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 9

4. Among how many students, 175 bananas and 105 oranges can be equally divided ?

(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 35
(d) All of these

5. The least perfect square which is divisible by each of the numbers 12, 15, 20 and 24 is

(a) 3600
(b) 4900
(c) 6400
(d) 8100

Study Kit for RRB Junior Engineer EXAM (Phase-1)

1(b), 2(a), 3(c), 4(c), 5(a)`

RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: Reasoning (Series)-37


RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: Reasoning (Series)-37

Directions: Find the missing term in each of the following series:

1. 3, 18, 6, 42, 7, 56, …

(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9

2. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, …

(a) 63
(b) 64
(c) 65
(d) 66

3. 01, 10, 12, 21, 13, 31, 14, … 15, 51

(a) 38
(b) 34
(c) 40
(d) 41

4. 99, 98, 94, … 69

(a) 83
(b) 84
(c) 85
(d) 86

5. 3, 5, 9, 17, … 65, 129

(a) 33
(b) 34
(c) 35
(d) 36

Study Kit for RRB Junior Engineer EXAM (Phase-1)

1(c), 2(b), 3(d), 4(c), 5(a)

RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: General Science-37


RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: General Science-37

1. Nuclear energy is a mineralbased energy source. It is derived from

(a) uranium
(b) thorium
(c) plutonium
(d) All of the above

2. Zinc sulphide is commonly used as

(a) fungicide
(b) herbidide
(c) rodenticide
(d) deodorant

3. The purest form of water is

(a) tap water
(b) rainwater
(c) groundwater
(d) distilled water

4. The main constituent of biogas is

(a) oxygen
(b) methane
(c) acetic acid
(d) methyl alcohol

5. Aspirin is chemically known as

(a) methyl salicylate
(b) hydroxysalicylate
(c) acetylsalicyclic acid
(d) alkylsalicylic acid

Study Kit for RRB Junior Engineer EXAM (Phase-1)

1(d), 2(d), 3(d), 4(a), 5(c)

RRB जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) Sample Paper : सामान्य तर्क (दिशा ज्ञान परीक्षण) - 37

RRB जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) Sample Paper : सामान्य तर्क (दिशा ज्ञान परीक्षण) - 37

1. एक बिंदु P से, समीर दक्षिण की ओर चलना प्रारंभ किया तथा 40 मीटर चला, उसके बाद वह अपनी बायीं ओर मुड़कर 50 मीटर चला और वह एक बिंदु R पर पहुँचा वह अपने मूल बिंदु से अब किस दिशा में है ?

(a) दक्षिण–पश्चिम
(b) उत्तर–पूरब
(c) उत्तर–पश्चिम
(d) दक्षिण–पूरब

2. एक आदमी 5 किमी पूरब की ओर चलने के बाद दाएँ मुड़ता है और 4 किमी चलता है पुन% वह बाएँ मुड़ता है और 5 किमी चलता है । वह आरंभ बिंदु से किस दिशा में है ?

(a) उत्तर–पश्चिम
(b) उत्तर–पूरब
(c) दक्षिण–पूरब
(d) पश्चिम

3. एक व्यक्ति दक्षिण दिशा की ओर चलना प्रारंभ करता है । 10 मीटर चलने के बाद बायीं ओर मुड़ जाता है, 15 मीटर चलने के बाद वह पुन: बायीं ओर मुड़ जाता है । वह अंत में किस दिशा में जा रहा है ?

(a) उत्तर
(b) दक्षिण
(c) पूरब
(d) पश्चिम

4. अतुल दक्षिण दिशा की ओर 20 मीटर चलता है । बायीं ओर मुड़कर वह 30 मीटर चलता है, फिर दायीं ओर मुड़कर 10 मीटर चलता है, फिर दायीं ओर मुड़कर 40 मीटर चलता है, फिर दायीं ओर मुड़कर 30 मीटर चलता है और रुक जाता है । प्रारंभिक बिंदु से वह किस दिशा की ओर है ?

(a) दक्षिण–पश्चिम
(b) पश्चिम
(c) उत्तर–पश्चिम
(d) वह प्रारंभिक बिंदु पर है

5. हरिहर दक्षिण की ओर मुख करके चलता है । 30 मीटर चलने के बाद वह अपने दायीं ओर मुड़ गया । 25 मीटर चलकर वह अपने बायीं ओर मुड़ गया । फिर 10 मीटर चलने के बाद वह अपने बायीं ओर मुड़ गया । अब उसका मुख किस दिशा में है ?

(a) पश्चिम
(b) पूरब
(c) उत्तर–पूरब
(d) दक्षिण–पश्चिम

आरबी जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) परीक्षा (चरण -1) के लिए अध्ययन किट

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b)

RRB जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) Sample Paper : गणित-37

RRB जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) Sample Paper : गणित-37

1. किसी पर 4% वार्षिक दर से 2 वर्ष का चक्रवृद्ध ब्याज तथा साधारण ब्याज का अन्तर 80 है यह  कितना है ?

(a) 5000
(b) 10000
(c) 32000
(d) 50000

2. किसी पर 4% वार्षिक दर से 2 वर्ष का चक्रवृद्ध ब्याज तथा साधारण ब्याज का अन्तर 1 है यह  कितना है ?

(a) 625
(b) 630
(c) 640
(d) 650

3. किसी राशि पर 8% चक्रवृद्ध ब्याज की दर से पहले वर्ष का ब्याज 48 है दूसरे वर्ष का ब्याज क्या होगा ?

(a) 48
(b) 51·84
(c) 56·48
(d) 96

4. वह मूलन कितना है जिसका दूसरे वर्ष का चक्रवृद्धि ब्याज 10% वार्षिक दर से 132 है ?

(a) 1000 रू॰ 
(b) 1200 रू॰ 
(c) 1320 रू॰
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

5. कम से कम पूर्ण वर्षों की संख्या कितनी है जिनमें कोई 20% वार्षिक चक्रवृद्धि ब्याज की दर से दुगुने से ज्यादा हो जाये ?

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

आरआरबी जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) परीक्षा (चरण -1) के लि, अध्ययन किट

उत्तर:

1(d), 2(a), 3(b), 4(b), 5(b)

RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: General Awareness (Miscellany)-36


RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: General Awareness (Miscellany)-36

1. Leisel Marie Jon of......became the third person to win 10 Gold medals in the Commonwealth Games history, tying the all-time record of compatriots Susie O’Neill and Ian Thorpe.

(a) Canada
(b) Australia
(c) England
(d) Scotland

2. Clinched the first Commonwealth Games Gold Medal for St. Vincent and the Grenadines, in the Women s 100m in Athletics on October 7, 2010.

(a) Kim Rose
(b) Daniela Margaret
(c) Natasha Mayer
(d) Alicia Meyers

3. Faavae Faauliuli collected Samoa’s first Gold medal in Commonwealth Games history, in the Meri’s Weightlifting on 9 October, 2010.

(a) 88kg
(b) 94kg
(c) 98kg
(d) 102kg

4. On 11 October, 2010, Cydonie Camile Mothersill won the first Gold medal for , when she ran to victory in the Women’s 200m event in Athletics.

(a) Falkland Islands
(b) Cayman Islands
(c) Gibraltar
(d) Iceland

5. Which of the following cities will host the 20th Commonwealth Games in 2014?

(a) Dublin
(b) Glasgow
(c) Dundee
(d) Hamilton

Study Kit for RRB Junior Engineer EXAM (Phase-1)

1(b), 2(c), 3(b), 4(b), 5(b)

RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: Mathematics-36


RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: Mathematics-36

1. An even number, total of whose digits is 27, is always divisible by.

(a) 18
(b) 9
(c) 2
(d) 6

2. By what least number 250 must be multiplied to get a multiple of 15.

(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 2
(d) 15

3. What is the sum of all numbers between 250 and 550, which are divisible by 19.

(a) 6635
(b) 6640
(c) 6000
(d) 6695

4. Find the numbers of prime factors contained in the product of 2311 × 74 × 35

(a) 25
(b) 17
(c) 30
(d) 20

5. A number when divided by 225 gives a remainder of 32. What will be the remainder when the same number is divided by 15 ?

(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 1

Study Kit for RRB Junior Engineer EXAM (Phase-1)

1(a), 2(d), 3(c), 4(d), 5(b)`

RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: Reasoning (Series)-36


RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: Reasoning (Series)-36

Directions: Find the missing term in each of the following series:

1. 5, 9, 17,33, … 129

(a) 55
(b) 45
(c) 65
(d) 75

2. 11, 13, 17, 19, … 29, 31

(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 27
(d) 23

3. 2, 5, 3, 8, 5, 11, 6, … 9

(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 15

4. 6, 5, 9, 10, 12, … 15, 20, 18

(a) 14
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 17

5. 81, 86, 79, 84, 77, …

(a) 82
(b) 28
(c) 83
(d) 38

Study Kit for RRB Junior Engineer EXAM (Phase-1)

1(c), 2(d), 3(d), 4(b), 5(a)

RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: General Science-36


RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Sample Paper: General Science-36

1. The important ore of aluminium is

(a) bauxite
(b) cryolite
(c) fluorspar
(d) haematite

2. Aua regia is a 1:3 mixture by volume of

(a) conc. nitric acid and cone hydrochloric acid
(b) cone hydrochloric acid and cone nitric acid
(c) cone nitric acid and cone sulphuric acid
(d) conc. sulphuric acid and cone nitric acid

3. What is the maximum Water Vapour content in the atmosphere?

(a) 2 to 3 per cent
(b) 3 to 4 per cent
(c) 4 to 5 per cent
(d) 5 to 6 per cent

4. The amount of chlorine available in water after disinfection is: called as

(a) free chlorine
(b) residual chlorine
(c) free available chlorine
(d) combined available chlorine

5. What are the major pollutants of cigarette smoke?

(a) Carbon monoxide and dioxin
(b) Carbon monoxide and nicotine
(c) Carbon monoxide and benzene
(d) Dioxin and benzene

Study Kit for RRB Junior Engineer EXAM (Phase-1)

1(a), 2(b), 3(b), 4(b), 5(a)

RRB जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) Sample Paper : सामान्य तर्क (दिशा ज्ञान परीक्षण) - 36

RRB जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) Sample Paper : सामान्य तर्क (दिशा ज्ञान परीक्षण) - 36

1. प्रश्न में प्रारंभिक स्थान, अंतिम स्थान के मुकाबले किस दिशा में है ?

(a) उत्तर–पूरब
(b) दक्षिण–पूरब
(c) उत्तर–पश्चिम
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

2. अनु प्रारंभ में 20 मीटर उत्तर जाती है । फिर 30 मीटर पूरब फिर 10 मीटर दक्षिण, फिर 40 मीटर पश्चिम जा कर रुक जाती है । अब, वह प्रारंभिक स्थान के मुकाबले किस दिशा में है ?

(a) उत्तर–पूरब
(b) उत्तर–पश्चिम
(c) पश्चिम
(d) उत्तर

3. रमेश पूरब दिशा की ओर 5 किलोमीटर चला, फिर वह दाहिने मुड़कर 8 किलोमीटर चला फिर वह बायीं ओर मुड़कर 5 किलोमीटर चला । अंत में बायीं ओर मुड़ा और 3 किलोमीटर चला । अब वह अपने प्रारंभिक स्थान से कितनी दूरी पर है ?

(a) 26 किलोमीटर
(b) 12 किलोमीटर
(c) 10 किलोमीटर
(d) 6 किलोमीटर

4. मैं 5 किलोमीटर पूरब दिशा की ओर चलने के पश्चात् बायीं ओर मुड़कर 3 किलोमीटर चलता हूँ फिर बायीं ओर मुड़कर 3 किलोमीटर चलने के पश्चात् अंत में फिर से बायीं ओर मुड़कर 3 किलोमीटर चलता हूँ । मैं अपने शुरू के स्थान से कितनी दूरी पर खड़ा हूँ ?

(a) 10 किमी
(b) 14 किमी
(c) 9 किमी
(d) 2 किमी

5. एक दिन जॉन अपने घर से 10 किमी दक्षिण की ओर मुड़कर गया फिर दाएँ 5 किमी गया और दाएँ मुड़कर 10 किमी गया और फिर बाएँ मुड़कर 10 किमी गया । अब, उसे घर  पहुँचने के लिए कितनी किमी साइकिल चलानी होगी ?

(a) 10 किमी
(b) 15 किमी
(c) 25 किमी
(d) 20 किमी

आरबी जूनियर इंजीनियर (JE) परीक्षा (चरण -1) के लिए अध्ययन किट

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b)

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