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RRB Chandigarh NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification

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RRB Chandigarh NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, CHANDIGARH

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No.03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway
Recruitment Board, Chandigarh against CEN-03/2015, the following 381 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Sr.Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6) and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7): Total 381 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Chandigarh

RRB Bhopal NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Bhopal NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, BHOPAL

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway
Recruitment Board, Bhopal against CEN-03/2015, the following 1389 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum Typist (Cat. No.5), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6)
and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7): Total 1389 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Bhopal

RRB Ajme NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Ajme NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, AJMER

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway Recruitment Board, Ajmer against CEN-03/2015, the following 1587 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6) and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7) : Total 1587 Candidates

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Ajme

RRB Malda NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Malda NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, MALDA

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway Recruitment Board, Malda against CEN-03/2015, the following 392 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following
schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum Typist (Cat. No.5), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6) and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7), Total 392 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Malda

RRB Bilaspur NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Bilaspur NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, BILASPUR

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway
Recruitment Board, Bilaspur against CEN-03/2015, the following 279 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following
schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum Typist (Cat. No.5), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6)
and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7). Total 279 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Bilaspur

RRB Allahabad NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Allahabad NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, ALLAHABAD

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

OPPOSITE NORTH CENTRAL RAILWAY HQ OFFICE, Near Subedarganj Railway Hospital, SUBEDARGANJ, ALLAHABAD, U.P.211011

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC (Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway
Recruitment Board, Allahabad against CEN-03/2015, the following 3059 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), ECRC (Cat. No. 3) Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Jr. Accounts Assistantcum Typist (Cat. No.5), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6) and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7): Total 3059 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Allahabad

RRB Thiruvananthapuram NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Thiruvananthapuram NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, THIRUVANANTHAPURAM

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document
verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway Recruitment Board, Thiruvananthapuram against CEN-03/2015, the following 632 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per
the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally.( not in merit order)

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum Typist (Cat. No.5), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6) and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7).

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Thiruvananthapuram

RRB Siliguri NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Siliguri NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, SILIGURI

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT (in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test) for Document Verification for various NTPC (Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on their performance in the 2nd Stage common CBT conducted from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway Recruitment Board, Siliguri against CEN- 03/2015, the following 413 (four hundred & thirteen) candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear for verification of their documents and genuineness of candidature as per the following schedule: (Roll numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally & not in order of merit.)

COMBINED SHORTLIST FOR THE POSTS OF TRAFFIC APPRENTICE (CAT. No. 2), ENQUIRY-CUMRESERVATION CLERK (CAT No. 3), GOODS GUARD (CAT. No. 4), SR. CLERK-CUM-TYPIST (CAT. No. 6) & ASSISTANT STATION MASTER (CAT. No. 7)

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Courtesy: RRB Siliguri

RRB Patna NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Patna NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, PATNA

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC (Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway Recruitment Board, Patna against CEN-03/2015, the following 665 Candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have
been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7) : Total 665 Candidates

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Patna

RRB Muzaffarpur NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Muzaffarpur NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, MUZAFFARPUR

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway Recruitment Board, Muzaffarpur
against CEN-03/2015, the following 457 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Goods Guard (Cat. No.4) and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7) : Total 457 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Muzaffarpur

RRB Gorakhpur NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Gorakhpur NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, GORAKHPUR

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 & 18.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 by Railway
Recruitment Board, Gorakhpur against CEN-03/2015, the following 275 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following
schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum Typist (Cat. No.5), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6): Total 275

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Gorakhpur

RRB Chennai NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Chennai NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, CHENNAI

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 18.01.2017 & 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway
Recruitment Board, Chennai against CEN-03/2015, the following 960 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following
schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum Typist (Cat. No.5), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6)
and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7) : Total 960 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Chennai

RRB Jammu NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Jammu NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, JAMMU SRINAGAR

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway Recruitment Board, J-S, Jammu against CEN-03/2015, the following 244 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), ECRC (Cat. No. 3) Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum Typist (Cat. No.5), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6) and Assistant
Station Master (Cat. No.7) Total 244 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Jammu

RRB Bhubaneswar NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Bhubaneswar NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, BHUBANESWAR

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway Recruitment Board, Bhubaneswar against CEN-03/2015, the following 1095 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum Typist (Cat. No.5), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6)
and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7): Total 1095 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Bhubaneswar

RRB Bangalore NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Bangalore NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, BANGALORE

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Typing Skill Test & Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, Typing Skill Test on 29.06.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway Recruitment Board, Bangalore against CEN-03/2015, the following 805 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4), Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum Typist (Cat. No.5), Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat. No.6) and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7): ): Total 805 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Bangalore

RRB Ahmedabd NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


RRB Ahmedabad NTPC Tier-2 Exam Result for Document Verification


Exam Name: RRB NTPC Exam

Notice No: CEN-03/2015

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD, AHMEDABAD

GOVT. OF INDIA (MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS)

Result of 2nd Stage CBT in conjunction with Aptitude Test for document verification for various NTPC(Graduate) posts against CEN No. 03/2015

Based on the performance of the candidates in 2nd Stage common CBT conducted during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017 and Aptitude Test on 30.06.2017 by Railway Recruitment Board, Ahmedabad against CEN-03/2015, the following 1261 candidates have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in verification of documents and genuineness of their candidature as per the following schedule. Their Roll Numbers have been arranged below in ascending order horizontally (not in merit order).

Combined shortlist against the posts of Commercial Apprentice (Cat. No.1), Traffic Apprentice (Cat. No.2), Goods Guard (Cat. No.4) and Assistant Station Master (Cat. No.7): Total 1261 Candidates.

Click Here For Full Result

Courtesy: RRB Ahmedabad

Sample Paper for RRB Exams (General Knowledge: Test-4)

Sample Paper for RRB Exams

Subject : General Knowledge (Test-4)

1. With which of the following area Anjolie Ela Mennon is related?

(A) Painting
(B) Music
(C) Drama
(D) Social Service
(E) None of these

2. With which of the following sport Vichung Bhutia is related?

(A) Volleyball
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Tennis
(E) None of these

3. At which of the following place the Ministerial Conference of W.T.O. was organized recently?

(A) Colombo
(B) Bali
(C) Kathmandu
(D) New Delhi
(E) None of these

4. Who among the following was the leader of rebellious soldiers at Delhi during the Revolt of 1857 ?

(A) Maulavi Ahmadullah
(B) Bahadur Khan
(C) Kunwar Singh
(D) Bakht Khan
(E) None of these

5. Who was the first leader to organize Labour Movement in India?

(A) B.P. Wadia
(B) Lala Lajpat Rai
(C) N.M. Lokhande
(D) N.G. Ranga
(E) None of the above

6. Which of the following bays separates India from Sri Lanka?

(A) Bay of Mannar
(B) Bay of Maldives
(C) Bay of Ponnar
(D) Bay of Jaffna
(E) None of these

7. On which of the following rivers the Nizamsagar project is located in Andhra Pradesh?

(A) Godavari
(B) Krishna
(C) Tungabhadra
(D) Periyar
(E) Manjara

8. In which of the following Indian States the Bandipur National Park exists?

(A) Gujarat
(B) Kama taka
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
(E) None of these

9. Which of the following institution has celebrated its Diamond Jubilee recently?

(A) U.G.C.
(B) A.I.C.T.E.
(C) R.B.I.
(D) C.E.R.C
(E) None of these

10. Who of the following was the First Woman Central Minister?

(A) Shanta Rangaswamy
(B) V.S. Ramadevi
(C) Sucheta Kriplani
(D) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(E) None of these

NEW RRB LOCO PILOT (ALP) Exam Online Tests Series

11. Where is India’s First Mobile Police Station ‘is located?

(A) Sitapur
(B) Thane
(C) Hoshiarpur
(D) Bhuj
(E) None of these

12. At which of the following place Woodstock International School exists?

(A) Mussoorie
(B) Dehradun
(C) Shimla
(D) Darjiling
(E) None of these

13. To which of the following State the folk-dance ‘Yakshagaan’ is related?

(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu
(E) None of these

14. Which is not included in scope of Public Administration with ‘3M’ idea?

(A) Money
(B) Material
(C) Man
(D) Method
(E) None of the above

15. Which is included as a subject matter in Public Administration?

(A) Social Relevance/Realism
(B) Comprehensiveness
(C) Sensitivity of Policy
(D) All the above
(E) None of the above

16. Which country introduced "Performance Budget" in Municipal Administration ?

(A) France
(B) India
(C) Britain
(D) America
(E) China

17. Who appoints the Chief Secretary of State?

(A) Governor
(B) President
(C) Chief Minister
(D) Home Minister
(E) None of the above

18. Which Article of the Indian Constitution explains the functions of Chief Minister?

(A) Article - 164
(B) Article - 153
(C) Article -167
(D) Article - 157
(E) None of the above

19. How many members were there in the Constituent Assembly according to the Cabinet Mission?

(A) 385
(B) 409
(C) 429
(D) 505
(E) 535

20. Who has the power to introduce an ordinance according to Indian Constitution?

(A) The President
(B) The Governor
(C) Supreme Court
(D) President and Governor Both
(E) None of the above

21. Who approves the Finance Bill in the Centre?

(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(E) None of the above

22. Children of which age group are to be provided free and compulsory education by the state according to the provision of the Constitution?

(A) 3-9 years
(B) 6-14 years
(C) 6-18 years
(D) 5-16 years
(E) None of the above

23. Which of the following states is called so because of the increasing importance of Public Administration in the working of these states?

(A) Democratic State
(B) Administrative State
(C) Laissez-faire State
(D) Popular State
(E) None of the above

24. A computer can only understand which language?

(A) Assembly language
(B) Machine language
(C) High level language
(D) C-language
(E) None of these

25. One Megabyte is equal to–

(A) 1024 bytes
(B) 1024 Kilobyte
(C) 1024 Gigabyte
(D) 1024 Terabyte
(E) None of these

26. The sum of average latency and seek time is known as–

(A) Average Hold time
(B) Average Delay time
(C) Average Access time
(D) Average Transfer time
(E) None of these

27. Which is not input device?

(A) Keyboard
(B) Light Pen
(C) Mouse
(D) Bar Code Reader
(E) None of these

28. Which is the extension of MS-Excel file?

(A) .xls
(B) .doc
(C) .bmp
(D) .jpg
(E) None of these

29. Which of the following constitute a food chain ?

(A) Grass, wheat and mango
(B) Grass, goat and human
(C) Goat, cow and elephant
(D) Grass, fish and goat
(E) None of these

30. Which of the following is not an example of a bio-mass energy source?

(A) Wood
(B) Gobar-gas
(C) Nuclear energy
(D) Coal
(E) None of these

31. The device used for producing electric current is called a–

(A) Generator
(B) Galvanometer
(C) Ammeter
(D) Motor
(E) None of these

32. Which of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system in human beings?

(A) Ovary
(B) Uterus
(C) Vas deferens
(D) Fallopian tube
(E) None of these

33. The xylem in plants are responsible for–

(A) Transport of water
(B) Transport of food
(C) Transport of amino acids
(D) Transport of oxygen
(E) None of these

34. Kings of ten tribes fought the ‘Dashraj War’ in the Vedic Age against whom of the following?

(A) Raidasa
(B) Sudasa
(C) Somadasa
(D) Vipradasa
(E) None of these

35. Which of the following Mauryan Kings was the follower of Ajivika Sect?

(A) Chandragupta
(B) Bindusara
(C) Ashoka
(D) Dasharath
(E) None of these

36. Who among the following rulers of Mewar accepted Mughal suzerainty?

(A) Rana Udaysingh
(B) Rana Pratapsingh
(C) Rana Amarsingh
(D) Rana Karansingh
(E) None of these

37. By which of the following treaties, the Third Anglo-Mysore War was ended in 1792 A. D. ?

(A) Treaty of Srirangapattanam
(B) Treaty of Madras
(C) Treaty of Mangalore
(D) Treaty of Mysore (E) None of these

38. Who among the following was the pioneer of widow-remarriage movement in Bengal in the 19th century?

(A) Raja Rammohan Roy
(B) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar
(C) Keshabchandra Sen
(D) Debendranath Tagore
(E) None of these

39. Which of the following is the oldest oil refining in India?

(A) Digboi
(B) Barauni
(C) Vishakhapatnam
(D) Noonmati
(E) None of the above

40. Which mineral is Malajkhand known for?

(A) Gold
(B) Mica
(C) Silver
(D) Lead
(E) None of these

Answer key

1A 6A 11C 16D 21D 26C 31A 36C
2B 7E 12A 17C 22B 27E 32C 37A
3B 8B 13B 18C 23B 28A 33A 38B
4D 9A 14D 19A 24B 29B 34B 39A
5C 10D 15D 20D 25B 30C 35B 40E

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NEW RRB LOCO PILOT (ALP) Exam Online Tests Series

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(Model Paper) RRB Assistant Loco Pilot and Technician Exam

(Model Paper) RRB - Assistant Loco Pilot and Technician Exam

                                                                                           General knowledge, Reasoning, Arithmetic


1. A lunar eclipse occurs when?
a. The moon comes between the sun and the earth.
b. The earth comes between the Sun and the moon.
c. The Sun comes between the earth and the moon.
d. None.
2. Who introduced famous 20 point input-output programme?
a. Rajiv Gandhi b. Indira Gandhi
c. P.V.Narasimha Rao d. None
3. The Nanvakkal is famous in?
a. Sericulture b. Piggory
c. Poultry d. None
4. How many bones are in the adult human skeleton?
a. 205 b. 206 c. 207 d. 212
5. The Agricultural University is it?
a. Coimbatore b. Salem c. Sivaganga d. None
6. In Tamil Nadu Bird Sanctuary is situated at?
a. Mudumalai b. Vedanthangal
c. Mundanthurai d. None
7. The famous lion reserve is situated at?
a. Gir sanctuary b. Hazaribagh Park
c. Corbett Park d. None
8. Who out of the following had abolished Zajiya on Hindus?
a. Aurangzeb b. Jahangir c. Shah Jahan d. Akbar
9. Sound cannot travel through?
a. Vacuum b. Hydrogen gas c. Water d. Steel
10. Which planet is the nearest to the Sun?
a. Earth b. Venus c. Pluto d. Mercury
11. Which of the following diseases is caused by virus?
a. Pellagra b. Small-pox c. Filariasis d. None
12. The density of water is higher at?
a. 4° C b. 0°C c. -4°C d. -273°C
13. Which one of the following regulates & co-ordinates the group
movement of skeletal muscles?
a. Cerebrum b. Cerebellum c. Spinal cord d. Medulla
14. Chemical equations can be written on the basis of
a. Law of constant proportion b. Law of multiple proportions
c. Law of reciprocal proportion d. None
15. Trimuthis festival is annually held at
a. Tanjore b. Tirurayar
c. Tiruavares d. Kumbakonam

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RRB Ranchi : Assistant Loco Pilot Previous Paper (Based on Memory)

RRB Ranchi Assistant Loco Pilot Previous Paper (Based on Memory)

1. What is the value of knee voltage of silicon diode?
1) 0.3 V 2) 0.33 V 3) 0.7 V 4) 1.1 V
2. Which organisation has proposed first to constitute the Constitution Assembly to form the Indian Constitution?
1) Swaraj Party in 1928 2) Indian National Congress in 1936
3) Muslim League in 1942 4) By all parties convention in 1946
3. There is 20 volt across the inductor and 15 volt across the resistance in the a.c. supplied series R-L circuit. What would be the supply voltage?
1) 20 volt 2) 15 volt 3) 25 volt 4) 17.5 volt
4. A transformer mainly transforms .....
1) Current 2) Voltage 3) Frequency 4) Power
5. What is the power factor of a pure resistor circuit?
1) One 2) Zero 3) Leading 4) Lagging
6. Functions of N.S.D.L. are related to-
1) Bearer bonds 2) GDRs 3) Electronic share 4) Debenture
7. There are rings around which of the following planets?
1) Uranus 2) mars 3) Jupiter 4) Saturn
8. ..... is used to heat the non-conductors.
1) Eddy current heating 2) Arc heating
3) Induction heating 4) Dielectric heating
9. What is the S.I. Unit of magnetic flux density?
1) Gauss 2) Tesla 3) Oersted 4) Weber

10. Which type of oscillator is most stable in simple circuit?
1) Crystalline oscillator 2) Clapp oscillator
3) Colpitts oscillator 4) Armstrong oscillator
11. Where is the headquarters of Geological Survey of India located?
1) Patna 2) Dehradun 3) Kolkata 4) Agra
12. What is the proper use of signal generator?
1) Designing 2) Testing 3) Repairing 4) All the above
13. Nasik is situated on the bank of which river?
a) Godavari 2) Narmada 3) Tapti 4) Shipra
14. Who started the Shaka era?
1) Ashoka 2) Chandragupta-II
3) Kanishka 4) Harsha
15. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for that cylinder the ......
1) exhaust till be smoky
2) piston rings would stick into piston grooves
3) scavenging occurs
4) engine starts overheating
16. The information is sent by CW transmitter by-
1) Changing the audio frequency 2) Interrupting radio signal
3) Using microphone 4) Using camera
17. Moisture can be removed from lubricating oil using .................
1) Tubular centrifugal 2) Clarifier
3) Sparkler filter 4) Vacuum leaf filter

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RRB Kolkata : Assistant Loco Pilot Previous Paper (Based on Memory)

RRB Kolkata Assistant Loco Pilot Previous Paper (Based on Memory)

1.       Manometer is used to measure-

1) Pressure           2) Gravity            3) Humidity          4) Volume

2.       Calorie is the unit of-

1) Temperature     2) Heat                 3) Power               4) Energy

3.       A stratight rod partially immersed in water seems bent. Its reason is-

1) Refraction

2) Reflection

3) Different temperature of water levels

4) High pressure of water at the bottom

4.       Which law states that a liquid inside a closed system exerts equal pressure in all directions?

1) Boyle’s law                                   2) Pascal’s law

3) Graham’s law                               4) Gay - Lussac’s law

5.       An electro-magnet is made of-

1) Soft iron           2) Copper             3) Hard Steel        4) Zinc

6.        Only two elements are in liquid state at room temperature. They are

1) Bromine, Iodine                            2) Hafnium, Mercury

3) Bromine, Mercury                         4) None of these

7.       A stone was dropped freely in a river flowing down a bridge. The stone takes 2 seconds in touching the water surface. The height of the bridge is-

1) 9.8 m                2) 19.6 m              3) 39.2 m              4) Data inadequate

8.       1 micron is equal to-

1) 0.1 mm   2) 0.01 mm 3) 0.001 mm         4) 0.0001 mm

9.       The most abundant gas found in earth’s atmosphere is-

1) Oxygen                                         2) Carbon dioxide

3) Hydrogen                                      4) None of these

10.     The Chemical formula of Caustic Soda is-

1) Na(OH)2             2) Na2CO3               3) NaOH               4) NaCl

11.     Air cooler will be most effective in-

1) Kolkata            2) Guwahati         3) Puri                  4) New Delhi

12.     A certain distance was covered at a certain speed. If half of the distance is covered in twice time, the ratio between new speed and original speed is-

1) 1 : 2                  2) 1 : 4                  3) 2 : 1                  4) 4 : 1

13.     The number of electrons in Na+ is-

1) 11                     2) 10                     3) 12                     4) 13

14.     The most electro negative element in the following is-

1) F                       2) Cl                     3) Br                     4) I

15.     Rh factor is related to-

1) Blood Transfusion                        2) Atmospheric Pressure

3) Blood Pressure                              4) Space

16.     A force of 50N acts on a body and moves the body on a straight path to a distance of 4 metres. Find the work done if the force acts at an angle of 60 with horizontal.

1) 100J                 2) 300J                 3) 10J                   4) 200J

17.     The length of pendulum is reduced to one fourth. Its time period will be-

1) Twice                2) Eight times       3) Half                  4) None of these

18.     An element which changes the rate of a chemical reaction but does not undergo any change in itself, is called-

1) Electrolyte        2) Catalyst           3) Lubricant         4) Litmus

19.     At constant temperature the volume of a given mass of a gas is inversely proportional to the pressure. It is known as-

1) Charles’ Law                                 2) Boyle’s Law

3) Avogadro’s Law                            4) Dalton’s Law

20.     The resistance of an electric circuit/ implement is measured by-

1) Meggar             2) Ammeter          3) Ohm-meter       4) None of these

 

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EASTERN RAILWAY RECRUITMENT FOR THE POST IN GROUP-‘C’ CATEGORY AGAINST CULTURAL QUOTA


(Notice) RECRUITMENT AGAINST CULTURAL QUOTA FOR THE YEAR 2017-18
OFFICE OF THE CHIEF PERSONNEL OFFICER


Notice:

Employment Notice No.1/2017-18/CQ/ER

Applications, on plain paper (A4 size) in the given format neatly typed either in English or Hindi are invited from the eligible candidates for filling up the vacancies against Cultural Quota of Eastern Railway for the year 2017-18 for two (02) posts in Group ‘C’ category. The candidates having no Cultural Qualifications need not apply.

Post Details:

Post Scale Discipline No of Post ESSENTIAL CONDITION (Minimum Educational Qualification & Cultural Qualification)
Group 'C' (in suitable post) Rs.5,200 - 20,200/- + GP Rs 1,900/- in PB-I

[Corresponding to Level-2 in Pay Matrix of 7th CPC]

1. Classical Dance (Bharat Natyam)

2. Instrumental Music- Guitar

01

01

1 .Passed 12th or its equivalent examination with not less that 50% marks in the aggregate. (Not applicable for SC/ST candidates and for the candidates of any category possessing higher qualification).

2 Degree/Diploma Certificate in respective discipline only from Govt. Recognised University/ Institute

Age Limit: (AGE AS ON 01.01.2018)

Category of Post UR OBC SC / ST Serving Rly. Employee, Ex-Servicemen, PWD/ Widow/ Divorced women/ women judicially separated but not re-married.
Group ‘C’ 18 Yrs. to 28 Yrs. Relaxation up to 3 yrs. (in upper age) Relaxation up to 5 yrs. (in upper age) As per following criteria (2.1 to 2.4 )

Selection Process:

A WRITTEN TEST

(The written test will consist of objective type question)                                                                      50 marks

B ASSESSMENT OF TALENT IN THE RELEVANT FIELD

i) The basis of Practical Demonstration                                                                                               35 marks

ii) Testimonials/Prizes etc.                                                                                                                   15 marks

                                                                                                                                            TOTAL 100 marks

EXAMINATION FEES:

For all candidates except those mentioned in sub-para (5.2) below Rs. 500/- (Rupees five Hundred) only. This Examination Fee is not refundable/transferable/adjustable under any circumstances. 5.2

For candidates belonging to SC, ST, Ex-servicemen, PWD, Women, Minorities and Economically Backward Classes Rs. 250/- (Rupees two hundred Fifty) only with a provision for refunding the same to those who actually appear in the written examination.

Importants Date:

Closing Date and Time for receipt of applications: 07.08.2017 upto17.30 hrs.

23.08.2017 up to 17.30 hrs.

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(Paper) R.R.B. Bhubaneshwar : A.S.M Exam., 2009 Solved Paper (Held on 30-8-2009)

Railway Recruitment Board

R.R.B. Bhubaneshwar (A.S.M) Exam., 2009 : Solved Paper (Held on 30-8-2009)

1. Where is the Punjab Lalit Kala Academy located ?

(A) Muktasar
(B) Ludhiana
(C) Patiala
(D) Chandigarh

Ans : (D)

2. What does happens when water is condensed into ice ?

(A) Heat is absorbed
B) Heat is released
(C) Quantity of heat remains unchanged
(D) None of these

Ans : (A)

3. Which of the following gases is not a noble gas ?

(A) Zenon
(B) Argon
(C) Helium
(D) Chlorine

Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following diffuses most quickly ?

(A) Solid
(B) Gas
(C) Liquid
(D) None of these

Ans : (B)

5. Which temperature in Celsius scale is equal to 300 K ?

(A) 30°C
(B) 27°C
(C) 300°C
(D) None of these

Ans : (B)

6. First Youth Olympic games will be held in—

(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) North Korea
(D) Singapore

Ans : (D)

7. Where was the capital of Pandya dynasty situated ?

(A) Mysore
(B) Kanchipuram
(C) Madurai
(D) Delhi

Ans : (C)

8. Tripitik is the scripture of—

(A) Jain religion
(B) Hindu religion
(C) Buddhishtha religion
(D) Muslim religion

Ans : (C)

9. Who is the author of ‘Adhe-Adhure’ ?

(A) Mohan Rakesh
(B) Prem Chand
(C) Nirala
(D) Pant

Ans : (A)

10. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments has included fundamental duties into the Constitution ?

(A) 42nd
(B) 43rd
(C) 44th
(D) 39th

Ans : (A)

11. Where is the Central Food Technology Research Institute situated ?

(A) Delhi
(B) Anand
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Mysore

Ans : (D)

12. Which of the following is common in both, Buddhism and Jainism ?

(A) Nonviolence
(B) Violence
(C) Triratna
(D) Truth

Ans : (A)

13. Light-year measures which of the following ?

(A) Intensity of light
(B) Mass
(C) Time
(D) Distance

Ans : (D)

14. Which of the following gases is used for ripening the fruits ?

(A) Methane
(B) Ethane
(C) Ethylene
(D) Acetylene

Ans : (C)

15. Who among the following was involved in Alipore bomb case ?

(A) Aravind Ghosh
(B) P. C. Banerjee
(C) Bipin Chandra Paul
(D) Chandrashekhar Azad

Ans : (A)

16. Sikh Guru Arjundev was contemporary to which of the following rulers ?

(A) Humayun
(B) Akbar
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Jahangir

Ans : (D)

17. Besides hydrogen, which of the following elements is common in organic compounds ?

(A) Phosphorus
(B) Sulphur
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Carbon

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 18–21) Find the correct meanings of the words given below : 18. EWE

(A) Calf
(B) Female sheep
(C) Deer
(D) None of these

Ans : (B)

19. Buffalo

(A) Calf
(B) Baby box
(C) Baby bison
(D) Baby cow

Ans : (C)

20. Veneration—

(A) Esteem
(B) High respect
(C) Devotion
(D) Worship

Ans : (B)

RRB Loco Pilot (ALP) Exam 2019 Printed Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड लोको पायलट परीक्षा (Stage-1) अध्ययन सामग्र

21. Vicious—

(A) Remorseless
(B) Ferocious
(C) Kind
(D) Wicked

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 22–25) Choose the word / phrase which is nearest in meaning to the words in question : 22. Bizarre

(A) Colourful
(B) Odd
(C) Insipid
(D) Smart

Ans : (B)

23. Innuendo

(A) Narration
(B) Insinuation
(C) Insist
(D) Insutale

Ans : (B)

24. Salutary

(A) Welcome
(B) Discharge
(C) Promoting
(D) Remove

Ans : (C)

25. Fictile

(A) Fiction
(B) Moulded
(C) Fictitious
(D) Smooth

Ans : (B)

26. Solid Carbon dioxide is termed as—

(A) Soft ice
(B) Dry ice
(C) White ice
(D) None of these

Ans : (B)

27. 1 kg of a liquid is converted into its vapour at its boiling point. The heat absorbed in the process is called—

(A) Latent heat of vaporisation
(B) Latent heat of fusion
(C) Latent heat of sublimation
(D) None of these

Ans : (A)

28. Whether all the universities in the country should start online admission at all levels with immediate effect ?
  1. No, since all the students may not have access to the internet easily.
  2. Yes, it may liberate the students and their parents from the long-standing problems of knocking at the doors of different colleges and standing in queue.

(A) Only argument (i) is correct
(B) Only argument (ii) is correct
(C) Neither argument (i) nor argument (ii) is correct
(D) Both the arguments, (i) and (ii), are correct

Ans : (D)

29. The product ‘Fair and Lovely’ is related to—

(A) WIPRO
(B) I.T.C.
(C) P & G
(D) H.U.L.

Ans : (D)

30. Should the Government make it compulsory for the private medical colleges to join the entrance test conducted by the Government ?
  1. No, private institutions should be empowered, so that they may decide their own admission strategy and improve their work-management.
  2. Yes, all medical institutions, whether these are private or government’s, should adopt the same entrance standard.

(A) Only argument (i) is correct
(B) Only argument (ii) is correct
(C) Either argument (i) is correct or argument (ii) is correct
(D) Neither argument (i) is correct nor argument (ii) is correct

Ans : (B)

31. In case the President of India decides to resign, he will address his letter of resignation to—

(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Justice
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Vice-President

Ans : (D)

32. The metal extracted from Bauxite is—

(A) Silver
(B) Copper
(C) Manganese
(D) Aluminium

Ans : (D)

33. The Cyclone represents a state of atmosphere in which—

(A) Low pressure in the center and high pressure around
(B) There is high pressure in the center and low pressure around
(C) There is low pressure all around
(D) None of these

Ans : (A)

34. The ‘Ocean of Storms’ is the name given to—

(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) A waterless area on moon surface
(D) None of these

Ans : (C)

35. The capital of Pallavas was—

(A) Arcot
(B) Kanchi
(C) Malkhed
(D) Banavasi

Ans : (B)

36. Which Indian state was ranked as the No. 2 tourist destination in the world by LONELY PLANET?

(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Kerala
(D) Uttarakhand

Ans : (C)

37. How much water is contained in our body by mass ?

(A) 65%
(B) 70%
(C) 60%
(D) None of these

Ans : (B)

38. What determines the sex of a child ?

(A) Chromosomes of the father
(B) Chromosomes of the mother
(C) RH factor of the parents
(D) Blood group of the father

Ans : (A)

39. The two civilizations which helped in the formation of Gandhara School of Art are—

(A) Indian and Roman
(B) Indian and Egyptian
(C) Greek and Roman
(D) Indian and Greek

Ans : (D)

40. ‘Thinkpad’ is a laptop associated with which among the following companies ?

(A) HP
(B) TCS
(C) Infosys
(D) IBM

Ans : (D)

41. The first summit of SAARC was held at—

(A) Kathmandu
(B) Colombo
(C) New Delhi
(D) Dhaka

Ans : (D)

42. The wire of flash bulb is made of—

(A) Copper
(B) Barium
(C) Magnesium
(D) Silver

Ans : (C)

43. The curves showing the volume pressure behaviour of gases plotted at different fixed temperatures are called—

(A) Isochors
(B) Isothermals
(C) V.T.P. Curves
(D) Isocurves

Ans : (B)

44. Project Tiger was launched in—

(A) 1973
(B) 1976
(C) 1978
(D) 1983

Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 45 and 46) Attempt the question to the best of your judgement. 45. How many letters in the word TRYST have as many letters between them as in the alpha bet ?

(A) None
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

Ans : (B)

46. From the alternatives, select the set which is most like the given set. Given set (23, 29, 31)—

(A) (17, 21, 29)
(B) (31, 37, 49)
(C) (13, 15, 23)
(D) (41, 43, 47)

Ans : (D)

Directions—What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series ? 47. 13 13 65 585 7605 129285 …?…

(A) 2456415
(B) 2235675
(C) 2980565
(D) 2714985

Ans : (D)

48. If ‘VEHEMENT’ is written as ‘VEHETNEM’ then in that code how will you code ‘MOURNFUL’ ?

(A) MOURLUFN
(B) MOUNULFR
(C) OURMNFUL
(D) URNFULMO

Ans : (A)

49. MOLLIFY is to APPEASE as APPURTENANCE is to ?

(A) Gratify
(B) Avarice
(C) Accessory
(D) Amend

Ans : (C)

50. Praduman is older than Janaki; Shreshtha is older than Chhama; Ravindra is not as old as Shreshtha but is older than Janaki. Chhama is not as old as Janaki. Who is the youngest ?

(A) Praduman
(B) Janaki
(C) Shreshtha
(D) Chhama

Ans : (D)

51. In a row of children facing North, Bharat is eleventh from the right end and is third to the right of Samir who is fifteenth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row ?

(A) 29
(B) 28
(C) 30
(D) 27

Ans : (B)

52. Which number is missing ?
45389, ?, 453, 34

(A) 34780
(B) 8354
(C) 4892
(D) 3478

Ans : (B)

53. If in the word CALIBRE, the previous letter in the English alphabet replaces each consonant and each vowel is replaced by the next letter and then the order of letters is reversed, which letter will be third from the right end ?

(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(D) K

Ans : (D)

54. How many such digits are there in the number 57683421, each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number, as they will be when arranged in descending order within the number ?

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) More than three

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 55 to 57) In the following question there are two words to the left of the sign (::) which are connected in some way. The same relationship obtains between the third word and one of the four alter-natives under it. Find the correct alternative in each case. 55. Medicine : Sickness : : Book : ?

(A) Ignorance
(B) Knowledge
(C) Author
(D) Teacher

Ans : (A)

56. River : Dam : : Traffic : ?

(A) Signal
(B) Vehicle
(C) Motion
(D) Lane

Ans : (A)

57. Session : Concludes : : ? : Lapses

(A) Leave
(B) Permit
(C) Agency
(D) Policy

Ans : (D)

58. If 16 = 11, 25 = 12, 36 = 15, then 49 = ?

(A) 14
(B) 20
(C) 19
(D) 17

Ans : (B)

59. Pick out the odd in the following—

(A) Ashok—Assam
(B) Poonam—Punjab
(C) Gyanendra—Gujarat
(D) Anjana—Rajasthan

Ans : (D)

60. KEATS = 25, SHELLEY = 35, BROWNING = ?

(A) 45
(B) 37
(C) 50
(D) 40

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 61 and 62) What approximate value should come in place of question-mark (?) in the following questions ?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value)
61. (9321 + 5406 + 1001) ÷ (498 + 929 + 660) = ?

(A) 13•5
(B) 4•5
(C) 16•5
(D) 7•5

Ans : (D)

62. 561204 ×58 = ? ×55555

(A) 606
(B) 646
(C) 586
(D) 716

Ans : (C)

63. The difference between the greatest number and the smallest number of 5 digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 using all but once is—

(A) 32976
(B) 32679
(C) 32769
(D) None of these

Ans : (A)

64. Area of a parallelogram whose base is 9 cm and height 4 cm is ……… sq cm.

(A) 9
(B) 4
(C) 36
(D) 13

Ans : (C)

65. The number which is neither prime nor composite is—

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 2

Ans : (B)

66. The length of a room is three times its breadth. If the perimeter of the room is 64 cm, then its breadth is ……… cm.

(A) 64
(B) 32
(C) 16
(D) 8

Ans : (D)

67. Aditi read 4/5th of Tintin comic book which has 100 pages. How many pages of the book is not yet read by Aditi ?

(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 80
(D) 20

Ans : (D)

68. What is the meaning of beckoned ?

(A) Summon by sign or gesture
(B) Did not signal
(C) Did not call
(D) Invite

Ans : (A)

69. A box contains coins (equal no. of every one) of rupee and half rupee, coins of 25 paise, 10 paise, 5 paise value, 2 paise value and one paise value. The total value of coins in the box is Rs. 1158. Find the number of coins of each value.

(A) 500
(B) 400
(C) 700
(D) 600

Ans : (D)

70. The area of a rhombus with diagonals 12 cm and 20 cm is ……… sq cm.

(A) 120
(B) 12
(C) 20
(D) 240

Ans : (A)

71. A piece of road is one kilometer in length. We have to supply lamp posts. One post at each end, distance between two consecutive lamp posts is 25 metres. The number of lamp posts required is—

(A) 41
(B) 51
(C) 61
(D) 42

Ans : (A)

72. There are 800 students in a class. On one particular day, if 1/10th of the students were absent, how many students were present ?

(A) 700
(B) 650
(C) 720
(D) 750

Ans : (C)

73. The quotient in a division is 403. The divisor is 100 and the remainder is 58, the dividend is—

(A) 40458
(B) 34058
(C) 43058
(D) 40358

Ans : (D)

74. A labourer was engaged for 25 days on the condition that for every day, he works, he will be paid Rs. 2 and for every day, he is absent he will be fined 50p. If he receives only Rs. 37•50, find the no. of days he was absent—

(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 4

Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 75 to 77) Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite in meaning to the word ? 75. Quixotic

(A) Visionary
(B) Whimsical
(C) Realistic
(D) Foolish

Ans : (C)

76. Rabid

(A) Mad
(B) Normal
(C) Furious
(D) Fanatical

Ans : (B)

77. Scurrilous

(A) Inoffensive
(B) Vulgar
(C) Insulting
(D) Coarse

Ans : (A)

78. Digits of first place and third place are interchanged of the numbers 349, 483, 766, 598, 674 and then the new numbers are arranged in ascending order. Which would be the fourth number ?

(A) 483
(B) 766
(C) 674
(D) 598

Ans : (D)

79. What least number should be added to 2600 to make it a complete square ?

(A) 3
(B) 9
(C) 1
(D) 25

Ans : (C)

80. When sun-light passes through a glass prism, which of the following colours refracts the most ?

(A) Blue
(B) Red
(C) Orange
(D) Green

Ans : (A)

81. If (78)2 is subtracted from the square of a number, we get 6460. What is that number ?

(A) 109
(B) 112
(C) 111
(D) 115

Ans : (B)

82. The difference between 28% and 42% of a number is 210. What is 59% of this number ?

(A) 900
(B) 420
(C) 885
(D) None of these

Ans : (C)

83. A–B means A is the father of B. A + B means A is the daughter of B. A ÷ B means A is the son of B. A ×B means A is the wife of B. Then, what is the relation of P with T in the expression P + S – T ?

(A) Son
(B) Daughter
(C) Sister
(D) Wife

Ans : (C)

84. Ellora caves in Maharashtra were built during the rule of which of the following dynasties ?

(A) Rashtrakoot
(B) Pallav
(C) Pala
(D) Chola

Ans : (A)

85. But for the Surgeon’s skill, the patient ……… died.

(A) may have
(B) must have
(C) should have
(D) would have

Ans : (D)

86. I want to see the Principal, …… I have something to tell him urgently.

(A) so
(B) for
(C) since
(D) and

Ans : (C)

87. I wasn’t really listening and didn’t ……… what he said.

(A) catch
(B) receive
(C) accept
(D) take

Ans : (A)

88. The first division of Congress took place in—

(A) Surat
(B) Kolkata
(C) Allahabad
(D) Chennai

Ans : (A)

89. What is ginger ?

(A) Flower
(B) Root
(C) Stem
(D) Leaf

Ans : (B)

90. Battle of Kalinga was fought at which of the following places ?

(A) Udaigiri
(B) Dhauli
(C) Balasore
(D) Barabaki

Ans : (B)

91. MIG aircraft manufacturing plant is located at which of the following places of Orissa ?

(A) Beharampur
(B) Sunabeda
(C) Koraput
(D) Sambalpur

Ans : (C)

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RRB Loco Pilot (ALP) Exam 2019 Printed Study Kit

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(How to Apply) RRB 130000 Non-Technical Jobs 2019: Centralised Recruitment No: CEN 01/2019

(How to Apply) RRB 130000 Non-Technical Jobs 2019: Centralised Recruitment No: CEN 01/2019

HOW TO APPLY

(a) Candidates can apply for the notified posts of any one RRB only as per their eligibility through ONLINE application mode by visiting the official website of RRBs

(b) Read all the Information and Instructions detailed in this CEN thoroughly before starting to fill up the application by clicking the appropriate Link on the RRB website. It is essential that the candidate understands all information of this CEN correctly to prevent any mistakes while filling application.

(c) Scanned documents in JPEG Format to be kept ready before filling the application

In order to ensure speedy filling up of application by the candidates, they should keep the following documents ready in digital form before logging in to the application page.

  •  Candidate Photograph: JPEG image of size 20 KB to 50 KB
  •  Candidate Signature: JPEG image of size 10 KB to 40 KB
  •  SC/ST Certificate (Only for candidates seeking Free Travel Pass): JPEG image of size 50 KB to 100 KB.
  •  Scribe Photo (wherever applicable): JPEG image of size 20 KB to 50 KB

(d) Check RRB wise Vacancies for the qualification and Reservation Category of the candidate: The candidates are advised to check the Post Parameter Table and Vacancy Table in this CEN to ascertain vacancies notified against all RRBs and then decide the RRB for which they wish to apply and ensure that the RRB to which they wish to fill the online application is having vacancies for their educational qualification, communitylcategory and eligibility in terms of age, medical standards, disability etc.

(e) Following steps may be followed to ascertain the availability of vacancies and candidate's eligibility for various posts notified

  • Post Parameter Table: Click on the Post Parameter Table Tab. From this table, candidate can ascertain the post(s) for which helshe is eligible as per qualification, type of disability for which post is suitable if PwBD, required medical standards etc
  • Vacancy Table: To ascertain the comprehensive details of vacancy of all the posts notified against an RRB for hislher eligibility, candidate may select the RRB from the drop down list of RRBs and can view the vacancies for all the notified posts against various RailwayslUnits attached to that RRB on selecting the eligibility parameters.
  • After scrutinizing the vacancy table, candidates may decide the RRB for which they wish to apply duly ensuring that vacancy exists for their qualificationl community category etc.
  • Once the RRB has been selected, preliminary registration is completed and registration number is allotted, change of RRB will not be permitted under any circumstances.

(f) Candidates are required to go to the link provided for filling ONLINE application and fill up the personal detailslBio-Data, fee paid etc. carefully. They are also required to exercise their optionlpreference for Post(s), Railway(s)lProduction Unit(s).

(g) CANDIDATES PLEASE NOTE:

  • Multiple posts and other requirements have been notified in this CEN. The candidates are required to indicate their Post•wise and Railway/Production Unit (PU) wise preferences very carefully. Options once exercised in the ONLINE Application shall be final and no request for change shall be entertained. Therefore, candidates are advised to be careful in exercise of option for Post(s) and Railway(s)/PU(s). RRBs will allot the post and the Railway/Production Unit to the selected candidates as per the preference of the candidates subject to merit and vacancy position. However, in case of administrative exigencies/requirements, RRBs reserve the right to allot any post/Railway subject to the suitability of the candidate(s).
  • Candidates with partial option will be considered only for the specific categories opted by them since not opting for certain categories or all categories would indicate their unwillingness for the same.
  • Candidates are advised to keep their personal mobile number and personal valid e•mail ID active throughout the recruitment process, as all communications from RRBs will be sent only through SMS/email. RRBs will not entertain any request for change of mobile number and e-mail address at any stage. Candidates are advised to note and preserve their Registration Number for further stages of recruitment processl correspondence with RRB concerned.
  • Candidates are further advised to visit the official website(s) of RRBs frequently to get the latest information on various stages of recruitment process or any changes about this CEN.

The onus is on the candidates to prove with valid documents that all the information submitted by them in the ONLINE application is true.

STEPS TO SUBMIT ONLINE APPLICATION:

a) Click on the "New Registration".

b) Select the RRB to which you wish to apply. Please be aware that, RRB once selected cannot be changed after the preliminary registration is completed and Registration number is allotted.

c) Confirm that you have read and understood the instructions clearly by clicking the check box.

d) Registration Details: Enter your name, Date of Birth and Father's name as per Para 1.7 of General Instructions, Mother's Name, Aadhaar Number, SSLCIMatric Roll Number, Year of Passing, Mobile Number and email-ID and then submit for registration. Before submitting for registration, ensure and confirm that all the information furnished above are correct, as the details furnished for registration cannot be changed later. Please note that the email ID and mobile number used for the Registration must be yours and unique. Also note that both the email and mobile number will be verified during the Online Application process with a One Time Password (OTP).

e) Verification of email ID and mobile number through OTP: On submitting the primary details, OTPs shall be sent to the registered mobile number and email. The candidate should retrieve the OTPs from email and Mobile and then enter OTPs to proceed with the filling up of application and to make payment through OTP "Activation Link". On successful OTP activation, Registration Number will be generated and sent on registered email ID and mobile number. Candidates should note and preserve their Registration Number for later reference during the recruitment process and RRB will not entertain any request seeking registration number.

f) Candidates can proceed with the online application by clicking on the "Candidate Login" button on the Home Page using the Registration Number and password.

g) In the Part I of application page, provide the details of Educational Qualification, Community i.e. URIOBC (NCL)ISCISTIEWS, Gender, Religion, Ex SM, PwBD, Minority, Economically Backward Class and Age Relaxation eligibility category as applicable and other details.

h) Payment and Bank Account Details:

  1. On completion of application details as above, the candidate will be directed to the payment page to choose payment mode i.e. Bank (Online Net BankingICredit CardIDebit CardIUPI and Offline Challan) or Post Office Challans as explained in Para 7 and complete the payment process. Chose the mode of payment and complete the payment process. If there is a failure of Online payments, the candidate has to make another transaction. Please note the last date and time specified for each mode of payment and submit the application well in time.
  2. Those paying through Bank-offline mode, the payment confirmation may take 2 hours and hence they have to again login after 2 hours and look for confirmation of payment status.
  3. The time period for payment confirmation shall vary from 24 hrs. to 48 hrs. in case of Post Office payment.

i) In the Part II of application page, candidate has to indicate their prioritylpreference of the posts.

Set priority / preferences for posts: If the candidate is eligible for more than one post based on hislher educational qualification and other details furnished, helshe must set the prioritylpreferences for these posts. The list of posts (in the chosen RRB) for which a candidate is eligible is displayed. Similarly, if the chosen RRB has vacancies for more than one RailwaylProduction Unit, then vacancies for all such RailwayslProduction Units for which a candidate is eligible, will be listed out. The candidate should fill their prioritylpreferences number in the textbox against each post that they are eligible for, in the RRB they are applying to.

j) Scribe for PwBD Candidates: Indicate option for scribe if you are a PwBD candidate and eligible for scribe. Only the candidates suffering from Visually Impairment (VI) or the candidates whose writing speed is affected by Cerebral Palsylmuscular dystrophylcandidates with Locomotor disability (one arm)lIntellectual disability (Autism, specific learning disability and mental illness) are eligible for availing scribe against this CEN. In case you have firmed up the scribe, then enter the details of scribe such as name, father's name, educational qualification etc. The scribe so arranged should not himself/herself be the candidate for the notification for which the candidate is appearing and same scribe should not be engaged for more than one candidate.

k) Detailed Educational Qualification: Furnish all the relevant information on the qualification as required in the application.

l) Choice of Exam Language: English is the default language. In case the candidate wishes to choose any other language, then the same can be selected from the drop down list of languages. The languages listed are Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu. In case of any difference/ discrepancy/dispute in the Questions between English and the opted language, the content of English version shall prevail.

m) Complete the balance fields e.g. Mother Tongue, MoleslIdentification Marks, Address etc.

n) Bank Account Details for Refund: Candidates who attend 1st Stage CBT are eligible for refund of examination fee as per details in Para 7. All candidates who have given the confirmation to receive their refund to the account from which they have made the application fee payment, need not fill these details and hence, this will not be visible for them. Only those candidates who do not wish to receive the refund in the account through which they paid examination fee should provide the details of Beneficiary Account in which they wish to receive the refund viz. Beneficiary Name, Account Number, Name of Bank and IFSC Code in the Online Application.

o) Candidates may indicate their consent or otherwise for sharing the scores obtained by them in RRB exams with other MinistrieslDepartmentslPSUs and Private organizations, for recruitment in their organizations.

p) Photograph and Signature Upload:

  1. Candidate will be automatically directed to 'Photo and Signature Upload' part of the application.
  2. Select the Upload Photo Tab and upload your colour photograph. The photograph should comply with the following requirements

Specification for Signature Image:

  1. The applicant has to sign on white paper with Black Ink pen within a box of size 50 mm x 20 mm.
  2. Signature must be in running letters and NOT IN BLOCK LETTERS.
  3. The image should be in JPGIJPEG format scanned with 100 DPI resolution. d. Dimensions of 50 mm x 20 mm or 140 x 60 pixels (preferred).
  4. Size of file should be between 10 KB - 40 KB.

Submission of Application:

  • In the end candidates have to confirm the declaration "I hereby declare that I have gone through the eligibility criteria for the post(s) applied for and meet all the requirements therein, that all the details furnished by me in the application are true and complete to the best of my knowledge & belief and nothing has been concealed or suppressed. I also understand that in case, any of the details furnished is found untrue during any stage of recruitment or thereafter, RRB shall disqualify me for the post(s) applied for and Ior I shall be liable for any other action under the extant rules".
  • After confirming the above declaration and submission of the application, the candidate may save the file as "PDF" and/or take print of the application and preserve it for reference and record.

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(Download) RRB : Junior Engineer's Exam Model Paper [General Knowledge]

Railway Recruitment Board

(Model Paper)  Junior Engineers - General Knowledge

1) When was the first underground railway (Metro Railway) started?

(a) 1982

(b) 1989

(c) 1984

(d) 1992

Ans:- C

2) Shatabdi Express train was started in

(a) 1984

(b) 1988

(c) 1990

(d) 1985

Ans:- B

3) At which of the following places Diesel Component Works is established?

(a) Jamshedpur

(b) Patiala

(c) Perambur

(d) Varanasi

Ans:- B

4) Which Zone is the largest in Indian Railways?

(a) Central Railway

(b) Northern Railway

(c) Eastern Railway

(d) Western Railway

Ans:- C

5) The railway station situated in the extreme south is

(a) Chennai

(b) Cochin

(c) Kanyakumari

(d) Trivandrum

Ans:- C

6) A platform surrounded by rail lines from all the four sides, is called

(a) dock platform

(b) passenger platform

(c) island platform

(d) goods platform

Ans:- C

7) When was the nationalization of Indian Railways done?

(a) 1952

(b) 1950

(c) 1951

(d) 1954

Ans:- B

8) In which year Research, Design and Standard organization was established?

(a) 1954

(b) 1957

(c) 1959

(d) 1967

Ans:- B

9) Railway Staff College is situated at

(a) Bangalore

(b) Secundrabad

(c) Chennai

(d) Vadodara

Ans:- D

10) Where is the Research, Design and Standard Organization situated?

(a) Lucknow

(b) Bangalore

(c) Pune

(d) New Delhi  

Ans:- A

11) Which is the following pairs of regional Railways and their headquarters not  true?

(a) South-Central Railway - Secunderabad

(b) Central railway - Bhopal

(c) South Railway - Chennai

(d) North Railway - New Delhi

Ans:- B

12) Between which of the destinations the first Indian train was started?

(a) from Calcutta to Delhi

(b) From Mumbai to Thane

(c) From Mumbai to Surat

(d) From Mumbai to Madras

Ans:- B

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Study Kit for RRB Junior Engineer EXAM (Phase-1) 

13) When was the first train in Indian started?

(a) 1851

(b) 1852

(c) 1853

(d) 1854

Ans:- C

14) In which Governor-General's reign railway lines in India was established?

(a) Lord William Bentick

(b) Lord Cornwallis

(c) Lord Kenning

(d) Lord Dalhousie

Ans:- D

15) station where the rail lines end, is called

(a) junction station

(b) way-side-station

(c) block station

(d) terminal station

Ans:- D

16) How much distance was traveled by first train of India?

(a) 33 km

(b) 36 km

(c) 34 km

(d) 46 km

Ans:- C

17) what is the position of the Indian Railway in the world according to the length of rail lines?

(a) First

(b) Second

(c) Third

(d) Fourth

Ans:- D

18) What is the length of North-Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR)?

(a) 4300 Km

(b) 3700 Km

(c) 4290 km

(d) 5298 km

Ans:- B

19) The headquarters of North-Eastern railway is situated at

(a) Mumbai (V.T)

(b) Guwahati

(c) Gorakhpur

(d) New Delhi  

Ans:- C

20) When was the North-Eastern frontier Railway (NEFR) established?

(a) 15th Jan, 1958

(b) 15th Jan, 1955

(c) 2nd Jan, 1956

(d) 14th April, 1952

Ans:- A

21) The headquarters of North -Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR) is

(a) Calcutta

(b) Maligaon (Guwahati)

(c) Chennai

(d) Gorakhpur

Ans:- B

22) In which of the following cities, the first sub-way train was started?

(a) Mumbai

(b) Delhi

(c) Calcutta

(d) Chennai

Ans:- C

23) General Manger is responsible for

(a) Railway Board

(b) Railway Ministry

(c) Both railway Board and Railway Ministry

(d) None of these

Ans:- A

24) The headquarters of South-Central Railways is situated at

(a) Mumbai (V.T)

(b) Chennai

(c) Secundrabad

(d) Mumbai (Central)

Ans:- C

25) The headquarters of Northern Railway is at

(a) New Delhi

(b) Guwahati

(c) Gorakhpur

(d) Mumbai (V.T)

Ans:- A

RRB Loco Pilot (ALP) Exam 2019 Printed Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड लोको पायलट परीक्षा (Stage-1) अध्ययन सामग्र

26) The headquarters of South Railways is situated at

(a) Calcutta

(b) Chennai

(c) Delhi

(d) Mumbai

Ans:- B

27) In which institution the training of electric work is being given?

(a) Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering

(b) Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering

(c) Railway Staff College

(d) Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering

Ans:- B

28) Who invented the railway engine?

(a) Charles Babbage

(b) Isaac Newton  

(c) James Watt

(d) George Stephenson

Ans:- D

29) Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering Institution situated?

(a) Nasik

(b) Baroda

(c) Jamalpur

(d) Pune

Ans:- C

30) Metro Railway is functioning in which of the following Indian States?

(a) Gujarat

(b) Maharashtra

(c) West Bengal

(d) Tamil Nadu

Ans:- C

31) The zone with the minimum length is

(a) North-Eastern Railway

(b) North-Eastern Frontier Railway

(c) South-East Railway

(d) South-Central Railway

Ans:- B

32) Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Institute situated?

(a) Pune

(b) Chennai

(c) Nasik

(d) Sikandrabad

Ans:- A

33) How many training institutions of Railways are in India?

(a) Three

(b) Four

(c) Five

(d) Six

Ans:- C

34) What is the position of the Indian Railway under the zonal system?

(a) First

(b) Second

(c) Third

(d) Forth

Ans:- B

35) Which of the gauges is used in the hilly areas?

(a) Broad gauge

(b) Meter gauge

(c) Narrow gauge

(d) Special gauge

Ans:- C

36) Where is the extreme north of India a railway station?

(a) Jammutavi

(b) Amritsar

(c) Pathancoat

(d) Guwahat

Ans:- A

37) How many institutions do give suggestions for railways technology?

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Four

Ans:- B  

38) Diesel Locomotive Works is situated at

(a) Perambur

(b) Varanasi

(c) Kapurthala

(d) Bangalore

Ans:- B

39) The manufacturing of steam engine in Chittranjan Locomotive Works was stopped in

(a) 1974

(b) 1961

(c) 1971

(d) 1973

Ans:- C

40) The passenger bogies of the Indian Railways are manufactured at which of the following places?

(a) Kapurthala

(b) Chittranjan

(c) Perambur

(d) Bangalore

Ans:- C

41) Indian Railways which is the largest of the Public Sector Enterprises, is divided into how many regions?

(a) 7

(b) 9

(c) 8

(d) 10

Ans:- B

42) Besides Mahrashtra, Karnataka and Goa, which of the following is the fourth State for Konakan Railway Project?

(a) Kerala

(b) Tamil Nadu

(c) Gujarat

(d) Andhra Pradesh

Ans:- A

43) Palace On Wheels train was inaugurated in

(a) 1988

(b) 1972

(c) 1982

(d) 1965

Ans:- C

44) When was the Central Railway established?

(a) 5th Nov 1951

(b) 14th Nov 1951

(c) 14th April 1951

(d) 16th August, 1951

Ans:- A

45) Rajasthan is under which of the following railway zones?

(a) Northern region

(b) Western region

(c) North-Western region

(d) Central Region

Ans:- B

46) The largest national enterprise of India is

(a) Indian Railway

(b) Indian Shipyard

(c) Airways

(d) None of these

Ans:- A  

47) The first locomotive which was manufactured in Chittranjan on

(a) November 1950

(b) October 1950

(c) September 1949

(d) October 1954

Ans:- A

48) Where is the wheel and axle plant of Indian Railways situated?

(a) Chittranjan

(b) Kapurthala

(c) Bangalore

(d) Perambur

Ans:- C

49) When was the Jammu City appeared on the map of Indian Railway?

(a) 1965

(b) 1963

(c) 1967

(d) 1965

Ans:- D

50) Where is the headquarters of Central Railway situated?

(a) Mumbai (V.T)

(b) Mumbai (Church Gate)

(c) Gwalior

(d) Gorakhpur

Ans:- A

CLICK HERE FOR ANSWERS

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(E-Book) RRB J.E. Junior Engineer Exam Previous Year Solved Papers

Study Kit for RRB Junior Engineer EXAM (Phase-1) 

Courtesy : RRB

(Download) RRB : Junior Engineer and Section Engineer Papers Exam held on 2007 [General Awareness]

Railway Recruitment Board

(Solved) RRB Junior Engineer Section Engineer Previous Papers

Exam held on 2007

Subject : General Awareness

1. Which is the following pairs of regional Railways and their headquarters not true?

(a) South-Central Railway - Secunderabad

(b) Central railway - Bhopal

(c) South Railway - Chennai

(d) North Railway - New Delhi

Answer: B

2. Between which of the destinations the first Indian train was started?

(a) From Calcutta to Delhi

(b) From Mumbai to Thane

(c) From Mumbai to Surat

(d) From Mumbai to Madras

Answer: B

3. When was the first train in Indian started?

(a) 1851

(b) 1852

(c) 1853

(d) 1854

Answer: C

4. In which Governor-General reign railway lines in India were established?

(a) Lord William Bentick

(b) Lord Cornwallis

(c) Lord Kenning

(d) Lord Dalhousie

Answer: D

5. A station where the rail lines end, is called

(a) junction station

(b) way-side-station

(c) block station

(d) terminal station

Answer: D

6. How much distance was traveled by first train of India?

(a) 33 km

(b) 36 km

(c) 34 km

(d) 46 km

Answer: C

7. What is the position of the Indian Railway in the world according to the length of rail lines?

(a) First

(b) Second

(c) Third

(d) Fourth

Answer: D

8. What is the length of North-Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR)?

(a) 4300 Km

(b) 3700 Km

(c) 4290 km

(d) 5298 km

Answer: B

9. The headquarters of North-Eastern railway is situated at

(a) Mumbai (V.T)

(b) Guwahati

(c) Gorakhpur

(d) New Delhi

Answer: C

10. When was the North-Eastern frontier Railway (NEFR) established?

(a) 15th Jan, 1958

(b) 15th Jan, 1955

(c) 2nd Jan, 1956

(d) 14th April, 1952

Answer: A

11.The zone with the minimum length is

(a) North-Eastern Railway

(b) North-Eastern Frontier Railway

(c) South-East Railway

(d) South-Central Railway

Answer: B

12. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Institute situated?

(a) Pune

(b) Chennai

(c) Nasik

(d) Sikandrabad

Answer: A

13. How many training institutions of Railways are in India?

(a) Three

(b) Four

(c) Five

(d) Six

Answer: C

14. What is the position of the Indian Railway under the zonal system?

(a) First

(b) Second

(c) Third

(d) Forth

Answer: B

15. Which of the gauges is used in the hilly areas?

(a) Broad gauge

(b) Meter gauge

(c) Narrow gauge

(d) Special gauge

Answer: C

16. The headquarters of North -Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR) is

(a) Calcutta

(b) Maligaon (Guwahati)

(c) Chennai

(d) Gorakhpur

Answer: B  

17. In which of the following cities, the first sub-way train was started?

(a) Mumbai

(b) Delhi

(c) Calcutta

(d) Chennai

Answer: C

18. General Manger is responsible for

(a) Railway Board

(b) Railway Ministry

(c) Both railway Board and Railway Ministry

(d) None of these

Answer: A

19. The headquarters of South-Central Railways is situated at

(a) Mumbai (V.T)

(b) Chennai

(c) Secundrabad

(d) Mumbai (Central)

Answer: C

20. The headquarters of Northern Railway is at

(a) New Delhi

(b) Guwahati

(c) Gorakhpur

(d) Mumbai (V.T)

Answer: A

21. The headquarters of South Railways is situated at

(a) Calcutta

(b) Chennai

(c) Delhi

(d) Mumbai

Answer: B

22. In which institution the training of electric work is being given?

(a) Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering

(b) Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering

(c) Railway Staff College

(d) Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering

Answer: B

23. Who invented the railway engine?

(a) Charles Babbage

(b) Isaac Newton

(c) James Watt

(d) George Stephenson

Answer: D

24. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering Insttitue situated?

(a) Nasik

(b) Baroda

(c) Jamalpur

(d) Pune

Answer: C

25. Metro Railway is functioning in which of the following Indian States?

(a) Gujarat

(b) Maharashtra

(c) West Bengal

(d) Tamil Nadu

Answer: C  

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26. Where is the extreme north of India a railway station?

(a) Jammutavi

(b) Amritsar

(c) Pathancoat

(d) Guwahat

Answer: A

27. How many institutions do give suggestions for railways technology?

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Four

Answer: B

28. Diesel Locomotive Works is situated at

(a) Perambur

(b) Varanasi

(c) Kapurthala

(d) Bangalore

Answer: B

29. The manufacturing of steam engine in Chittranjan Locomotive Works was stopped in

(a) 1974

(b) 1961

(c) 1971

(d) 1973

Answer: C

30. The passenger bogies of the Indian Railways are manufactured at which of the following places?

(a) Kapurthala

(b) Chittranjan

(c) Perambur

(d) Bangalore

Answer: C

31. Indian Railways which is the largest of the Public Sector Enterprises, is divided in how many regions?

(a) 7

(b) 9

(c) 8

(d) 10

Answer: B

32. Besides Mahrashtra, Karnataka and Goa, which of the following is the fourth State for Konakan Railway Project?

(a) Kerala

(b) Tamil Nadu

(c) Gujarat

(d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer: A

33. Palace On Wheels train was inaugurated in which year?

(a) 1988

(b) 1972

(c) 1982

(d) 1965

Answer: C

34. When was the Central Railway established?

(a) 5th Nov 1951

(b) 14th Nov 1951

(c) 14th April 1951

(d) 16th August, 1951

Answer: A

35. Rajasthan is under which of the following railway zones?

(a) Northern region (b) Western region  
 
(c) North-Western region

(d) Central Region

Answer: B

36. The largest national enterprise of India is

(a) Indian Railway

(b) Indian Shipyard

(c) Airways

(d) None of these

Answer: A

37. The first locomotive which was manufactured in Chittaranjan on

(a) November 1950

(b) October 1950

(c) September 1949

(d) October 1954

Answer: A

38. Where is the wheel and axle plant of Indian Railways situated?

(a) Chittranjan

(b) Kapurthala

(c) Bangalore

(d) Perambur

Answer: C

39. When was the Jammu City appeared on the map of Indian Railway?

(a) 1965

(b) 1963

(c) 1967

(d) 1965

Answer: D

40. Where is the headquarters of Central Railway situated?

(a) Mumbai (V.T)

(b) Mumbai (Church Gate)

(c) Gwalior

(d) Gorakhpur

Answer: A

41. When was the first underground railway (Metro Railway) started?

(a) 1982

(b) 1989

(c) 1984

(d) 1992

Answer: C

42. Shatabdi Express train was started in

(a) 1984

(b) 1988

(c) 1990

(d) 1985

Answer: B

43. At which of the following places Diesel Component Works is established?

(a) Jamshedpur

(b) Patiala

(c) Perambur

(d) Varanasi

Answer: B

44. Which Zone is the largest in Indian Railways?

(a) Central Railway

(b) Northern Railway

(c) Eastern Railway

(d) Western Railway

Answer: C

45. The railway station situated in the extreme south is  

(a) Chennai

(b) Cochin

(c) Kanyakumari

(d) Trivandrum

Answer: C

46. A platform surrounded by rail lines from all the four sides, is called

(a) dock platform

(b) passenger platform

(c) island platform

(d) goods platform

Answer: C

47. When was the nationalization of Indian Railways done?

(a) 1952

(b) 1950

(c) 1951

(d) 1954

Answer: B

48. In which year Research, Design and Standard organization was established?

(a) 1954

(b) 1957

(c) 1959

(d) 1967

Answer: B

49. Railway Staff College is situated at

(a) Bangalore

(b) Secundrabad

(c) Chennai

(d) Vadodara

Answer: D

50. Where is the Research, Design and Standard Organisation situated?

(a) Lucknow

(b) Bangalore

(c) Pune

(d) New Delhi

Answer: A

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Eastern Railway

Zonal Railways : Eastern Railway

About Eastern Railway :

Applications, on plain paper (A4 size) in the given format neatly typed either in English or Hindi are invited from the eligible candidates for filling up the vacancies against Cultural Quota of Eastern Railway for the year 2017-18 for two (02) posts in Group ‘C’ category. The candidates having no Cultural Qualifications need not apply.

Application in prescribed format to be sent by ordinary post (Courier Post/Regd. Post/Speed post will not be accepted) to The Chief Personnel Officer, Eastern Railway, CPO’s Office, Recruitment Section (1st floor), 17, Netaji Subhas Road, Fairlie Place, Kolkata–700 001 OR to be dropped in the box (any working day from 10:00 hrs. to 17:30 hrs.) kept in the office of the Chief Personnel Officer, Eastern Railway, Recruitment Section, 17, Netaji Subhas Road, Fairlie Place, Kolkata–700 001. Superscribing on the top of the envelop “APPLICATION FOR THE POST IN GROUP-‘C’ CATEGORY AGAINST CULTURAL QUOTA FOR THE YEAR 2017-18”.

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