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Assistant Loco Pilot

Psychological

Read more about Psychological Tests For Assistant Loco Pilot - Test for measuring Depth Perception

Psychological Tests For Assistant Loco Pilot - Test for Measuring Perceptual Speed

NEW! RRB ALP PSYCHOLOGICAL CBT EXAM Tests Series - With FREE DEMO Test

This is a test of how rapidly and accurately you can see objects in order to match them. Look at the first radio at the left. Which one of the five at the right is most nearly like it? Radio ‘B’ is the one. Look at the second radio at the left. Which radio at the right is most nearly like it? Radio ‘C’ is the correct answer.

Example

Now find the radios most nearly matching the third and fourth ones at the left. You will find that the correct answer of radio No.3 is ‘A’ and that fourth is ‘D’.

Practice problems

The answer for practice problems are E, D, A, B, E, C, A, B, D, C, B, E, E, A, B, C, B, C, A, E, E, D, B and C respectively.

Courtesy: RRB

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Study Kit for Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Loco Pilot Exam

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) लोको पायलट परीक्षा के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री

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Assistant Loco Pilot

Psychological

Read more about Psychological Tests For Assistant Loco Pilot - Test for Measuring Perceptual Speed

(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-5 (General Awareness)

(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-5

(General Awareness)

26. The Landmines Treaty became a global law in September 1998 with the approval of
(a) Norway

(b) Burkina Faso
(c) Thailand

(d) Ethiopia

27. Leander Paes and Mahesh Bhupathi won two doubles Grand Slams in 1999. Which were they?
(a) Australian Open and French Open
(b) French Open and Wimbledon
(c) Wimbledon and Australian Open
(d) U.S. Open and French Open

28. Who created a world record for the maximum number of dismissals in Test Cricket as a Wicket Keeper?
(a) Alan Knott

(b) Rodney Marsh
(c) Ian Healy

(d) Moin Khan

29. Who invented optical fibre?
(a) Samuel Cohen

(b) Narinder Kapany
(c) Percy L.Spencer

(d) T.H. Maimah

30. Who amongst the following is renowned in the field of painting?
(a) Parveen Sultana

(b) Prof. T.N. Krishnan
(c) Ram Kinkar

(d) Raja Ravi Varma

31. Who amidst the following won the Nobel Prize in Science in two different disciplines?
(a) Russell Hulse

(b) David Lee
(c) Madam Curie

(d) Paul Boyer

32. Who is the author of “The Company of Women”?
(a) John Gray (b) David Baldacci
(c) Dick Francis (d) Khushwant Singh

33. In the 13th Lok Sabha elections in which of the following states did the ruling alliance won all the seats?
(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Orissa
(c) Haryana

(d) Gujarat

34. Who represented India in the Second Round Table Conference?
(a) Aruna Asaf Ali

(b) Sucheta Kripalani
(c) Sarojini Naidu

(d) Kalpana Joshi

35. The rulers of which dynasty started the practice of granting tax-free villages to Brahmanas and Buddhist Monks?
(a) Satavahanas

(b) Mauryas
(c) Guptas

(d) Cholas

36. The Bandung Conference was a major milestone in the history of
(a) The Non-aligned movement
(b) Indo-Chinese relationship
(c) U.S.-Vietnam War
(d) Creation of ASEAN

37. The most important text of vedic mathematics is
(a) Satapatha Brahman

(b) Atharva Veda
(c) Sulva Sutras

(d) Chhandogya Upanishad

38. Which of the following Indian States is broadly as large as the European nation Austria?
(a) Kerala

(b) West Bengal
(c) Orissa

(d) Karnataka

39. Which of the following districts is on the international border of India?
(a) Sirsa

(b) Anantnag
(c) Karimganj

(d) Purulia

40. The deposits of the ancient Tethys Sea were folded to form the
(a) Himalayas

(b) Rockies
(c) Andes

(d) Alps

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41. The largest irrigation canal in India is called the
(a) Yamuna canal

(b) Sirhand canal
(c) Indira Gandhi canal

(d) Upper Ban Doab canal

42. Atmospheric pressure exerted on earth is due to
(a) rotation of earth

(b) revolution of earth
(c) gravitational pull

(d) uneven heating of earth

43. Pruning is an essential part in cultivation of
(a) Rubber

(b) Tobacco
(c) Coffee

(d) Tea

44. Operating surplus arises in the
(a) Government sector
(b) Production for self-consumption
(c) Subsistence farming
(d) Enterprise sector

45. The most important of the non-tariff trade barriers are:

(a) Quotas

(b) Health regulations
(c) Pollution standards
(d) Labelling and packaging regulations

46. The maximum area under crops in India is used for the cultivation of:
(a) Wheat

(b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane

(d) Cotton

47. Investment is equal to:
(a) gross total of all types of physical capital assets
(b) gross total of all capital assets minus wear and tear
(c) stock of plants, machines and equipments
(d) None of the above

48. The Tarapore Committee recommended that before capital account was made convertible the rate of inflation should be brought down for three years to within :
(a) 3.5%

(b) 0.3%
(c) 4.6%

(d) 5.7%

49. Who among the following are not appointed by the President of India?
(a) Governors of States
(b) Chief Justice and Judges of High Court
(c) Vice-President
(d) Chief Justice and Judges of Supreme Court

50. What is the period within which a proclamation of national emergency made by the President is to be placed before each house of the Parliament for approval?
(a) within one month

(b) within two months
(c) within four months

(d) within six months

51. What was the exact constitutional position of the Indian Republic when the Constitution was brought into force with effect from 26th January, 1950?
(a) A Democratic Republic
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(d) A Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic

52. Fabianism is closely related to:
(a) Fascism
(b) Scientific socialism
(c) Democratic socialism
(d) Liberalism

53. A federal structure for India was first put forward by the
(a) Act of 1909

(b) Act of 1919
(c) Act of 1935

(d) Act of 1947

54. Which Writ is issued by a High Court or the Supreme
Court to compel an authority, to perform a function that
it was not performing? (a) Writ of Certiorari
(b) Writ of Habeas Corpus
(c) Writ of Mandamus (d) Writ of Quo Warranto

55. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament over a non-money bill

(a) the bill will lapse
(b) the President may sign it into a law
(c) the President may call a joint sitting of both the Houses to consider it.
(d) the President may ask both the Houses to reconsider it.

56. Commercial nitric acid is coloured because it contains dissolved
(a) Oxygen

(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Nitrogen dioxide

(d) Coloured impurities

57. Fertiliser having high nitrogen content is
(a) Urea

(b) Ammonium sulphate
(c) Ammonium nitrate

(d) Calcium citrate

58. Quantity of fresh air required for a man is
(a) 1000 cubic feet of air for every 20 minutes
(b) 1000 cubic feet of air for every 20 seconds
(c) 1000 cubic feet of air for every 10 minutes
(d) 1000 cubic feet of air for every 10 seconds

59. A compact disc (CD) is a data storage system of the type
(a) Magnetic

(b) Optical
(c) Electrical

(d) Electro mechanical

60. Surface tension in a liquid is due to
(a) Adhesive force between molecules
(b) Cohesive force between molecules
(c) Gravitational force between molecules
(d) Electrical force between molecules.

61. A circular plate, a cube and a sphere, all made up of same material and having the same mass, are heated to 300°C and left in a room. Which of them will have the slowest rate of cooling?
(a) Circular plate

(b) Cube
(c) Sphere
(d) All will cool at the same rate

62. Where does the oxygen that keeps us alive come from?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Carbonates absorbed from soil
(c) Oxides of minerals

(d) Water

63. Reserpine is used to
(a) reduce high blood pressure
(b) increase blood pressure when it is low
(c) alleviate pain

(d) cure arthritis

64. ‘ELISA’ test is employed to diagnose:
(a) Polio virus

(b) AIDS antibodies
(c) Tuberculosis bacterium
(d) Cancer

65. Why excessive heating and repeated use of cooking oil is most undesirable?
(a) The oil vapours can cause indoor pollution
(b) Carcinogenic substances like benzpyrene are produced

(c) Nutrient value of food is lost
(d) Loss and wastage of oil

66. The gas used for artificial fruit ripening of green fruit is-
(a) Ethylene

(b) Acetylene

(c) Ethane

(d) Methane

67. Optic fibres are used in
(a) CAT scans

(b) X-ray photos
(c) Ultrasound scans

(d) Endoscopy

68. The three elements most needed in common fertilisers are
(a) Sulphur, Phosphorous and Sodium
(b) Nitrogen, Potassium and Phosphorous
(c) Phosphorous, Sodium and Nitrogen
(d) Calcium, Phosphorous and Potassium

69. What was the ultimate goal of Mahatma Gandhi’s Salt Satyagraha?
(a) repeal of Salt Satyagraha
(b) curtailment of the Government’s power
(c) economic relief to the common people
(d) ‘Purna Swaraj’ for India

70. Who persuaded the ratings of the RIN (Royal India Navy) to surrender on the 23rd February 1946?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru and Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Vallabh Bhai Patel and M.A. Jinnah
(d) Morarji Desai and J.B. Kripalani

71. On September 20,.1932 Mahatma Gandhi began a fast unto death in Yervada Jail against
(a) British repression of the Satyagrahis.
(b) Violation of the GandhiIrwin Pact.
(c) Communal award of Ramsay MacDonald.
(d) Communal riots in Calcutta.

72. In 1939, for the first time, Gandhiji tried out his specific techniques of controlled mass struggle in a native state. He allowed a close associate of his to lead a satyagraha. Who was he?
(a) K. T. Bhashyam in Mysore
(b) Jamnalal Bajaj in Jaipur
(c) Vallabh Bhai Patel in Rajkot
(d) Nebakrushna Chaudhri in Dhenkanal

73. What is Obra known for?
(a) a new refinery

(b) a new aluminium plant
(c) a bird sanctuary

(d) a thermal power station

74. What is NABARD’s primary role?
(a) to provide term loans to state co-operative banks
(b) to assist state governments for share capital contribution
(c) to act as refinance institution
(d) All of the above

75. Where is the National Institute of Excellence in the field of Information Technology and Allied Sciences proposed to be set up?
(a) Bangalore

(b) Hyderabad
(c) Pune

(d) Allahabad

ANSWERS :

26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (d) 31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (a) 41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (b) 61. (c) 62. (a) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (c) 71. (c) 72. (c) 73. (d) 74. (d) 75. (b)

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Read more about (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-5 (General Awareness)

(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-5 (Mathematics)

(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-5

(Mathematics)

82. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 8. Which one of the following can never be their L.C.M.?
(a) 24

(b) 48
(c) 56

(d) 60

83. If the sum of two numbers is 22 and the sum of their squares is 404, then the product of the numbers is:
(a) 40

(b) 44
(c) 80

(d) 88

84.1/0.04 is equal to:
(a)1/40

(b) 2/5
(c) 5/2
(d) 25

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86. The sum of first 20 odd natural numbers is equal to :
(a) 210

(b) 300
(c) 400

(d) 420

88. (6.5 × 6.5 – 45.5 + 3.5 × 3.5) is equal to :
(a) 10

(b) 9

(c) 7

(d) 6

89. What number should be subtracted from both terms of the ratio 15 : 19 in order to make it 3 : 4?
(a) 9

(b) 6

(c) 5

(d) 3

90. If p : q = r : s = t : u = 2 : 3, then (mp + nr + ot) : (mq + ns + ou) is equal to :
(a) 1 : 3

(b) 1 : 2

(c) 2 : 3

(d) 3 : 2

91. If a : b = c : d = e : f = 1 : 2, then (pa + qc + re) : (pb + qd + rf) is equal to
(a) p : (q + r)

(b) (p + q) : r
(c) 2 : 3

(d) 1 : 2

92. If x : y = 3 : 1, then x³ – y³ : x ³ + y³ = ?
(a) 13 : 14

(b) 14 : 13
(c) 10 : 11

(d) 11 : 10

93. If 10% of m is the same as 20% of n, then m : n is equal to
(a) 2 : 1

(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 10

(d) 1 :20

94. How many sides does a regular polygon have whose interior and exterior angles are in the ratio 2 : 1?

(a) 3

(b) 5

(c) 6

(d) 12

95. The area (in sq.cm.) of the largest circle that can be drawn inside a square of side 28 cm, is
(a) 17248

(b) 784

(c) 8624

(d) 616

96. The circumference of the base of a circular cylinder is 67π cm. The height of the cylinder Is equal to the diameter of the base. How many litres of water can it
hold?
(a) 54 π cc

(b) 36π cc
(c) 0.054 π cc

(d) 0.54 π cc

97. If the circumference of a circle increases from 4n to 8, what change occurs in its area?
(a) It doubles

(b) It triples
(c) It quadruples

(d) It is halved

98. A starts business with Rs. 3500/- and after 5 months, B joins with A as his partner. After a year, the profit is divided in the ratio 2 : 3. What is B’s contribution in the capital?
(a) Rs. 8000/-
(b) Rs. 8500/-
(c) Rs. 9000/-

(d) Rs. 7500/-

99. A, B and C rent a pasture. A puts in 10 oxen for 7 months, B 12 oxen for 5 months and C 15 oxen for 3 months for grazing. If the rent of the pasture is Rs. 175/-, how much must C pay as his share of rent?
(a) Rs. 45/-

(b) Rs. 50/-
(c) Rs.55/-

(d) Rs. 60/-

100. A reduction of 20% in the price of oranges enables a man to buy 5 oranges more for Rs. 10/-. The price of an orange before reduction was:
(a) 20 paise

(b) 40 paise
(c) 50 paise

(d) 60 paise

ANSWERS :

76. (d) 77. (a) 78. (c) 79. (d) 80. (a) 81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (d) 85. (a) 86. (c) 87. (a) 88. (b) 89. (d) 90. (c) 91. (d) 92. (a) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (d) 96. (a) 97. (c) 98. (c) 99. (a) 100. (c)

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RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

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Read more about (Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-5 (Mathematics)

(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-5 (General Inteligence & Reasoning)

(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-5

(General Inteligence & Reasoning)

Directions: Find the related word/letters/number to cornplete the Analogy.

1. Carbon : Diamond :: Corundum : ?
(a) Garnet

(b) Ruby
(c) Pukhraj

(d) Pearl

2. Smoke : Pollution : : War
(a) Victory

(b) Peace
(c) Treaty

(d) Destruction

3. Ink : Pen : : Blood ?
(a) Accident

(b) Doctor
(c) Vein

(d) Donation

4. BOQD : ERTG : : ANPC : ?
(a) DQSF

(b) FSHU
(c) SHFU

(d) DSQF

5. AFKP : ZUPK :: BGLQ : ?
(a) YUQM

(b) XURO
(c) YXWV

(d) YTOJ

6. 182 : ? :: 210 : 380
(a) 342

(b) 272
(c) 240

(d) 156

Directions: Find the odd one out from the given alterna lives.

7. (a) Mizoram

(b) Sikkim
(c) Kohima

(d) Manipur

8. (a) Amoeba

(b) Bacteria
(c) Germs

(d) Microbes

9. (a) IJCD

(b) WUTS
(c) QRKL

(d) PQMN

10. (a) 8

(b) 42
(c) 49

(d) 35

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11. (a) 81 : 243

(b) 16: 64
(c) 64: 192

(d) 25: 75

Directions: Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?

12. 1. Book

2. Pulp
3. Timber

4. Jungle
5. Paper
(a) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4

(b) 2, 5, 1, 4, 3
(c) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1

(d) 5, 4, 3, 1, 2

Directions: Arrange the foll lowing words according to dictionary arrangement.

13. 1. Epitaxy

2. Episode
3. Epigene

4. Epitome

5. Epilogue
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

(b) 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
(c) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3

(d) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1

Directions: Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

14. — stt — tt — tts —
(a) tsst

(b) sstt
(c) ttst

(d) tsts

15. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters goes on increasing successively by one in the series. Identify the set following the above rule.
(a) AEIMQU

(b) EHKNQT
(c) DINSXC

(d) FHKOTZ

Directions: Find the missing number from the given responses.

16.2/3,7/7 , , , , 11/21,16/31
(a) 6/11

(b) 5/9
(c) 9/17

(d) 7/13

17. 25, 50, 30, 45, 35, 40, ?
(a) 30

(b) 35

(c) 40

(d) 45

18. If ‘+’ stands for division, ‘÷’ stands for multiplication, ‘x’ stands for subtraction and ‘–’ stands for addition, which one of the following is correct?
(a) 18 ÷ 6 – 7 + 5 × 2 = 20
(b) 18 + 6 ÷ 7 × 5 – 2 = 18
(c) 18 × 6 ÷ 7 + 5 – 2 = 16
(d) 18 ÷ 6 × 7 + 5 – 2 = 22

19. If ‘–’ stands for division, ‘+’ for multiplication, ‘÷’ for subtraction and ‘×’ for addition, which one of the following equations is correct?
(a) 18 ÷ 3 × 2 + 8 – 6 = 10
(b) 18 – 3 + 2 × 8 ÷ 6 = 14
(c) 18 – 3 ÷ 2 × 8 + 6 = 17
(d) 18 × 3 + 2 ÷ 8 – 6 = 15

20. If 324 x 150 = 54, 251 x 402 = 48 and 523 x 246 = 120 then 651 x 345 =?
(a) 120

(b) 85
(c) 144

(d) 60

21. Some equations are solved on the basis of certain system. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.
If 12 × 7 = 408 and 9 × 8 = 207 then 13 x 7 = ?
(a) 190

(b) 91
(c) 901

(d) 109

22. If NOIDA is written as STNIF, how MEERUT can be written in that code?
(a) QIIVYX

(b) RJJWZV
(c) RJJWZY

(d) RIIVYX

23. In a certain code FORGET is written as DPPHCU, how would DOCTOR be written in that code?
(a) BPAUMS

(b) BPAUPS
(c) EMDRPP

(d) BPARPP

24. In a certain code DECEMBER is written as ERMBCEDE, in that code which word will be written as ERMBVENO?
(a) SEPTEMBER

(b) AUGUST
(c) NOVEMBER

(d) OCTOBER

25. If RED is coded as 6720, then how GREEN would be coded?
(a) 9207716

(b) 1677199
(c) 1677209

(d) 16717209

ANSWERS :

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (a) 21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25.

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(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-4 (General Awareness)

(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-4

(General Awareness)

26. Pope Benedict XVI who has been elected recently is the
(a) 250th Pope

(b) 260th Pope
(c) 265th Pope

(d) 270th Pope

27. Who among the following has been awarded the Pravasi Bharatiya Samman for his outstanding achievement in their field and fostering.understanding of India abroad ?
(a) Vikram Seth

(b) Ms. Indira Nooyi
(c) Laxmi Mittal

(d) Sunil Mittal

28. According to AT Kearney Inc, which country is the hottest destination for foreign direct investment?
(a) India

(b) China
(c) Malaysia

(d) Mauritius

29. The country with which India has decided to exchange its border maps is:
(a) Bangladesh

(b) China
(c) Bhutan

(d) Nepal

30. Per Capita income is maximum in which of the following states in India?
(a) Himachal Pradesh

(b) Punjab
(c) Gujarat

(d) Goa

31. The author of the book “Environmental Jurispru-dence” is:
(a) Justice Y.V. Chandrachud
(b) Justice Ashok A. Desai
(c) Justice A. K. Sood
(d) Justice Prem Nagar

32. Which one of the following is true regarding plant cells and animal cells ?
(a) Plant cells contain chloroplast while animal cells do not.
(b) Plant cells are small while animal cells are large in size
(c) Plant cells contain nucleus while animal cells do not
(d) Plant cells and animal cells are similar in all respects

33. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was associated with-
(a) Industrial Policy

(b) Banking Reforms

(c) Panchayati Raj

(d) Centre-State relations

34. The blood cholesterol level in 100 ml of blood in a normal person varies between-
(a) 150 and 200 mg

(b) 120 and 200 mg

(c) 100 and 180 mg

(d) 80 and 160 mg

35. What is the name of the electronic communication network of the Reserve Bank of India ?
(a) BOLT

(b) RBISAT
(c) RBINET

(d) RBIDOT

36. Heat resistant variety of glass is-
(a) Pyrex glass

(b) Hard glass

(c) Flint glass

(d) None of these

37. Which of the following is correctly matched ?
(a) “Do or die” - Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) “Dilli Chalo” - Mahatma Gandhi
(c) “Jai Jawan Jai Kisan” Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) “Swaraj is my birthright”-Swami Dayanand

38. Pope John Paul II who died recently belonged from-
(a) Vatican City

(b) England

(c) Germany

(d) Poland

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39. Silk is obtained from-
(a) Mulberry tree

(b) Saliva of the silk worm
(c) Larvae of silk worm
(d) Cocoon of silk worm

40. The body temperature is regulated by-
(a) Pituitory gland

(b) Hypothalamus

(c) Pineal gland

(d) Thyroid gland

41. Among the following iron ores, the highest percentage of iron content is found in-
(a) Haemetite

(b) Magnetite

(c) Limnonite

(d) None of these

42. A country’s balance of trade is unfavourable when -
(a) exports exceed imports
(b) imports exceed exports
(c) terms of trade become unfavourable
(d) None of these

43. Pasteurisation of milk mean-
(a) heating of milk to above 72°C

(b) heating of milk to above 62°C
(c) cooling of milk to about 62°C
(d) cooling of milk to about 10°C

44. The highest mountain peak of the Himalayas is situated in-
(a) India

(b) Tibet

(c) Nepal

(d) China

45. Goa was captured by the Por- tuguese in the year-
(a) 1508

(b) 1608

(c) 1510

(d) 1610

46. The light from the Sun reaches the Earth in about-
(a) 8 seconds

(b) 8 minutes

(c) 10 seconds

(d) 10 minutes

47. The data collection for national income estimation is con- ducted in India by-
(a) The Finance Ministry of the Government of India

(b) The RBI
(c) The NSSO (National Sample Survey Organisation)
(d) None of these

48. Which of the following statements best explains the nature of revolt of 1857 ?
(a) The last effort of the old political order to regain power.
(b) Mutiny of a section of sepoys of the British Army
(c) A struggle of the common people to overthrow common rule
(d) An effort to establish a limited Indian nation

49. Match the following
A. Brahmo Samaj 1. Bombay
B. Veda Samaj 2. Bengal
C. Arya Samaj 3. Madras
D. Prarthana 4. North India Samaj

A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 2 3 4 1

50. Land Revenue under Tipu-
(a) was mainly collected through revenue officers.

(b) was mainly collected by Government officials appointed by Tipu
(c) was collected by intermediaries
(d) was not allowed to go into the hands of Sultan

51. In India the largest public undertaking is -
(a) Air India

(b) Indian Railways
(c) IOC

(d) LIC

52. Who was the advocate at the famous INA Trials?
(a) Bhulabhai Desai

(b) Asaf Ali
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) C. Rajagopalachari

53. Punjab National Bank has been honoured with the Golden Peacock Award 2002 for excellence in-
(a) agricultural finance

(b) rural industrialisation

(c) housing development

(d) corporate excellence

54. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution ?
(a) J. B. Kripalani

(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) J. L. Nehru

(d) B. R. Ambedkar

55. Which year did Bankim Chandra Chatopadhyay write Anandmath ?
(a) 1858

(b) 1892
(c) 1882

(d) None of these

56. The Governor-General of India who initiated the introduction of English in India was-
(a) Lord Curzon

(b) Lord Macaulay

(c) Lord Bentinck

(d) Lord Hastings

57. Who is the winner of the Australian Open Women’s Singles Championship-2005 ?
(a) Serena Williams

(b) Sania Mirza
(c) Maria Sarapova

(d) Lindsay Davenport

58. Monoculture is a typical characteristic of-
(a) shifting cultivation

(b) subsistence farming

(c) specialised horticulture
(d) commercial grain farming

59. Mountain soil contains a lot of-
(a) humus

(b) clay

(c) coase material

(d) iron and aluminium salt

60. Metamorphic rocks originate from-
(a) igneous rocks

(b) sedimentary rocks

(c) both igneous and sedimentary rocks
(d) None of these

61. The term ‘epicentre’ is associated with-
(a) earthquake

(b) folding

(c) faulting

(d) earth’s interior

62. India is a republic because-
(a) it is democratic country

(b) It is a parliamentary democracy
(c) the head of the state is elected for a definite period
(d) All of these

63. Blizzards are characteristic lea lures of-
(a) equatorial region

(b) tropical region

(c) Antarctic region

(d) temperate region

64. Which is the shortest route from Moscow to San Francisco ?
(a) via Canada

(b) overland
(c) Over the South Pole

(d) Over the North Pole

65. Which one of the following is/ are wrongly matched ?
A. typhoons - China Sea
B. hurricanes - India Ocean
C. cyclone - West Indies
D. tornadoes - Australia
(a) A, B and C

(b) A, B and D
(c) A, C and D

(d) B, C and D

66. Echo sounding is the technique applied to-
(a) measure the depth of the sea

(b) measure the amplitude of sound waves
(c) record earthquake waves
(d) record the density of air in the atmosphere

67. Of which major river system is the Sutlej a part?
(a) Indus

(b) Ganga
(c) Brahmaputra

(d) Yamuna

68. Rajasthan reveives very little rain because-
(a) it is too hot

(b) there is no water available and thus the winds remain dry
(c) the monsoon fails to reach this area
(d) the winds do not come across any barriers to cause the necessary uplift to cool the wind

69. Which State has the largest proportion of its net irrigation area under well irrigation ?
(a) Haryana

(b) Bihar
(c) Gujarat

(d) West Bengal

70. Which Government agency is responsible for the mapping and exploration of minerals in India ?
(a) Survey of India
(b) Geological Survey of India
(c) Minerals Development Corporation
(d) School of Mines

71. The largest number of cotton textile mills is in-
(a) Maharashtra

(b) Gujarat

(c) Tamil Nadu

(d) Karnataka

72. Where are MIG engines assembled ?
(a) Koraput

(b) Nasik
(c) Bangalore

(d) Ozar

73. Which cities were first connected by the STD services?
(a) Delhi and Mumhal

(b) Delhi and Kolkata
(c) Kanpur and Delhi

(d) Kanpur and Lucknow

74. Which part of the Himalayas has the maximum stretch from east to West ?
(a) Kumaun Himalayas

(b) Assam Himalayas
(c) Punjab Himalayas

(d) Nepal Himalayas

75. The standard time of a country differs from the GMT in multiples of-
(a) Two hours

(b) One hour

(c) Half hour

(d) Four minutes

ANSWERS :

26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (d) 31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (b) 41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (b) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (c) 61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (a) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (c) 71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (d) 74. (d) 75.

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(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-4

(General Inteligence & Reasoning)

1. As Lira is related to Italy, so is taka related to which country?
(a) Pakistan

(b) India
(c) England

(d) Bangladesh

2. As soft is related to wax, so is leather related to what ?
(a) Plain

(b) Rough
(c) Smooth

(d) Tough

3. As music is related to tune, so is design related to -
(a) Beauty

(b) Building
(c) Architecture

(d) Symmetry

4. As alphabet is related to letters, similarly necklace is related to what ?
(a) Gold

(b) Beads
(c) Ornament

(d) Silver

5. Paddy : Field :: Steel . ?
(a) Iron

(b) Factory
(c) Ore

(d) Mine

6. Laugh : Joke :: ? : Cracker
(a) Fear

(b) Anger
(c) Fireball

(d) Explode

7. President : India: : King
(a) England

(b) China
(c) Jordan

(d) France

8. Light : Rays: : Sound : ?
(a) Audio

(b) Wave
(c) Hear

(d) Visual

9. PCWL : REXM :: THNY : ‘?
(a) OZPL

(b) KOVZ
(c) PMKZ

(d) VJOZ

Directions: Find out the missing letter number in each of the following questions ?
10. 0, 2, 6, 12, ?. 30. 42
(a) 24

(b) 20
(c) 21

(d) 22

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11. 5, 7, 11, 19, 35, 67, ?, 259
(a) 130

(b) 129
(c) 131

(d) 140

12. 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, 127, ?
(a) 255

(b) 260
(c) 245

(d) 265

13. 7, 12, 22, 37, ?,82,112,147

(a) 50

(b) 58
(c) 57

(d) 156

14. –1, 2, 7, ?, 23, 34, 47
(a) 13

(b) 14
(c) 12

(d) 15

15. a-bbc-aab-as-abba-
(a) cabaa

(b) bacba

(c) bbaaa

(d) aabba

16. nc-dcn—cddc-n-ddcnn-d
(a) cdndc

(b) dnncc
(c) dcndd

(d) nccdn

Directions: Identify the odd man out in the following questions.

17. (a) Gupta dynasty
(b) Nanda dynasty
(c) Maurya dyasty
(d) Chola dynasty

18. (a) Vayudoot
(b) Pushkar
(c) Indian Airlines
(d) Air India

19. (a) Andaman-Nicobar
(b) Puducherry
(c) Delhi (d) Goa

20. (a) Violent

(b) Blue
(c) Green

(d) White

21. (a) CRDT

(b) APBQ
(c) EUFV

(d) GWHX

22. (a) Harmless

(b) Guilty
(c) Innocent

(d) Fearless

23. (a) 2

(b) 5
(c) 8

(d) 11

24. (a) 44

(b) 66
(c) 132

(d) 300

25. (a) Diptheria

(b) Cataract
(c) Whooping Cough
(d) Encephalitis

ANSWERS :

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25.

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General Intelligence

Reasoning

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(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-4

(Mathematics)

76. The value of (256)0.16 × (256)0.09 is :
(a) 256.25

(b) 64
(c) 16

(d) 4

77. Simplify :

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90. Fraction between 2/5 and 4/9 is :

(a) 3/7

(b) 2/3

(c) 4/5

(d) 1/2

91. If 1/3 of a tank holds 80 litres of water, then the quantity of water that 1/2 tank holds is :
(a) 240 litres

(b) 120 litres
(c) 80/3 litres

(d) 100 litres

92. The LCM of two numbers is 495 and their HCF is 5. If the sum of numbers is 100, then their difference is :
(a) 10

(b) 46
(c) 70

(d) 90

93. LCM of two numbers is 225 and their HCF is 5. If one number is 25, the other number will be :
(a) 5

(b) 25
(c) 45

(d) 225

94.2/3 of three-fourth of a number is:
(a) 1/2 of the number

(b) 1/3 of the number

(c) 8/9 of the number

(d) 17/12 of the number

95. If we write 45 as sum of four numbers so that when 2 is added to first number, 2 subtracted from second number, third multiplied by 2 and fourth divided by 2, we get the same result, then the four numbers are:
(a) 1, 8, 15, 21

(b) 8, 12, 5, 20
(c) 8, 12, 10, 15

(d) 2, 12, 5, 26

96. Four numbers are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4. Their sum is 16. The sum of the first and fourth number is equal to :

(a) 5

(b) 8
(c) 10

(d) 80

97. If 3 times a number exceeds its 3/5 by 60, then what is the number?
(a) 25

(b) 35
(c) 45

(d) 60

98. The numeraor and denominator of a fraction are in the ratio of 2 : 3. If 6 is subtracted from the numerator, the result is a fration that has a value 2/3 of the original fraction. The numerator of the original fraction is :
(a) 6

(b) 18
(c) 27

(d) 36

99. The sum of three consecutive odd natural numbers is 147. Then, the middle number is :
(a) 47

(b) 48
(c) 49

(d) 51

100. If 5432*2 is divisible by 9, then the digit in place of * is :
(a) 0

(b) 1
(c) 6

(d) 9

ANSWERS :

76. (d) 77. (c) 78. (c) 79. (a) 80. (d) 81. (c) 82. (c) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (d) 86. (b) 87. (a) 88. (l) 89. (d) 90. (a) 91. (b) 92. (a) 93. (c) 94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (b) 97. (l) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (c)

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(Mathematics)

76. A man buys 12 articles for Rs. 12/- and sells them at the rate of Rs. 1.25 per ar- ticle. His gain percentage is
(a) 20

(b) 25
(c) 15

(d) 18

77. The cost price of 15 articles is same as the selling price of 10 articles. The profit per cent is:
(a) 30%

(b) 40%
(c) 50%

(d) 45%

78. By selling an article for Rs. 240, a man incurrs a loss of 10%. At what price should he sell it, so that he makes a profit of 20% ?
(a) Rs. 264

(b) Rs. 288
(c) Rs. 300

(d) Rs. 320

79. A house and a shop were sold for Rs. 1 lakh each. In this transaction, the house sale resulted into 20% loss whereas the shop sale into 20% profit. The entire transaction resulted in
(a) no loss no gain

(b) gain of Rs. 1/24 lakh

(c) loss of Rs. 1/12 lakh

(d) loss of Rs.1/18 lakh

80. If a man estimates his loss as 20% of the selling price, then his loss per cent is
(a) 20%

(b) 25%
(c)40/3%
(d) Data inadequate

81. If x = 1/3y and Y =1/2z ,then x : y : z, is equal to
(a) 3: 2: 1

(b) 1: 2: 6
(c) 1: 3: 6

(d) 2: 4: 6

82. Divide Rs. 1250 among A, B, C, so that A gets 2/9 of B’ss share and C gets 4 of A’s share.
(a) Rs. 200, Rs. 800, Rs. 250
(b) Rs. 200, Rs. 900, Rs. 150
(c) Rs. 150, Rs. 800, Rs. 300
(d) Rs. 200, Rs. 900, Rs. 75

83. The ratio of two numbers is 3 :8 and their difference is 115. The smaller of the two numbers is
(a) 184

(b) 194
(c) 69

(d) 59

84. Between two consecutive years my incomes are in the ratio of 2 : 3 and expenses in the ratio 5 : 9. If my income in the second year is Rs. 45000 and my expenses in the first year is Rs. 25000 my total savings for the two years is
(a) Nil

(b) Rs. 15000
(c) Rs. 10000

(d) Rs. 5000

85. Rs. 180 contained in a box consists of one rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. What is the number of 50 paise coins?
(a) 60

(b) 120
(c) 150

(d) 180

86. Of the three numbers whose average is 60, the first is one fourth of the sum of the others. The first number is
(a) 30

(b) 36
(c) 42

(d) 45

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87. The average of 11 numbers is 10.8. If the average of the first six be 10.4 and that of the last six is 11.5, then the middle (6th) number is
(a) 10.3

(b) 12.6
(c) 13.5

(d) 15.5

88. The average age of 12 players of a team is 25 years. If the captain’s age is included, the average age increases by 1 year. The age of the captain is :
(a) 25 yrs.

(b) 38 yrs.
(c) 36 yrs.

(d) 26 yrs.

89. The average income of 40 persons is Rs. 4200 and that of another 35 persons is Rs. 4000. The average income of the whole group is:
(a) Rs. 4100

(b) Rs. 4106 3
(c) Rs. 410623

(d) Rs. 4108 3

90. The length of the diagonal of a square is ‘a’ cm. Which of the following represents the area of the square (in sq. cm.) ?
(a) 2a

(b) a/√2

(c) a²/2

(d) a²/4

91. If the volumes of two cubes are in the ratio 27: 1, the ratio of their edges is
(a) 3 : 1

(b) 27 : 1
(c) 1 :3

(d) 1 : 27

92.The sides of a rectangular plot are in the ratio 5:4 and its area is equal to 500 sq.m. The perimeter of the plot is
(a) 80m.

(b) 100m.
(c) 90m.

(d) 95m.

93. The radius of a wheel is 21 cm. How many revolution will it make in travelling 924 metres?

(a) 7

(b) 11
(c) 200

(d) 700

94. The edges of a cuboid are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and its surface area is 88cm². The volume of the cuboid is:

(a) 120 cm³

(b) 64 cm³

(c) 48 cm³

(d) 24 cm³

95. The area of a sector of a circle of radius 5 cm, formed by an arc of length 3.5 cm is
(a) 8.5 cm²

(b) 8.75 cm²

(c) 7.75 cm²

(d) 7.50 cm²

97. A solid metallic cone of height 10 cm, radius of base 20 cm is melted to make spherical balls each of 4 cm. diameter. How many such balls can be made ?
(a) 25

(b) 75
(c) 50

(d) 125

98. The height of a conical tank is 60 cm and the diameter of its base is 64cm. The cost of painting it from outside at the rate of Rs. 35 per sq. m. is
(a) Rs. 52.00 approx.

(b) Rs. 39.20 approx.
(c) Rs. 35.20 approx.

(d) Rs. 23.94 approx.

99. A cylindrical tank of diameter 35 cm is full of water. If 11 litres of water is drawn off, the water level in the tank will drop by :

100. A and B can do a piece of work in 72 days. B and C can do it in 120 days, A and C can do it in 90 days. In how many days all the three together can do the work ?
(a) 80 days

(b) 100 days
(c) 60 days

(d) 150 days

ANSWERS :

76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (d) 81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (d) 85. (b) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (c) 91. (a) 92. (c) 93. (d) 94. (c) 95. (b) 96. (c) 97. (d) 98. (d) 99. (d) 100. (c)

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(General Awareness)

26. The most important uranium mine of India is located at
(a) Manavalakurichi

(b) Gauribidanur
(c) Vashi

(d) Jaduguda

27. Parliamentary forni of Government is also known as:
(a) Responsive Government
(b) Responsible Government
(c) Federal Government

(d) Presidential Government

28. The chief advocate of Fascism was
(a) Mussolini

(b) Adolf Hitler
(c) St. Simon

(d) Robert Owen

29. The minimum age of the member of Rajya Sabha is
(a) 25 years

(b) 21 years
(c) 30 years

(d) 35 years

30. Mahatma Gandhi got his inspiration for Civil Disobedience from
(a) Tuoreau

(b) Ruskin
(c) Confucius

(d) Tolstoy

31. India is considered as a ‘Republic’ Mainly because
(a) the head of the State is elected.
(b) it gained independence on 15th August 1947
(c) it has its own written constitution
(d) it is having a Parliamentary form of Government.

32. The first Indian selected for Indian Civil Service was
(a) Surendra Nath Banerji

(b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai

(d) C. R. Das

33. One feature is common to the following bodies. Find it out. Supreme Court, Election Commission, UPSC, Office of CAG
(a) They are advisory bodies.
(b) They are extra constitutional bodies
(c) They are controlled by legislature.
(d) They are constitutional bodies.

34. How many members of the State Legislative Council are elected by the Assembly ?
(a) 1/6 th of the members

(b) 1/3rd of the members

(c) 1/12 th of the members

(d) 5/6th of the members

35. Girish Karnad is
(a) a well known playwright and actor.
(b) a recipient of Gnanpith Award
(c) the President of the Film and Television Institute of Indian Society.
(d) all the above.

36. Nine time Wimbledon Champion of Women’s Singles Match in Tennis is
(a) Mary Joe Fernandaz

(b) Jana Novotna
(c) Iva Majoli

(d) Martina Navrotilova

37. The book “The God of small things” is written by
(a) Pupul Jayakar

(b) Sobha De
(c) Shekhar Kapoor

(d) Arundhati Roy

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38. Which of the following states is called Tiger State’ of India?
(a) Himachal Pradesh

(b) Gujarat
(c) Madhya Pradesh

(d) Assam

39. The district Primary Education Programme-a Centrally Sponsored Programme in India is supported by
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) World Bank

(c) UNESCO
(d) Japanese Government

40. ‘Na Khatam Honewali Kahani’ (The never ending story) is an autobiography of
(a) T.N. Seshan

(b) Amitabh Bachchan
(c) Sonia Gandhi

(d) V.P. Singh

41. From where was India’s multipurpose telecommunication satellite INSAT-2 E launched?
(a) Baikanour

(b) Thumba
(c) Sriharikota

(d) Kourou

42. Antyodaya Programme is associated with
(a) liberation of bonded labour
(b) bringing up cultural revolution in India
(c) demands of textile labourers
(d) upliftment of the poorest of the poor

43. A few years ago an Indian city celebrated its 400th birthday. It is
(a) Bangalore

(b) Hyderabad
(c) Trivandrum

(d) Mumbai

44. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade was replaced by
(a) North American Free Trade Association
(b) South Asian Free Trade
(c) World Trade Organisation
(d) None of these

45. Which statement on the Harappan Civilisation is correct?
(a) Horse sacrifice was known to them.
(b) Cow was sacred to them.
(c) Pashupati was venerated by them.
(d) The culture was not generally static.

46. The First Tirthankara of the Jams was
(a) Arishtanemi

(b) Parshvanath
(c) Ajitanath

(d) Rishabha

47. The great silk route to the Indians was opened by:
(a) Kanishka

(b) Ashoka

(c) Harsha

(d) Fa-Hien

48. The capital of the Yadava rulers was
(a) Dwarasamudra
(b) Warangal
(c) Kalyani

(d) Devagiri

49. Which religious sect did the Chola Kings patronise ?
(a) Jainism

(b) Buddhism
(c) Saivism

(d) Vaishnavism

50. Tower of Victory (Vijaya Stambh) is located at
(a) Delhi

(b) Jhansi
(c) Chittorgarh

(d) Fatehpur Sikri

51. Who amongst the following leaders of “1857” was the first to lay down his/her life?
(a) Kunwar Singh

(b) Tantiya Tope
(c) Rani Laxmi Bai of Jhansi
(d) Mangal Pandey

52. The system of communal electorate in India was first introduced by
(a) Indian Council Act of 1892.
(b) Minto-Morley reforms of 1909
(c) Montagu-Chelmsford reforms of 1919
(d) Government of India of 1935

53. Which of the following is not a necessary condition for the development of India ?
(a) Capital Accumulation
(b) Resource discovery
(c) Population growth
(d) Technological development

54. Personal disposable income is
(a) always equal to personal income.
(b) always more than personal income.
(c) equal to personal income minus direct taxes paid by household.
(d) equal to personal income minus indirect taxes.

55. Which of the following most closely approximates our definition of oligopoly ?
(a) The cigarette industry.
(b) The barber shops
(c) The gasoline stations
(d) Wheat farmers

56. Who said ‘Supply creates its own demand’?
(a) Adam Smith

(b) J.B.Saw
(c) Marshall

(d) Ricardo

57. The Indian economy can be most appropriately described as a:
(a) Capitalist economy

(b) Socialist economy
(c) Traditional economy

(d) Mixed economy

58. Agricultural Technology is hard to spread because
(a) it has to be adopted to local ‘ conditions.
(b) rural people are not receptive

(c) farmers are afraid to experiment on land for fear of failure.
(d) all of the above.

59. Indirect tax means
(a) there is not direct relationship between the tax payer and the government.
(b) direct relationship between tax payer and the government.
(c) tax base is income
(d) the incidence and impact are on the same person on whom tax is imposed.

60. One of the essential conditions of perfect competition is
(a) product differentiation
(b) multiplicity of prices for identical products at any one time.
(c) many sellers and a few buyers.
(d) Only one price for identical goods at any one time.

61. Dehydration in human body is caused due to the loss of
(a) vitamins

(b) salts
(c) hormones

(d) water

62. Which of the following is the largest living bird?
(a) Eagle

(b) Peacock
(c) Ostrich

(d) Kiwi

63. In the case of test tube babies
(a) egg is fertilized in the uterus.
(b) embryo completes its development in a test tube.
(c) embryo is placed in uterus after 2 months.
(d) egg is fertilized outside mother’s body.

64. The age of trees is determined by its
(a) girth

(b) height
(c) growth rings
(d) general appearance

65. Kidney disease in man is caused by the pollutant
(a) Cadmium

(b) Iron
(c) Cobalt

(d) Carbon

66. Fruits of this plant are found underground
(a) Potato

(b) Carrot
(c) Groundnut

(d) Onion

67. A rare and endangered ani- mal in Silent Valley is
(a) Musk deer

(b) Tiger
(c) Liontailed macaque

(d) Rhinosores

68. A boat will submerge when it displaces water equal to its own :
(a) volume

(b) weight
(c) surface area

(d) density

69. The asteroids revolve round the Sun in between
(a) Earth and Mars

(b) Mars and Jupiter
(c) Jupiter and Saturn

(d) Saturn and Uranus

70. The Suez Canal connects
(a) Mediterranean and Red seas.

(b) Baltic and Caspian Seas.
(c) Mediterranean and North Seas.
(d) Red Sea and Caspian Sea.

71. Khasi and Garo Tribes mainly live in
(a) Meghalaya

(b) Nagaland
(c) Mizoram

(d) Manipur

72. Which one of the following areas is noted for mangrove vegetation ?
(a) Lava forest of Kalimpong.
(b) Sajnekhali forest of South 24 Parganas.
(c) Dandakaranya forest of Orissa
(d) Carbet National Park of U.P.

73. Extensive deserts occur in the western tropical regions of continents because
(a) of easterly trade winds.
(b) cold ocean currents flow along the western coasts.
(c) of the effect of both the offshore easterly trade winds and cold ocean currents.
(d) the rate of evaporation is greater along the western margin areas.

74. The sea bed sloping gradually and bordering the continent is known as
(a) Coast

(b) Continental Shelf.
(c) Continental Platform.

(d) Continental Slope.

75. Match list I with list II and find out the correct answer from the code below the Lists.
List I(Cottage Industrial Products)
(a) Silk Saree

(b) Chikan
(c) Terracota

(d) Brass
List II(Producing Centres)
(a) Moradabad

(b) Gorakhpur
(c) Varanasi

(d) Lucknow Code
a b c d
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 1 4 3

ANSWERS :

26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (d) 31. (a) 32. () 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. () 41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (c) 51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (d) 61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (b) 70. (a) 71. (a) 72. (b) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (b)

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(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-2

(General Awareness)

26. Postal voting is otherwise called
(a) plural voting

(b) proxy voting
(c) weighted voting

(d) secret voting

27. Stability of the Government is assured in
(a) Parliamentary Form of Government.
(b) Presidential Form of Government.
(c) Plural Executive System
(d) Direction Democracy

28. According to the Indian Constitution, the vacancy in the office of the President of India shall be filled within
(a) 1 month

(b) 6 months
(c) 3 months

(d) 1 year

29. Who is the Tennis star to become World No. 1 seed at the youngest age?
(a) Stefii Graf

(b) Monica Seles
(c) Chris Evert

(d) Martina Hingis

30. What is “Vishva Mohini”?
(a) Name for India’s Beauty Queen
(b) The title given to Lata Mangeshkar for her contribution to music
(c) An Indian ship
(d) A famous book on Indian dances

31. The main function of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) is
(a) enforcing of Uruguay Round Agreements
(b) facilitating multilateral trade relations of member countries and reviewing trade policies
(c) administering trade dispute settlement procedures
(d) None of the above

32. Name the author of the book A Passage to England
(a) E. M. Forster

(b) Nirad C. Choudhary
(c) Vikram Seth

(d) Eric Segal

33. Which is the long-range missile that was tested by Pakistan in the wake of India testing Agni II?
(a) Ghauri II

(b) Shaheen I
(c) Hatf I

(d) Half II

34. The Indian Naval Ship being converted into a maritime museum is
(a) Sagar Samrat

(b) Kanishka
(c) Samrat Ashoka

(d) Vikrant

35. Prof. Amartya Sen is these days in the news because :
(a) he is internationally known as a leading social economist
(b) he has been awarded ‘Bharat Ratna’
(c) he is a recipient of Nobel Prize.
(d) All of the above

36. The first country to legalize medically assisted suicide is
(a) Australia

(b) United States
(c) Netherlands

(d) Switzerland

37. The Baisakhi Festival of the year 1999 is of great historical significance to Punjab because
(a) it commemorates the tercentenary of the foundation of Khalsa Panth
(b) it being the last such festival of the twentieth century
(c) of participation by a large number of Punjabis who are non resident Indians
(d) None of the above

38. Exobiology deals with the study of
(a) external characters of living organisms
(b) life on the surface of the earth
(c) life in the outer layers of atmosphere
(d) life in other planets and space

39. The Social System of the Harappans was
(a) Fairly egalitarian
(b) Slave-Labour based
(c) Colour (Varna) based
(d) Caste based

40. Which of the following Vedas provides information about the civilisation of the Early Vedic Age?
(a) Rig-veda

(b) Yajur-veda
(c) Atharva-veda

(d) Sama-veda

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41. The university which became famous in the post-Gupta Era was
(a) Kanchi

(b) Taxila
(c) Nalanda

(d) Vallabhi

42. Banabhatta was the court poet of which emperor?
(a) Vikramaditya

(b) Kumaragupta
(c) Harshavardhana

(d) Kanishka

43. The first Indian ruler, who established the supremacy of Indian Navy in the Arabian Sea was
(a) Rajaraja I

(b) Rajendra I
(c) Rajadhiraja I

(d) Kulottunga I

44. The Mughal painting reaches its / zenith during the reign of
(a) Akbar

(b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan

(d) Aurangzeb

45. Permanent Revenue settlement of Bengal was introduced by
(a) Clive

(b) Hastings
(c) Wellesley

(d) Cornwallis

46. The father of extremist movement in India is
(a) Motilal Nehru

(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Vallabhbhai Patel

(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

47. The World Bank normally gives
(a) short-term loans

(b) medium-term loans
(c) long-term loans
(d) medium and long-term loans

48. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) came into existence with
(a) Berlin Conference

(b) London Conference
(c) Brettonwoods Conference
(d) Rome Conference

49. Multiplier process in economic theory is conventionally taken to mean
(a) the manner in which prices increase
(b) the manner in which banks create credit
(c) income of an economy grows on account of an initial investment
(d) the manner in which government expenditure increases

50. Structural adjustment loans given by the World Bank are meant for
(a) increasing employment in agriculture
(b) increasing export-earning capacity of the borrower country
(c) reducing inequalities of income distribution
(d) encouraging capital-intensive industries

51. A financial instrument is called a ‘primary security’ if it represents the liability of
(a) some ultimate borrower
(b) the Government of India
(c) a primary cooperative bank
(d) a commercial bank

52. Service cooperatives are
(a) single purpose societies
(b) credit societies
(c) marketing societies
(d) multi-purpose societies

53. Output at break-even point is that output at which the producer is able to
(a) recover only operating costs
(b) recover total costs
(c) wipe out earlier losses
(d) earn a normal profit

54. India’s share in world trade since 1950.
(a) has been rising

(b) has been constant
(c) has been declining

(d) has shown a mixed trend

55. Animals do not have enzyme systems which enable them to make use of the energy from
(a) fat

(b) water
(c) protein

(d) carbohydrate

56. A clone is a colony of
(a) cells having different shapes
(b) cells having similar shape
(c) cells having similar genetic constitution
(d) cells having different genetic constitutions

57. The pollen grains of flowers pollinated by insects are:
(a) smooth and dry

(b) rough and sticky
(c) rough and dry

(d) large and showy

58. Which one of the following substances is used for preservation of food grains?
(a) Sodium benzoate

(b) Vinegar
(c) Sodium chloride
(d) Potassium permanganate

59. The disease caused by Asbestos is
(a) Emphysema

(b) Paralysis
(c) Diarrhoea

(d) Dysentery

60. In the eye, colour vision is effected by the presence of
(a) Choroid coat

(b) Sclerotic coat
(c) Rods

(d) Cones

61. Who has became the youngest lawmaker of Britain at the age of 20?
(a) Mhairi Black

(b) Julie Watson
(c) Linda Murray

(d) Renji Root

62. Congress President Sonia Gandhi has presented the G.K. Reddy Memorial National Award to whom of the folllowing?
(a) Vinod Mehta

(b) Rajeev Shukla
(c) Abhishek Bansal

(d) Neeraj Kohli

63. Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Saturday has launched three ambitious social security schemes, relating to the insurance and pension sector and intended at widening the process of financial inclusion.Which of the following is not among those?
(a) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (accident insurance)
(b) Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Yojana (life insurance)
(c) Kisan Jeevan Jyoti Yojana (life insurance)
(d) Atal Pension Yojana” (Pension)

64. In which state Prime minister Narendra Modi has inaugurated the upgraded steel plant of IISCO that has the country’s largest blast furnace?
(a) Burnpur, West Bengal
(b) Hamirpur,Himachal Pradesh
(c) Chandipur,West Bengal
(d) Raipur, Chattisgarh

65. Which Bank has emerged the only Indian company among the world’s 10 biggest consumer financial services firms, after giants like American Express, Visa and Mastercard?
(a) State Bank Of India

(b) ICICI Bank
(c) HDFC Bank

(d) IDBI Bank

66. Who has won Spanish Grand Prix 2015?
(a) Hamilton murray

(b) Sebastian Vette
(c) Andy Smith

(d) Nico Rosberg

67. Name the Malaysian woman who has become the world’s oldest women(and also the oldest living person, presently).
(a) Nurul Yeoh

(b) Yati Musdi
(c) Michele Chia

(d) Celine Choo

68. In which country, military chopper has crashed 7 people including the ambassadors of the Philippines and Norway?
(a) Russia

(b) Pakistan
(c) Afghanistan

(d) Yemen

69. Who has been appointed as the new member in the Central Board of Direct Taxes, the apex policy making body of the Income Tax department?
(a) S K Ray

(b) P K shah
(c) Anil Bansal

(d) Suraj Kapoor

70. Which political party has expelled the Anupriya Patel,Member of Parliament from all party posts?
(a) Apna Dal

(b) Janta Dal
(c) AAP

(d) Bharatiya Janta Party

71. Who has crowned with TOISA Sports person Of the year ?
(a) Jitu Rai

(b) Saina Nehwal
(c) Mary Kom

(d) Virat Kohli

72. Who has Crowned “ Lifetime Achievement Of The Year” from the legendary Olympic Champion Carl Lewis and Times Group MD Vineet Jain in a ceremony that was attended by India’s sporting people?

(a) Sachin Tendulkar

(b) Kapil Dev
(c) Milkha Singh

(d) P T usha

73. Who has won the “Youth Icon of the Year” at TOISA?
(a) Jitu Rai

(b) Saina Nehwal
(c) Mary Kom

(d) Virat Kohli

74. Name the veteran film actor conferred with the prestigious Dada Saheb Phalke award at the landmark Prithvi Theatre in Mumbai by Union Information and Broadcasting Minister on 10th May’15.
(a) Shashi Kapoor

(b) Mukhesh khanna
(c) Rekha

(d) Anil Kapoor
(5) None of these

75. Name the Programme under which Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 10th May’15 has unveiled three social security schemes.
(a) Bharat Nirman

(b) Jansurakhsha
(c) Manav Suraksha

(d) Safe India

Answer Keys :

26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (d) 31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (a) 41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (d) 51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (d) 61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (a) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (a) 71. (a) 72. (c) 73. (b) 74. (a) 75. (b)

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(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-2

(General Intelligence & Reasoning)

Directions (1-9): In each of the following questions select the related letters/word/number from the given alternatives.

1. CFIL : ORUX :: GDJM : ?
(a) HJLN

(b) NQST
(c) PSVY

(d) RTVX

2. BEHK : YVSP :: DGJM : ?
(a) JGDA (b) ROLI
(c) WTQN (d) ZWTQ

3. 24 : 60 : : 120 : ?
(a) 160 (b) 220
(c) 300 (d) 108

4. 392 : 28 : : 722 : ?
(a) 18 (b) 28
(c) 38 (d) 48

5. 123 : 36 : : 221 : ?
(a) 52 (b) 69
(c) 72 (d) 25

6. Timid : Ass : : Cunning : ?
(a) Ant (b) Fox
(c) Rabbit (d) Horse

7. Ecstasy : Gloom : : ?
(a) Congratulations : Occasion
(b) Diligent : Successful
(c) Measure : Scale
(d) Humiliation : Exaltation

8. Architect : Building : : Sculptor : ?
(a) Museum

(b) Stone
(c) Chisel

(d) Statue

9. MKQO : LNPR : : ? XVTZ
(a) YSUW

(b) SVWY
(c) VTWY

(d) WYTS

Directions (10-15): In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/word from the given alternatives.

10. (a) PQXZ

(b) BCQN
(c) ABDF

(d) MNPR

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11. (a) ABYZ

(b) CDWX
(c) EFUV

(d) GHTV

12. (a) 626

(b) 841
(c) 962

(d) 1090

13. (a) 5720

(b) 6710
(c) 2640

(d) 4270

14. (a) Swimming
(b) Sailing
(c) Dividing
(d) Driving

15. (a) Perception
(b) Discernment
(c) Penetration
(d) Insinuation

Directions: In the following question from among the given alternative select the one in which the set of numbers is most like the set of number given in the questions.
Give Set: (4, 25, 81)

16. (a) (4, 36, 79)
(b) (9, 48, 81)
(c) (16, 64, 100)
(d) (9, 49, 143)

17. In the following question, number of letters are skipped in between by a particular rule. Which of the following series observes the rule?
(a) BAFHTU

(b) ACEGJL
(c) ACFJOU

(d) ADFHJL

Directions: In the following question, which one of the given response would be a meaningful order of the following?

18. (a) Ocean

(b) Rivulet
(c) Sea

(d) Glacier
(5) River
(a) 5,2,3,1,4

(b) 4,2,5,3,1
(c) 5,2,3,4,1

(d) 4,2,1,3,5

Directions: Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.

19. (a) Preposition

(b) Preperatively
(c) Preposterous

(d) Preponderate
(5) Prepossess
(a) 2,4,1,5,3

(b) 1,5,2,4,3
(c) 5,4,2,3,1

(d) 4,2,5,1,3

20. Which one of set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
Ac__cab__baca__aba__aca__
(a) acbcc

(b) aacbc
(c) babbb

(d) bcbba

Directions (21-24): In each of the following questions, a series is given, with one/two term(s) missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

21. _?_DREQ, GUHT, JXKW
(a) EFRS

(b) TGSF
(c) JWVI

(d) AOBN

22. 56, 90, 132, 184, 248, __?__
(a) 368

(b) 316
(c) 362

(d) 326

23. 0, 4, 8, 24, 64, 176, __?__
(a) 180

(b) 480
(c) 280

(d) 300

24. WTPMIFB __?__ __?__
(a) ZV

(b) XU
(c) YU

(d) YV

25. Mrs. Sushella celebrated her wedding anniversary on Tuesday, 30th September 1997. When will she celebrate her next wedding anniversary on the same day?
(a) 30 September 2003

(b) 30 September 2004
(c) 30 September 2002

(d) 30 October 2003

Answer Keys :

1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25.

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General Intelligence

Reasoning

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(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-2

(Mathematics)

Directions (1-9): In each of the following questions select the related letters/word/number from the given alternatives.

(a) 22

(b) 24
(c) 26

(d) 32

77. The breadth of a rectangular hall is three-fourths of its length. If the area of the floor is 768 sq. m. then the difference between the length and breadth of the hall is
(a) 8 metres

(b) 12 metres
(c) 24 metres

(d) 32 metres

78. A metallic hemisphere is melted and recast in the shape of a cone with the same base radius (R) as that of the hemisphere. If H is the height of the cone, then

79. A conical vessle whose internal radius is 12 cm and height 50 cm is full of liquid. The contents are emptied into a cylindrical vessel with radius (internal) 10 cm. The height to which the liquid rises in the cylindrical vessel is
(a) 25cm

(b) 20cm
(c) 24cm

(d) 22cm

80. Two right circular cylinders of equal volume have their heights in the ratio 1 : 2. The ratio of their radii is
(a)√ 2 : 1

(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 2

(d) 1 : 4

81. A and B can do a work in 12 days. B and C in 15 days. C and A in 20 days. If A, B and C work together, they will complete the work in:

82. A is thrice as good a work- man as B and therefore, able to finish a job in 60 days less than B. Working together they will do it in:

83. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. If both pipes are opened together, the time taken to fill the tank is:
(a) 50 minutes

(b) 12 minutes
(c) 25 minutes

(d) 15 minutes

84. If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days and 266 men and 48 boys can do the same in 2 days, the time taken by 15 men and 20 boys to do the same type of work will be:
(a) 5 days

(b) 4 days
(c) 6 days

(d) 7 days

85. A and B can do a work in 18 and 24 days respectively. They worked together for 8 days and then A left. The remaining work was finished by B in:

86. If a man walks 20 km at 5 km/hr, he will be late by 40 minutes. If he walks at 8 km per hr, how early from the fixed time will he reach?

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87. A boy rides his bicycle 10km at an average speed of 12 km per hr and again travels 12 km at an average speed of 10 km per hr His average speed for the entire trip is approximately:
(a) 10.4km/hr

(b) 10.8 km/hr
(c) 11.0 km/hr

(d) 12.2 km/hr

88. A train 180 m long moving at the speed of 20 m/sec. over-takes a man moving at a speed of 10m/sec in the same direction. The train passes the man in
(a) 6 sec

(b) 9 sec
(c) 18 sec

(d) 27 sec

89. The distance between two cities A and B is 330 km. A train starts from A at 8 a.m. and travels towards B at 60 km/ hr Another train starts from B at 9 a.m. and travels towards A at 75 km/hr At what time do they meet?
(a) 10 a.m.

(b) 10 : 30 a.m.
(c) 11 a.m.

(d) 11 : 30 a.m.

90. In covering a certain distance, the speeds of A and B are in the ratio of 3 : 4. A takes 30 minutes more than B to reach the destination. The time taken by A to reach the destination is

Directions : A survey of film watching habits of people living in 5 cities, I, II, III, IV and V is sum- marised below. The column
(a) gives percentage of film-watchers in each city who see only film a week. The column
(b) gives the total number of film-watchers who see more than one film per week. Read the table and answer question 115 and 120:
City (a) (b)
I 50 3200
II 30 3500
III 65 7000
IV 25 5400
V 80 2900

91. How many film-watchers in city II see only one film a week?
(a) 900

(b) 1500
(c) 1600

(d) 3200

92. Which city has the highest number of film-watchers who see only one film a week?
(a) I

(b) II
(c) III

(d) IV

93. The city with the lowest number of film-watcher is
(a) I

(b) II
(c) IV

(d) V

94. The city with the highest number of film-watchers is
(a) I

(b) V
(c) IV

(d) III

95. The total number of all film- watchers in the five cities who see only one film a week is
(a) 31100

(b) 29500
(c) 28600

(d) 28300

Directions: Questions are based on the following bar graph. Read the graph and answer the questions.

96. What is the percentage increase in the gross traffic receipts in 1995-96 as compared to 1993-94?
(a) 33.9%

(b) 41.5%
(c) 20.7%

(d) 17%

97. If profit = gross traffic receipts – total expenditure, then in 1996-97, what percentage of gross traffic receipts is the profit made?
(a) 5.9%

(b) 6.4%
(c) 7.2%

(d) 8%

98. In which year was the profit as a percentage of gross traffic receipts the highest?
(a) 1997-98

(b) 1996-97
(c) 1995-96

(d) 1994-95

99. In order to make a profit of 10%. What should have been the gross traffic receipts (in Rs. crores) in 1994-95, total expenditure remaining the same?
(a) 5,667

(b) 5,876
(c) 6,444

(d) 7,667

100. By what amount (in Rs. crores) has the expenditure increased over the period 1993-94 to 1997-98?
(a) 4,100

(b) 3,900
(c) 3,850

(d) 3,700

Answer Keys :

76. (a) 77. (a) 78. (a) 79. (c) 80. (a) 81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (b) 84. (b) 85. (b) 86. (c) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (c) 90. (c) 91. (b) 92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (d) 95. (a) 96. (b) 97. (a) 98. (d) 99. (c) 100. (d)

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(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-1

(General Awareness)

26. The source of the Sun’s energy is the process of:
(a) Photoelectric emission
(b) Nuclear fission
(c) Nuclear fusion
(d) Thermionic emission

27. Which of the following is not a stringed instrument ?
(a) Guitar

(b) Sitar
(c) Trumpet

(d) Violin

28. Who created the unforgettable literary character ‘Swami’?
(a) Vikram Seth

(b) R.K. Narayan
(c) Mulk Raj Anand

(d) Harivansh Rai Bachchan

29. Which of the following cities lies to the western-most longitude ?
(a) Jaipur

(b) Nagpur
(c) Bhopal

(d) Hyderabad

30. Supersonic jet causes pollution by thinning of
(a) O3 layer

(b) O2 layer

(c) SO2 layer

(d) CO2 layer

31. What is the animal on the insignia of the RBI ?
(a) Lion

(b) Tiger
(c) Panther

(d) Elephant

32. Which part of India is linked to the border by the Hindustan-Tibet road ?
(a) Shimla

(b) Garhwal
(c) North Bengal

(d) Kashmir Valley

33. Which of the following political groupings has won the highest number of Assembly seats at the general elections held in September-October, 2002 in Jammu and Kashmir ?
(a) Peoples Democratic Party
(b) Indian National Congress
(c) National Conference
(d) Peoples Democratic Front

34. Which is the hottest planet of the solar system?
(a) Mercury

(b) Mars
(c) Earth

(d) Saturn

35. The element which is the. most abundant in the human body is-
(a) oxygen

(b) carbon

(c) iron

(d) nitrogen

36. ‘Kuchipudi dance originated in
(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Karnataka
(c) Punjab

(d) Rajasthan

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37. Night blindness results from the deficiency of -
(a) Glucose

(b) Vitamin-E
(c) Vitamin-B2

(d) Vitamin-A

38. The details of statecraft are available in the following treatise -
(a) Dharma Shastra

(b) Nyaya Shastra
(c) Artha Shastra

(d) Niti Shastra

39. The country that has come forward to mediate in Sri Lanka is:
(a) Sweden

(b) Norway
(c) India

(d) Austria

40. The Legislative Council in a State in India may be created or abolished by the
(a) President on the recommendation of the Governor
(b) Parliament
(c) Parliament after the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect.
(d) Governor on a recommendation by the State Cabinet

41. The lengthiest Constitution in the world is
(a) Indian

(b) American
(c) British

(d) French

42. No Money bill can be introduced in the Lok Sabha without the prior approval of the
(a) Vice-President

(b) President
(c) Prime Minister

(d) Finance Minister

43. When did the British Govt. starl ruling India directly ?
(a) After the Battle of Plassey
(b) After the Battle of Panipat
(c) After the War of Mysore
(d) After Sepoy Mutiny

44. The term ‘secular’ was added in the Preamble to theIndian Constitution by
(a) 41st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 43rd Amendment

(d) 44th Amendment

45. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?
(a) Right to Equality

(b) Right to Liberty
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Right to Property

46. The major harmful gas emitted by automobile vehicle which causes air pollution is
(a) Carbon Monoxide

(b) Methane
(c) Carbon dioxide

(d) Ozone gas

47. Who finally approves the draft Five Year Plan ?
(a) Planning Commission

(b) President
(c) National Development Council
(d) Parliament and State Legislatures

48. The deciding authority of States share in central taxes is the
(a) Finance Commission

(b) Planning Commission
(c) Election Commission

(d) Finance Minister

49. The meausre of a worker’s real wage is
(a) The change in his productivity over a given time
(b) His earnings after deductionat source
(c) His daily earnings
(d) The purchasing power of his earnings

50. Which country is the latest to join the U.N. as a member?
(a) Switzerland

(b) Hong Kong
(c) Taiwan

(d) East Timor

51. How many feet has a crab got?
(a) 12 (b) 10
(c) 8 (d) 6

52. When was the Public Service Commission, the original version of the U.P.S.C. set up?
(a) 1st October, 1926

(b) 1st April, 1937
(c) 15th August, 1947

(d) 26th January, 1950

53. The main source of revenue for a State Government in India is
(a) Sales tax

(b) Excise duty
(c) Income tax

(d) Property tax

54. Where is the Swami Narayan temple, Akshar-dham located ?
(a) Dwaraka, Gujarat

(b) Puri, Orissa
(c) Mathura, Uttar Pradesh
(d) Gandhinagar, Gujarat

55. Which one of the following is found only in women ?
(a) Thyroid

(b) Pituitary
(c) Ovary

(d) Adenoid

56. Gamma rays can cause
(a) gene mutation

(b) sneezing
(c) burning

(d) fever

57. Which one of the following is NOT a function of kidney ?
(a) Regulation of blood pH
(b) Removal of metabolic wastes from the body
(c) Production of antibodies
(d) Regulation of osmotic pressures of the blood

58. Water in plants is transported by
(a) cambium

(b) phloem
(c) epidermis

(d) xylem

59. Which State of India has the largest reserves of monazite, with a high thorium content ?
(a) Kerala

(b) Karnataka
(c) Gujarat

(d) Maharashtra

60. The Indian Wild Ass (GhorKhur) is found in
(a) Sunderbans

(b) Assam forests
(c) The Rann of Kuchh

(d) Kaveri delta

61. Name the Jnanpith Award (2000) and National Award (1996 ) winner famous bengali writer who passed away recently.
(a) Bani Basu

(b) Suchitra Bhattacharya
(c) Tilottama Majumder

(d) Pritama Thakur

62. Name the indo-origin Lawmaker who has been elected by the Labor to replace Steve Whan in the New South Wales Upper House, making him the states “first politician of Indian origin in Australia”
(a) Hamilton murray

(b) Sebastian Vette
(c) Andy Smith

(d) Daniel Mookhey

63. Which State government is planning to install water ATM’s under “Samajwadi Shudha Payjal Yojna” at most of the bus stations, which will provide portable water at the rate of rupee one per litre and cold water at rate of

rupee two per litre?
(a) Gujarat

(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Delhi

(d) Hyderabad

64. Reserve Bank of India has directed all leading banks to appoint internal ombudsman to improve their customer service ,Recently.The Banking Ombudsman–
(a) is in charge of bank loans for buses
(b) fixes the rates of interest for loans
(c) resolves complaints of customers
(d) issues licences for new bank branches

65. In which city Strategic Petroleum Reserves by Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Ltd (ISPRL), is getting ready for commissioning later this year ?
(a) Kanpur

(b) Visakhapatnam
(c) Mysore

(d) Cuttack

66. The Narendra Modi govt. has appointed 4 new governors.Which of the following pair is not correct
(a) Jharkhand – Droupadi Murmu
(b) Arunachal Pradesh -J P Rajkhowa
(c) Tripura: Tathagata Roy
(d) Meghalaya : Syed Ahmed

67. Name the First Asian woman who has been appointed as mayor in UK.
(a) Harbhajan Kaur Dheer
(b) Ranjana Mehta (c) Usha Mahajan
(d) Ankita Kumari

68. Name the Picasso’s painting that has become the most expensive painting to sell at auction, going for 179.3 million dollar at Christie’s in New York.
(a) The old guitarist

(b) The Blue room
(c) Woman of Algiers

(d) Boy Leading a a Horse

69. PM Modi has shared specially created web-pages, on his upcoming visit to 3 countries. choose the incorrect option
(a) CHINA link-http://www.narendramodi.in/china_home
(b) MANGOLIA link- http://www.narendramodi.in/mongolia_home
(c) SOUTH KOREA link- http://www.narendramodi.in/southkorea_home
(d) BRAZIL link http://www.narendramodi.in/brazil_home

70. Judo union of Asia (J.U.A.) has elected Judo Federation of India President ..................... as the general secretary.
(a) Nikhil Singh

(b) Mukesh kumar
(c) Anuj Rao

(d) Deepak Yadav

71. Name the scheme under which Health Minister Mr JP Nadda has launched 5 cleanliness awards (2 best district hospitals, 2 best Community Health Centres or CHC, one award for PHC or Primary Health Centre).
(a) Purotsahan

(b) Kayakalp
(c) Shabashi
(d) Haq

72. India’s Rank in Human Capital Index is
(a) 112

(b) 70
(c) 100

(d) 138

73. Name the 8th standard Indian-American student who has won the prestigious “ National Geographic Bee Championship” after competing against 10 finalists from across USA, at National Geographic headquarters.
(a) Karan Menon

(b) Suraj Malik
(c) Dheeraj Sethi

(d) Rohit Aggrawal

74. RBI has relaxed 2-factors authentication norms for contactless cards upto Rs. 2,000 using NFC enabled credit and debit cards.Expand NFC.
(a) Near field communication
(b) Near free communication
(c) Near focusing communication
(d) Near field contact

75. Which state has become the first ever state in the country to issue Soil Health Cards or SHC to the farmers, a government initiative to all the farmers in the state ?
(a) Gujarat

(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Delhi

(d) Punjab

Answer Keys :

26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (a) 31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (a) 41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (d) 51. (d) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (c) 61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (d) 67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (b) 71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (d)

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(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-1

(Mathematics)

76. If a sum of money at simple interest doubles in 12 years, the rate of interest per annum is

77. 0.6 of a number is equal to 0.08 of another number. The ratio of the numbers will be
(a) 3 : 4

(b) 4 : 3
(c) 2 : 15

(d) 2 : 9

78.1/5 of a number exceeds 1/7 of the same number by 10. The number is :
(a) 125

(b) 150
(c) 175

(d) 200

79. A boys was asked to find the value of 3/8 of a sum of money. Instead of multiplying the sum by3/8 he divided it by 3/8 and then his answer exceeded by Rs. 55. Find the correct answer?

(a) Rs. 9

(b) Rs. 24
(c) Rs. 64

(d) Rs. 1,320

80. The sum of three consecutive odd natural numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest among them?
(a) 21

(b) 24
(c) 27

(d) 36

81. If *381 is divisible by 11, then the digit at tae place of *is
(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 4

(d) 7

82. By which smallest number should 5808 be multiplied so that it becomes a perfect square?
(a) 2

(b) 7

(c) 11

(d) 3

83. The least number which when divided by 4, 6, 8, 12 and 16 leaves a remainder of 2 in each case is
(a) 46

(b) 48

(c) 50

(d) 56

84. Sum of two numbers is 40 and their product is 375. What will be the sum of their reciprocals?
(a)8/75

(b) 1/40

(c)75/8

(d) 75/4

85. The product of the LCM and HCF of two numbers is 24.The difference of the two numbers is 2. Find the numbers ?
(a) 8 and 6

(b) 8 and 10
(c) 2 and 4

(d) 6 and 4

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86. In a class 3/5 of the students are girls and rest are boys. If 2/9 of the girls and 1/4 of the boys are absent. What part of the total number of students are present?
(a) 23/30

(b) 23/36

(c) 18/49

(d) 17/25

87. Two numbers differ by 5. If their product is 336, the sum of the two numbers is
(a) 21

(b) 28

(c) 37

(d) 51

88. The maximum number of students among whom 1001 pens and 910 pencils can be distributed in such a way that each student gets same number of pens and. same number of pencils, is:
(a) 91

(b) 910
(c) 1001

(d) 1911

89. Unit digit in (264)102 + (264)103 is:
(a) 0

(b) 4
(c) 6

(d) 8

90. Which one of the following is the least? 3 3 3 , 2, 2 and 4
(a) 2

(b) 3 4
(c) 3

(d) 3 2

(a) 1,200

(b) 2,400
(c) 3,000

(d) 3,200

92. If 80% of A = 50% of B and B = x% of A, then the value of x is:
(a) 400 (b) 300
(c) 160 (d) 150

93. If x is 80% of y, what percent of x is y?
(a) 75% (b) 80%
(c) 100% (d) 125%

94. In a town, the population was 8000. In one year, male population increased by 10% and female population increased by 8% but the total population increased by 9%. The number of males in the town was
(a) 4000 (b) 4500
(c) 5000 (d) 6000

95. In an examination, there were 1000 boys and 800 girls.60% of the boys and 50% of the girls passed. Find the percent of the candidates failed?
(a) 46.4

(b) 48.4
(c) 44.4

(d) 49.6

96. If A exceeds B by 40%, B is less than C by 20%, then A C is,:
(a) 28 : 25

(b) 26 : 25
(c) 3 : 2

(d) 3 : 1

97. Price of sugar rises by 20%. By how much percent should the consumption of sugar be reduced so that the expenditure does not change?

98. In a school 70% of the students are girls. The number of boys are 510. Then the total number of students in the school is
(a) 850

(b) 1700
(c) 1830

(d) 1900

99. Applied to a bill for Rs. 1,00,000 the difference between a discount of 40% and two successive discounts of 36% and 4% is
(a) Nil

(b) Rs. 1,440
(c) Rs. 2,500

(d) Rs. 4,000

100. A tradesman marks his goods 10% above his cost price. If he allows his customers 10% discount on the marked price, how much profit or loss does he make, if any?
(a) 1% gain

(b) 1% loss
(c) 5% gain
(d) No gain, no loss

Answer Keys :

76. (c) 77. (c) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (c) 81. (d) 82. (d) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (d) 86. (a) 87. (c) 88.(a) 89. (a) 90. (d) 91. (b) 92. (c) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (c) 96. (a) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (b) 100. (b)

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(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-1 (General Inteligence & Reasoning)

(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-1

(General Inteligence & Reasoning)

Directions : A statement followed by two assumptions I & II is given. Which one of the four given alternatives is correct ?

Statement : Imprisonment for 27 years made Nelson Mandela The President.

Assumptions : I. One who will be imprisoned for 27 years will become The President
II. To become The President imprisonment is a qualification.
(a) Only I is implicit.

(b) Only II is implicit.
(c) Both I & II are implicit.
(d) Neither I nor II is implicit.

2. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
CONVERSATION
(a) Nation

(b) Version
(c) Station

(d) Reason

3. A word is given in capital letters. It is followed by four words. Out of these four words, three cannot be formed from the letters of the word in capital letters. Point out the word which can be formed from the letters of the
given word in capital letters.
PREMONITION
(a) ACTION

(b) NATION
(c) MONITOR

(d) REMOVE

4. If A = 1, FAT = 27,then FAITH = ?
(a) 44

(b) 42

(c) 41

(d) 40

5. If the word ‘STOVE’ can be written as ‘FNBLK, how can the word ‘VOTES’ be written in that code?
(a) LBNKF

(b) LNBKF
(c) LKNBF

(d) FLKBN

6. If’PAPER’ is written as’OZODQ’, how ‘PENCIL’ can be written in that code ?
(a) QFODJM

(b) OFOBHM
(c) ODMDJM

(d) ODMBHK

7. There are five friends-S, K, M, A, R. S is shorter than K, but taller than R. M is the tallest. A is a little shorter than K and little taller than S. Who has two persons taller and two persons shorter than him ?

(a) R

(b) S

(c) K

(d) A

8. Rajiv is the brother of Atul. Sonia is the sister of Sunil. Atul is the son of Sonia. How is Rajiv related to Sonia ?
(a) Nephew

(b) Son
(c) Brother

(d) Father

9. Of the five members of a panel sitting in a row, A is to the left of B, but on the right of C, D is on the right of B but is on the left of E. Find the member who is sitting in the middle.
(a) B

(b) D

(c) A

(d) C

10. There are some boys and dogs at a place. If total number of heads is 7 and total number of legs is 20, how many boys and how many dogs are there?
(a) 2 boys and 5 dogs

(b) 3 boys and 4 dogs
(c) 4 boys and 3 dogs

(d) 5 boys and 2 dogs

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11. P, Q & R are educated, P, R & S are hard working, R, S & T are employed, P, Q, S & T are polite. Who is educated, hardworking, polite but not employed ?
(a) P

(b) Q

(c) R

(d) T

12. Rama travels 10 km towards the north, turns left and travels 4 km and then again turns right and covers another 5 km and then turns right and travels another 4 km. How far is he from the starting point ?
(a) 5 km.

(b) 10 km.
(c) 15 km.

(d) 19 km.

13. A man starts from a point, walks 2 km towards north,turns towards his right and walks 2 km, turns right again and walks. What is the direction now he is facing ?
(a) South

(b) East
(c) North

(d) West

Directions (14-18): In the following questions select the related letters/ word / number/figure from the given alternatives.

14. Mother : Child: : Cloud : ?
(a) Shine

(b) Water
(c) Rain

(d) Weather

15. Mountain : Hill :: Tree : ?
(a) Forest

(b) Shrub
(c) Leaf

(d) Ground

16. ADBC : WZXY : : EHFG : ?
(a) STUV

(b) TUSV
(c) STVU

(d) SVTU

17. JLNP : OMKI :: SUWY : ?
(a) MLKJ

(b) PLHD
(c) XVTR

(d) FGHI

18. 42 : 56 :: 72 : ?
(a) 81

(b) 90
(c) 92

(d) 100

19. 3265 : 4376:: 4673: ?
(a) 2154

(b) 5487
(c) 3562

(d) 5784

Directions (20-21): In each of the following questions a word given in Capital Letters is followed by four answer words. Out of these only one cannot be formed by using the letters of the given words. Find out that word.

20. INTEGRAL
(a) ENTREATY

(b) TRIANGLE
(c) RELATING

(d) ALERTING

21. RAPPROCHEMENT
(a) REPRESENT

(b) REPROACH
(c) PHANTOM

(d) CEMENT

22. In a code language the following alphabets are coded in a particular way

(a) BOUND

(b) BONUS
(c) BUNCH

(d) BOARD

23. If PALE is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590, how is PEARL coded in that code?
(a) 29530

(b) 24153
(c) 25413

(d) 25430

Directions: In question no. 24, find out from amongst the alternatives, the pair of number not belonging to the group for lack of common property.

24. (a) 64-8

(b) 80-9
(c) 7-49

(d) 36-6

Directions: From among the given alternatives select the one in which the set of numbers is most like the set of numbers given in the question.

25. Given set : 63, 49, 35
(a) 81, 63, 45

(b) 64, 40, 28
(c) 72, 40, 24

(d) 72, 48, 24

Answer Keys :

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25.

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(Paper) RRB Bhubaneshwar Group “D” Exam (Held On 30.09.2007) Part-3

102. 6.7 + 9(8-(2.6+1.5) + 12) = ?

(1) 13.6

(2) 31.6

(3) 143.1

(4) 149.8

103. The highest prize in literature of Indian government is

(1) Literature Prize

(2) Lalit Kala Puraskar

(3) Dada Saheb Phalke Puraskar

(4) Jnanpith Puraskar

104. The area of a circle whose radius is 3.5 cm. is

(1) 12.5 cm^₂

(2) 22.5 cm^₂

(2) 28.5 cm^₂

(4) 38.5 cm^₂

105. A sum of Rs. 6300 was lent at 5% rate of interest for 9 years. The simple interest will be

(1) Rs. 1840

(2) Rs. 1942

(3) Rs. 2742

(4) Rs. 2835

106. In the following the Belghar wild- life sanctuary is known for

(1) Crocodile

(2) Elephants

(3) Tigers

(4) None of these

107. International Gandhi Prize 2006 was given to

(1) Kofi Annan

(2) Desmond Tutu

(3) Yohi Sasakava

(4) Sunderial Bahuguna

108. The player of tournament of World Cup Cricket 2007 was

(1) Graeme Smith

(2) Muttaih Muralitharan

(3) Rahul Dravid

(4) Gelnn McGrath

109. If the compound interest on a certain sum for 2 years at the rate of 10% p.a. is Rs. 630, the sum is

(1) Rs. 1000

(2) Rs. 2000

(3) Rs. 3000

(4) Rs. 4000

110. The largest gland in human body to secrete bile is

(1) Gall bladder

(2) Liver

(3) Skin

(4) Pancreas

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111. The deepest lake of Asia is

(1) Rengali

(2) Pulicut

(3) Chilka

(4) Baikal

112. Chalk : Lime : : Coal : ?

(1) Carbon

(2) Fire

(3) Oven

(4) Chimney

113. Oriss is a chief producer of

(1) Wheat

(2) Cotton

(3) Pulse

(4) Jute

114. Which of the following is known for Bali journey?

(1) Cuttak

(2) Paradip

(3) Gopalpur

(4) Jajpur

115. In how many years will the simple interest on Rs. 6900 at the rate of 4% per annum be Rs. 2484?

(1) 4 years

(2) 7 years

(3) 9 years

(4) 12 years

116. In Forbes list, the richest man in the world is

(1) L.N. Mittal

(2) Bill Gates

(3) Queen Elizabeth

(4) George Bush

117. Jayadev belonged to

(1) Kakinada

(2) Machhalipatnam

(3) Vijaywada

(4) Puri

118. The study of heredity is called

(1) Anatomy

(2) Cytology

(3) Psychology

(4) Genetics

119. The last matches of Afro- Asian cricket championship were held in

(1) India

(2) Pakistan

(3) South Africa

(4) Kenya

120. Who is the first Indian spaceman?

(1) Homi Bhabha

(2) Rakesh Sharma

(3) Kalpana Chawla

(4) Sunita Williams

121. Which city hosted the Arab league conference?

(1) Dubai

(2) Muscat

(3) Riyadh

(4) Doha

122. If STORMY is coded as QVMTKA, then WINTER will be coded as

(1) UGLRCO

(2) UKLVCT

(3) XKNVDT

(4) XKLCVO

123. Barabat fort is situated at

(1) Cuttak

(2) Khurda

(3) Warangal

(4) Ahmedabad

124. The Commonwealth Games- 2010 will be held in

(1) Colombo

(2) Canberra

(3) New Delhi

(4) Dhaka

125. The dimensions of a rectangular hall are 5m x 4m x 3m. A window occupies an area of 4m^{2 . Without window the area of walls is}

(1) 50m²

(2) 54m²

(3) 56m²

(4) 60m²

126. The nature of carbon dioxide is

(1) Inflammable

(2) Smellless

(3) Yellowish

(4) Sour

127. The largest store of bauxite has been found in the district of

(1) Nellore

(2) Engule

(3) Vishakhapattnam

(4) Tulcher

128. X starts for his office and walks 500m straight and turns left and walks 300m. he again turns left and walks 500m. he then turns right to walk 900m. How far is he from his office?

(1) 1000 m

(2) 1000 m

(3) 1200 m

(4) 1300 m

129. Which of the following is a non-metallic element?

(1) Mercury

(2) Manganese

(3) Carbon

(4) Gold

130. In respect of territorial area, the state of Andhra Pradesh is placed at

(1) Third

(2) Fourth

(3) Fifth

(4) Sixth

131. The recently discovered earthlike planet has been named ______ by the European scientists.

(1) NW 581C

(2) EU 581C

(3) PL 581C

(4) GL 581C

132. Karnam Malleswari is related to

(1) Weightlifting

(2) Wrestling

(3) Shotput

(4) Long jump 14

133. 300 men can do a work in 16 days. To do of the work in 15 days the number of men required is

(1) 80

(2) 75

(3) 60

(4) 45

134. The south- west monsoon starts during

(1) May- June

(2) June- July

(3) July - August

(4) August- September

135. The chairman of the Planning Commission in India is

(1) Dr. Manmohan Singh

(2) Arjun Singh

(3) P. Chidambaram

(4) Pranab Mukherjee

136. Salarjung museum is located in

(1) Hyderabad

(2) Delhi

(3) Kolkata

(4) Ahmedabad

137. The chief foodgrain crop of Andhra Pradesh is

(1) Ragi

(2) Jowar

(3) Wheat

(4) Rice

138. If DEADLY is coded as GHDGOB, then MOTIVE will be coded as

(1) OQVKXG

(2) NPUJWF

(3) PRWLYH

(4) QSXMZI

139. If A : B = 2 :1 and B :C = 6 : 5, then A : B : C =?

(1) 2 : 6 : 5

(2) 2 : 7 : 5

(3) 4 :10 : 7

(4) 12 : 6 : 5

140. The state with lowest area is

(1) Lakshadwip

(2) Pudicherry

(3) Goa

(4) Delhi

141. 47 kmph is equivalent to

(1) 10.03 m/s

(2) 11.04 m/s

(3) 13.05 m/s

(4) 14.06 m/s

142. Rocket is launched from

(1) Balasore

(2) Sri Harikota

(3) Trombay

(4) Siachen

143. Who is the President of Afghanistan?

(1) Pervez Musharraf

(2) Hamid Karzai

(3) M. Ahmedinejad

(4) M. Abbaas

144. The first novelist of Orissa is

(1) Faqir Mohan Senapti

(2) Gopinath Mohanty

(3) Anant Patnaik

(4) Manoj Das

145. A trader marks his goods at 20% higher than the cost price and then allows a discount of 10%. His gain per cent is

(1) 8%

(2) 10%

(3) 12%

(4) 14%

146. The outermost layer of earthâ€™s atmosphere is

(1) Troposphere

(2) Lithosphere

(3) Mesosphere

(4) lonosphere

147. X, Y and Z can complete a work in 7, 14 and 28 days respectively. They together can complete the work in

(1) 4 days

(2) 8 days

(3) 12 days

(4) 16 days

148. A 140m long train is moving at 70 kmph. It will cross a man running at 4 kmph in the same direction of train in

(1) 4.63 seconds

(2) 5.63 seconds

(3) 6.63 seconds

(4) 7.63 seconds

149. 25m is what per cent of 7.5 km?

(1) 33%

(2) 3.3%

(3) 0.33%

(4) 0.03%

150. A tap can fill a tank in 8 minutes and an other tap can empty the tank in 16 minutes. If both the taps are opened together, the tank will be filled in

(1) 8 minutes

(2) 16 minutes

(3) 20 minutes

(4) 24 minutes

Answer Keys :

101. (4) 102. (4) 103. (4) 104. (4) 105. (4) 106. (2) 107. (3) 108. (4) 109. (3) 110. (2) 111. (4) 112. (1) 113. (4) 114. (4) 115. (3) 116. (2) 117. (4) 118. (4) 119. (4) 120. (2) 121. (3) 122. (2) 123. (1) 124. (3) 125. (1) 126. (4) 127. (1) 128. (3) 129. (3) 130. (3) 131. (4) 132. (1) 133. (1) 134. (1) 135. (1) 136. (1) 137. (4) 138. (3) 139. (4) 140. (1) 141. (3) 142. (2) 143. (2) 144. (2) 145. (1) 146. (4) 147. (1) 148. (4) 149. (3) 150. (1)

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51. The telegraphic code was invented by

(1) S.F.B. Morse

(2) Arcwright

(3) Thomas Addison

(4) G.Marconi

52. In a sum of Rs. 11.70, the coins of one rupee, 50 paise and 5 paise and 5 paise are in the ratio 3: 5 :7. Find the number of 50 paise coins.

(1) 6

(2) 10

(3) 14

(4) 20

53. Which place is famous for Jain caves ?

(1) Eilora

(2) Khandgiri

(3) Kapilash

(4) Sarnath

54. The first successful synchronous satellite of India is

(1) SLV

(2) APPLE

(3) ROHINI

(4) INSAT

55. Find the missing number in the following matrix.

2	5	?
10	5	50
5	4	20

(1) 10

(2) 15

(3) 20

(4) 25

56. Which of the following places is famous for thermal power plant ?

(1) Hirakud

(2) Manipal

(3) Polavaram

(4) Talcher

57. Indira Gandhi Zoological park is located in

(1) Vishakhapatnam

(2) Gyderabad

(3) Puri

(4) Bhubaneshwar

58. The universal blood donor is

(1) Group "Aa"

(2) Group "Ba"

(3) Group "AB"

(4) Group "O"

59. Which state is the biggest producer of cotton ?

(1) Kerala

(2) Karnataka

(3) Andhra Pradesh

(4) Maharashtra

60. The VIBGYOR spectrum is related to

(1) Light

(2) Sound

(3) Motion

(4) Energy

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61. Who invented telephone ?

(1) Graham Bell

(2) K.G. Gillete

(3) Wright brothers

(4) E. Torricelli

62. A man sells an article for Rs. 3550 and loses 19%. The cost price of the article is

(1) Rs. 4283

(2) Rs. 4350

(3) Rs. 4383

(4) Rs. 4450

63. The largest number which divides 411.752 and 1031 leaving remainder 8 in each case, is

(1) 8

(2) 11

(3) 21

(4) 31

64. The pilotless aircraft developed by DRDO whichis targeted, is

(1) Tejas

(2) Vijay

(3) Lakshya

(4) Varun

65. The first Indian woman justice of Supreme Court of India is

(1) Kiran Bedi

(2) Brinda Karat

(3) Fatima Bibi

(4) Mohini Giri

66. The instrument used to measure the intensity of earthquake is

(1) Dynamometer

(2) Seismograph

(3) Fathometer

(4) Magnetometer

67. The LCM of 2457,,,39612 and is

(1) 118

(2) 136

(3) 359

(4) 1403

68. The first train in India was inaugurated in

(1) 1753

(2) 1784

(3) 1853

(4) 1857

69. The calculating machine was invented by

(1) Pascal

(2) Bill Gates

(3) Issac Newton

(4) Goodyear

70. A man travels for 4 hours. The half of the journey is covered by bus at 40 kmph and the remaining at 30 kmph by scooter. What distance did he cover?

(1) 17.5 km

(2) 37.14 km

(3) 137.14 km

(4) 117.5 km

71. Who is the chairman of National Human Rights Commission in India?

(1) S.Rajendra Babu

(2) V.N. Kaul

(3) U.S. Mishra

(4) R.C. Lahouti

72. The urban population is most in

(1) Tamil Nadu

(2) West Bengal

(3) Karnataka

(4) Maharashtra

73. Who wrote a "Abhigyan Shakuntalam" ?

(1) Charak

(2) Harisen

(3) Bann Bhatta

(4) Kalidas

74. A man buys 8 mangoes for Rs. 9 and sells them at 9 mangoes for Rs. 8. his gain or loss per cent is

(1) 10.18% loss

(2) 10.18% gain

(3) 20.98% loss

(4) 20.98% gain

75. Which is understood best for conducting electricity?

(1) Radiators

(2) Conductors

(3) Vectors

(4) Regulators

76. The other name of evergreen forests is

(1) Deciduous forests

(2) Tropical forests

(3) Alpine forests

(4) None of these

77. 7, 8, 10, 13, 17, ?

(1) 18

(2) 20

(3) 22

(4) 24

78. Lignite is found in abundance in

(1) Orissa

(2) Andhra Pradesh

(3) Tamil Nadu

(4) Karnataka

79. The western seacoast in India is known as

(1) Coromandal

(2) Malabar

(3) Palk Strait

(4) Konkan

80. The river called China sorrow is

(1) Yang te

(2) Hwang Ho

(3) Three Gorges

(4) Shinago

81. Fraction 32 is equivalent to what per cent?

(1) 55%

(2) 75%

(3) 150%

(4) 175%

82. On January 26, 1950, India became

(1) Independent

(2) Democratic

(3) Republic

(4) Non-aligned

83. A car moves at 120 kmph, the distance covered by it in 15 minutes, is

(1) 20 km

(2) 30 km

(3) 40 km

(4) 50 km

84. Who invented the cholera vaccine?

(1) Joseph Lister

(2) Louis Pasteur

(3) Edward Jenner

(4) Roger Beacon

85. The smallest fraction in the following is

(1) 79

(2) 59

(3) 89

(4) 57

86. The two nuclear explosions took place in

(1) Kutch

(2) Andaman

(3) Pokharan

(4) Sunderban

87. In a group, the grandfather and his wife, father, mother, their three sons and their wives and two daughters of each son are included. The number of women in the group is

(1) 11

(2) 13

(3) 15

(4) 17

88. A cricketer scored at an average of 52 runs in 8 matches. The average of first 5 matches was 50, the average of the last 3 matches is

(1) 51.5

(2) 52.3

(3) 53.5

(4) 55.3

89. The missile fired from ground to air is

(1) Agni

(2) Trishul

(3) Naag

(4) Prithvi

90. The Railway Coach factory is situated in

(1) Varanast

(2) Kapurthala

(3) Chittaranjan

(4) Perambur

91. If a bus covers 135 km in 3 hours. The time taken to cover 200 km at the same speed is

(1) 3.22 hrs

(2) 3.44 hrs

(3) 4.22 hrs

(4) 4.44 hrs

92. The vegetation has life. Who researched on it?

(1) Hargobind Khurana

(2) Hippocratus

(3) Edward Jenner

(4) J.C. Bose

93. Which is an ice fed river?

(1) Ganges

(2) Mahanadi

(3) Tapti

(4) Godavari

94. The largest among the following

(1) 719

(2) 1216

(3) 1117

(4) 1318

95. The Runn of Kutch is known for

(1) Lion

(2) Tigers

(3) Herbivores

(4) Wild ass

96. The first commercial noncivilian aircraft is

(1) Tejas

(2) Saras

(3) Indian

(4) Volan

97. For contribution in the field of trade. Padma Bhushan, 2007 was awarded to

(1) LN Mittal

(2) S.B. Mittal

(3) Ratan Tata

(4) Azim Premji

98. The HCF of 12984, and is10864

(1) 182

(2) 380

(3) 3320

(4) 482

99. The first Indian to get Nobel Prize is

(1) Rabindra Nath Tagore

(2) C.V. Raman

(3) J.C. Bose

(4) Subhash Chandra Bose

100. Which latest satellite of INSAT series was launched in 2007?

(1) INSAT- 2B

(2) INSAT-2C

(3) INSAT-3D

(4) INSAT-4B

101. If difference between the ages of X and Y is 12 years and the ratio of their ages is 3 : 7, they what is the age of Y ?

(1) 4 years

(2) 7 years

(3) 11 years

(4) 21 years

Answer Keys :

51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (1) 56. (4) 57. (4) 58. (4) 59. (4) 60. (1) 61. (1) 62. (3) 63. (4) 64. (3) 65. (3) 66. (2) 67. (4) 68. (3) 69. (1) 70. (3) 71. (1) 72. (4) 73. (4) 74. (3) 75. (2) 76. (2) 77. (3) 78. (3) 79. (4) 80. (2) 81. (3) 82. (3) 83. (2) 84. (3) 85. (2) 86. (3) 87. (1) 88. (4) 89. (2) 90. (4) 91. (4) 92. (4) 93. (1) 94. (2) 95. (4) 96. (1) 97. (2) 98. (3) 99. (1) 100. (4)

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1. Recently, the Mittal group acquired the steel company________.

(1) Arcellor

(2) Chorus

(3) Posco

(4) Jindal

2. Where is the headquarters of UNESCO located ?

(1) Paris

(2) Oslo

(3) Rome

(4) Istanbul

3. Which of the following locations is known for missile test?

(1) Chandiput

(2) Pokharan

(3) Shri Harikota

(4) Sunderban

4. When the rate of interest is decreased to 12.5% p.a. from 13% there is a loss of Rs. 104 in the annual income. What is the principal?

(1) Rs. 20800

(2) Rs. 21200

(3) Rs. 22400

(4) Rs. 23200

5. The Kalinga battle was fought near which of the following places ?

(1) Barabati

(2) Balasore

(3) Dhouli

4) Udaygiri

6. Which least number when added to 2000 makes it exactly divisible by 19?

(1) 7

(2) 11

(3) 14

(4) 17

7. Which kind of energy is there in a stretched rubber band?

(1) Kinetic

(2) Magnetic

(3) Potential

(4) Constant

8. Which of the following places is known for path figurine painting ?

(1) Painting

(2) Raghurajpur

(3) Pipili

(4) Jajpur

9. A car covers the 13 rd of its total distance at 60 kmph. next 13 rd at 30kmph and the remaining distance at 10 kmph, then what is the average speed of the whole journey?

(1) 33 kmph

(2) 25 kmph

(3) 20 kmph

(4) 15 kmph

10. Who is the present captain of Indian National Hockey team?

(1) Dhanraj Pillai

(2) Probodh Tirki

(3) Gaganjit Singh

(4) Dilip Tirki

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11. Who built the famous Jagannath temple ?

(1) Ashoka

(2) Kharvel

(3) Jajati Keshari

(4) Chola Gangdev

12. What will be the compound interest on a sum of Rs. 6000 for 2 years at the rate of 12% per annum ?

(1) Rs. 1526

(2) Rs. 1772

(3) Rs. 1886

(4) Rs. 2072

13. Indicating towards a picture Rita tells her daughter. â€˜He is the only son of my motherâ€™s mother." How is Rita related to that man?

(1) Sister

(2) Nephew / Niece

(3) Aunt / Maternal mother

4) Mother

14. Hindustan Zinc plant is located at

(1) Engule

(2) Udaipur

(3) Kakinanda

(4) Vishakhapatnam

15. Which is the longest river of India ?

(1) Godavari

(2) Krishna

(3) Sindhu

(4) Ganges

16. At which of the following places was located an important village of old Kalinga?

(1) Puri

(2) Baripada

(3) Tosali

(4) Kyonjhar

17. Who was awarded first with Prime Minister prize for significant work in public administration?

(1) Y.V. Reddy

(2) Bimal Jalan

(3) N. Gopalaswamy

(4) Rajiv Chawla

18. Which part of the body is affected by Pneumonia ?

(1) Brain

(2) Heart

(3) Lungs

(4) Kidney

19. The average weight of A,B and C is 70 kg but the average weight of A and B is 90 kg. What is the weight oC?

(1) 30 kg.

(2) 35 kg

(3) 40 kg.

(4) 45 kg.

20. Which river originates from Orissa and merges with Godavari?

(1) Brahmani

(2) Rushikulya

(3) Nagawali

(4) Indravati

21. The Chilka lake is famous for

(1) White Whale

(2) White Shark

(3) White Dolphin

(4) White Prawn

22. Light, radiowaves and X-rays are______ waves.

(1) Electro magnetic

(2) Nuclear

(3) Magnetic resonance

(4) Seismic

23. Which of the following is a red planet ?

(1) Jupiter

(2) Mars

(3) Mercury

(4) Sun

24. The ratio of A and B is 5:7. The value of A is 185, then B is equal to

(1) 129

(2) 239

(3) 259

(4) 379

25. The headquarters of World Health Organization is located at

(1) Geneva

(2) Paris

(3) Berlin

(4) Washington

26. In Orissa, Mig is built at

(1) Cuttak

(2) Sambalpur

(3) Berhampur

(4) Sunaveda

27. Which of the following is the first college of Orissa?

(1) Orissa Veterinary College

(2) Revanshaw College

(3) Wurla Engineering College

(4) Government Arts College

28. Which of the following is a Hockey player?

(1) Dilip Tirki

(2) V.V.S. Lakshman

(3) W.Bhutia

(4) Pravin Thipse

29. The square root of 24649 is

(1) 127

(2) 137

(3) 157

(4) 247

30. Which of the following is a chief kharif crop in Orissa ?

(1) Jawar

(2) Bajara

(3) Rice

(4) Wheat

31. Eager : interest : : Sharp : ?

(1) Desire

(2) Height

(3) Smile

(4) Intelligence

32. The ratio of 50 ml and 2 litres is

(1) 1 : 20

(2) 1 : 25

(3) 1 : 40

(4) 1 : 80

33. Who wrote ˜My Experiments with Truth"?

(1) Jawaharlal Nehru

(2) Rabindranath Tagore

(3) M.K. Gandhi

(4) Jai Prakash Narayan

34. The deficiency of vitamin "C" causes

(1) Paralysis

(2) Scurvey

(3) T.B.

(4) Jaundice

35. What will come in place of the question mark in the following number series?

16 ,21, 7, 13, 18, 6, 19, ?, ?

(1) 22 and 6

(2) 24 and 8

(3) 22 and 8

(4) 24 and 6

36. If one side of a square is decreased by 5% its area decreases by

(1) 6.75%

(2) 9.75%

(3) 12.50%

(4) 25%

37. Which of the following states is the most densely covered by forests ?

(1) Orissa

(2) Madhya Pradesh

(3) Assam

(4) Arunachal Pradesh

38. Who among the following was awarded with Nodel Prize in Physics ?

(1) J.C. Bose

(2) Hargobind Khurana

(3) S. Chandra Shekhar

(4) Amartya Sen

39. The " Gateway of India" is situated in

(1) Delhi

(2) Mumbai

(3) Chennai

(4) Kolkata

40. Sultan Azlan Sah Hockey Tournament 2007 was won by

(1) India

(2) Pakistan

(3) South Korea

(4) Australia

41. Winter crop season is known in India as

(1) Rabi

(2) Winter

(3) Kharif

(4) Poddu

42. 3 49 1 2 1 of ? 7 10 7 7 + + − =

(1) 15

(2) 12

(3) 13

(4)121

43. Which Indian player has taken the highest number of wickets in Test Cricket ?

(1) B.S. Bedi

(2) Kapil Dev

(3) Sri Nath

(4) Anil Kumble

44. The population of a city is 70000. it increases at 10% in the first year and at 20% in the following year. What will be the population after 2 years ?

(1) 77000

(2) 84000

(3) 92400

(4) 104000

45. Which river flows in India through Tibbet ?

(1) Ravi

(2) Beas

(3) Brahmaputra

(4) Ganges

46. The decimal equivalent of 7 gm of a kilogram is

(1) 0.7

(2) 0.07

(3) 0.007

(4) 0.0007

47. Hyderabad was earlier known as

(1) Bhagyanagar

(2) Nizamabad

(3) Secunderabad

(4) Golconda

48. Kullu Valley is situated in

(1) Punjab

(2) Himachal Pradesh

(3) Kashmir

(4) Uttarakhand

49. Muchkund power project is situated in the state of

(1) Andhra Pradesh

(2) Orissa

(3) Gujarat

(4) Karnataka

50. Which mountain range divides India into north and south ?

(1) Nilgiris

(2) Satpura

(3) Vidhyas

(4) Aravali

Answer Keys :

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (4) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (1) 26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (1) 29. (3) 30. (3) 31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (3) 34. (2) 35. (2) 36. (2) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (4) 41. (1) 42. (3) 43. (4) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (3) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (2) 50. (3)

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(Post Detail) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)

Cat. No.	Name of the Post	Level in 7th CPC	Pay(₹)	Med Std	Min Age	Max Age	Suitability for Persons with Benchmark
Cat. No.	Name of the Post	Level in 7th CPC	Pay(₹)	Med Std	Min Age	Max Age	VI	HI	LD	OD	MD
1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10	11	12
1	JUNIOR STENOGRAPHER / HINDI	4	25500	C1	18	30	B, LV	D, HH	OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV	NO	YES
2	JUNIOR STENOGRAPHER / ENGLISH	4	25500	C1	18	30	B, LV	D, HH	OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV	NO	YES
3	JUNIOR TRANSLATOR / HINDI	6	35400	C2	18	33	B, LV	D, HH	OA, OL, BL, LC, DW, AAV	NO	YES

4	STAFF and WELFARE INSPECTOR	6	35400	C1	18	33	NO	No	DW, AAV	NO	NO
5	CHIEF LAW ASSISTANT	7	44900	C1	18	40	B, LV	No	OA, OL, BL, OAL, LC, DW, AAV	NO	YES
6	LAB ASSISTANT GRADE III CHEMIST and METALURGIST	2	19900	B1	18	30	NO	D, HH	OA, OL, BL, DW, AAV	NO	YES
7	FINGER PRINT EXAMINER	6	35400	C1	20	35	NO	D, HH	OA, OL, OAL, BL, DW, AAV	NO	YES
8	HEAD COOK	5	29200	C1	18	30	LV	D, HH	OL, DW	NO	YES
9	COOK	2	19900	C1	18	30	LV	D, HH	OL, DW	NO	YES
10	SENIIOR PUBLICITY INSPECTOR	6	35400	C1	18	33	NO	NO	OA, OL, BL, LC, DW, AAV	NO	NO

11	PUBLICITY INSPECTOR	5	29200	C1	18	33	NO	NO	OA, OL, BL, LC, DW, AAV	NO	NO
12	PHOTOGRAPHER	4	25500	C1	18	33	NO	D, HH	OL, LC, DW, AAV	NO	YES
13	POST GRADUATE TEACHER / BIOLOGY (ENGLISH MEDIUM) (MALE)	8	47600	C2	18	45	LV	No	OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV	NO	YES
14	POST GRADUATE TEACHER / ENGLISH (MALE)	8	47600	C2	18	45	LV	No	OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV	NO	YES

15	POST GRADUATE TEACHER / ENGLISH (FEMALE)	8	47600	C2	18	45	LV	No	OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV	NO	YES
16	POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ GEOGRAPHY (ENGLISH MEDIUM) (FEMALE)	8	47600	C2	18	45	LV	No	OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV	NO	YES
17	POST GRADUATE TEACHER / PHYSICS (MALE)	8	47600	C2	18	45	LV	No	OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV	NO	YES
18	POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ PHYSICS (FEMALE)	8	47600	C2	18	45	LV	No	OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV	NO	YES
19	POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ POLITICAL SCIENCE (FEMALE)	8	47600	C2	18	45	LV	No	OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV	NO	YES

20	POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ COMPUTER SCIENCE	8	47600	C2	18	45	LV	No	VH(LV) OH(OA, OL,BL,OAL)	NO	YES
21	TRAINED GRADUATE TEACHER / COMPUTER SCIENCE	7	44900	C2	18	45	LV	No	VH(LV) OH(OA, OL,BL, OAL)	NO	YES
22	TRAINED GRADUATE TEACHER / HOME SCIENCE (FEMALE)	7	44900	C2	18	45	LV	No	VH(LV) OH(OA, OL,BL,OAL)	NO	YES

23

TRAINED GRADUATE TEACHER / HINDI (FEMALE)

7

44900

C2

18

45

LV

No

OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV

NO

YES

24	TRAINED GRADUATE TEACHER / SOCIAL SCIENCE (FEMALE)	7	44900	C2	18	45	LV	No	OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV	NO	YES
25	PHYSICAL TRAINING INSTRUCTOR (ENGLISH MEDIUM) (MALE)	7	44900	C2	18	45	NO	NO	NO	NO	NO
26	PHYSICAL TRAINING INSTRUCTOR (ENGLISH MEDIUM) (FEMALE)	7	44900	C2	18	45	NO	NO	NO	NO	NO

27	ASSISTANT MISTRESS (JUNIOR SCHOOL)	6	35400	C2	18	45	LV	No	VH(LV) OH(OA, OL,BL,OAL)	NO	YES
28	MUSIC MISTRESS	6	35400	C2	18	45	LV	No	VH(LV) OH(OA, OL,BL,OAL)	NO	YES

29	DANCE MISTRESS	6	35400	C2	18	45	LV	No	VH(LV) OH(OA, OL,BL,OAL)
30	LABORATORY ASSISTANT/SCHOOL	4	25500	C2	18	45	LV	No	Not Applicable
Abbreviations: AAV=Acid Attack Victim, B=Blind, BL=Both Legs, D=Deaf, DW=Dwarfism, HH=Hard of Hearing, HI=Hearing Impairment, ID= Intellectual Disability, LC=Leprosy Cured, LD=Locomotor Disability, LV=Low Vision, MD=Muscular Dystrophy, MW= Muscular Weakness, OA=One Arm, OD=Other Disability, OL=One Leg, OAL=One Arm & One Leg, PwBD=Persons With Benchmark Disabilities, RPwD = Rights of Persons with Disabilities, SLD=Speech and Language Disability, VI=Visually Impairment.

Age :

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Read more about (Post Detail) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)

(Educational Qualification) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)

Cat.No.	Name of the Post	Minimum Educational Qualification
Cat.No.	Name of the Post	Minimum Educational Qualification	1
1	JUNIOR STENOGRAPHER / HINDI	10+2 or its equivalent examination from a recognized Board/University. The shorthand speed of 80 words per minute for a duration of 10 minutes with transcription time of 65 minutes.
2	JUNIOR STENOGRAPHER / ENGLISH	10+2 or its equivalent examination from a recognized Board/University. The shorthand speed of 80 words per minute for a duration of 10 minutes with transcription time of 50 minutes.
3	JUNIOR TRANSLATOR / HINDI	(i) Master's Degree of a recognised University or equivalent in Hindi or English with English or Hindi as a compulsory or elective subject or as a medium of examination at Degree level; OR Master's Degree of a recognised University or equivalent in any subject other than Hindi or English, with Hindi or English medium and English or Hindi as a compulsory or elective subject or as a medium of examination at Degree level; OR Master's Degree of a recognised University or equivalent in any subject other than Hindi or English, with Hindi and English as a compulsory or elective subjects of either of the two as medium of examination and other as a compulsory or elective subject at Degree level. AND (ii) Recognized Diploma or Certificate Course in translation from Hindi to English and vice - versa or 2-years experience of translation work from Hindi to English and vice-versa in Central or State Government offices, including Government of India Undertaking.

4	STAFF and WELFARE INSPECTOR	Graduation +any one of the following qualifications: Diploma in Labour Welare / Social Welfare or LLB with Labour Laws OR Diploma in Labour Laws. OR PG Diploma in Personnel Management or MBA with paper in Personnel Management or MBA/HR awarded by an institution recognised by the Govt of India.
5	CHIEF LAW ASSISTANT	A University Degree in Law with 3-year's standing practice as a pleader at Bar. Serving Railway employees who are Law Graduates are also eligible to apply for these posts, provided they have served for at least 5 year's in any Branch of the Railway Administration. Vacancies earmarked for direct recruitment should also be available to the Railway Magistrates who are desirous of applying for such posts and who also fulfill the prescribed qualifications for the direct recruits.
6	LAB ASSISTANT GRADE III CHEMIST and METALURGIST	10+2 or its equivalent with Science (Physics and Chemistry) as subjects or its equivalent. And Diploma/Certificate in Lab. Technology from recognized Board/ Institute.
7	FINGER PRINT EXAMINER	10+2 or its equivalent from a recognised Board. And A Certificate issued by the All India Board for Examination of Finger Print Experts conducted by the Govt. of India.
8	HEAD COOK	10+2 or its equivalent from a recognised Board with Craftsmanship in Cookery from a recognised Institute. Note: Recognization of Institute for the purpose will be determined by the recruiting agency.
9	COOK	10+2 or its equivalent from a recognised Board with Craftsmanship in Cookery from a recognised Institute. Note: Recognization of Institute for the purpose will be determined by the recruiting agency.
10	SENIIOR PUBLICITY INSPECTOR	Degree from recognized University and Diploma in Public Relations /Advertising / Journalism / Mass Communication from a recognized institution / University. Desirable: 2-years experience in related fields.

11	PUBLICITY INSPECTOR	Degree from recognized University and Diploma in Public Relations /Advertising / Journalism / Mass Communication from a recognized Institution/ University.
12	PHOTOGRAPHER	10+2 or its equivalent. Diploma in Photography/Digital photography/videography from a recognized / reputed institute in India and Diploma certificate in Computer Aided photo/video editing from recognized reputed institute. Professional qualificaiton : Desirable: (1) Overall knowledge and experience of news photography and event photography. (2) Overall knowledge and experience of digital media. (3) Capacity to independently handle assignment. Technical qualificaiton : Essential: (1) Knowlege and capabilities to handle Digital Still SLR camera and Digital Video Camera. AND (2) Capability to use photoshop for photo editing. Desirable : Capability to use professional video editing software and create edited video from raw footage.
13	POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ BIOLOGY (ENGLISH MEDIUM) (MALE)	(A) 2 - years Integrated Post Graduate M.Sc. Course of Regional College of Education of NCERT in Biology. OR Master Degree from a recognized University with at least 50% marks in aggregate in Botany / Zoology / Life Sciences / Bio Sciences / Genetics / Micro Biology / Bio Technology / Molecular Bio/Plant Physiology provided they have studied Botany and Zoology at Graduation level. (B) B.Ed. or equivalent Degree from recognised University. (C) Proficiency in teaching in English medium. Desirable: Knowledge of computer applications.
14	POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ ENGLISH (MALE)	(A) Master Degree from a recognized University with at least 50% marks in aggregate in English. (B) B.Ed. or equivalent Degree from recognised University. (C) Proficiency in teaching in English medium. Desirable: Knowledge of computer applications.

15	POST GRADUATE TEACHER / ENGLISH (FEMALE)	(A) Master Degree from a recognized University with at least 50% marks in aggregate in English. (B) B.Ed;or equivalent Degree from recognised University. (C) Proficiency in teaching in English medium. Desirable: Knowledge of computer applications.
16	POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ GEOGRAPHY (ENGLISHMEDIUM) (FEMALE)	(A) 2-years Integrated Post Graduate M.Sc. Course of Regional College of Education of NCERT in Geography. OR Master Degree from a recognized University with at least 50% marks in aggregate in Geography. (B) B.Ed.or equivalent Degree from recognised University. (C) Proficiency in teaching in English medium. Desirable: Knowledge of computer applications.
17	POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ PHYSICS (MALE)	(A) 2-years Integrated Post Graduate M.Sc. Course of Regional College of Education of NCERT in Physics. OR Master Degree from a recognized University with at least 50% marks in aggregate in Physics / Electronics / Applied Physics / Nuclear Physics. B) B.Ed. or equivalent Degree from recognised University. (C) Proficiency in teaching in Hindi and English medium. Desirable: Knowledge of computer applications.
18	POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ PHYSICS (FEMALE)
19	POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ POLITICAL SCIENCE (FEMALE)	(A) Master Degree from a recognized University with at least 50% marks in aggregate in Political Science. (B) B.Ed. or equivalent Degree from recognised University. (C) Proficiency in teaching in Hindi and English medium. Desirable: Knowledge of computer applications.

20

POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ COMPUTER SCIENCE

At least 50% marks in aggregate in any of the following :

(i) B.E. or B.Tech (Computer Science/IT) plus Post Graduate Diploma in Computer Applications or 'B' or 'C' Level Diploma from DOEACC, Ministry of Communication and IT plus1-year Teaching Experience. OR

(ii) M.Sc. (Computer Science)/MCA plus 1-year Teaching Experience. OR

(iii) Master of Engineering or M.Tech.(Computer Science/IT).

Note: For subsequent promotion, the incumbent will have to acquire B.Ed. or equivalent.

21

TRAINED GRADUATE TEACHER / COMPUTER SCIENCE

At least 50% marks in aggregate in any of the following :

(1) Bachelor Degree in Computer Application (B.C.A.) from a recognized University.

OR Graduation in Computer Science from a recognized University (Provided that the computer science subject must be studied in all years as main subject).

OR BE/B.Tech (Computer Science/Information Technology) from a recognized University.

OR Graduation in any subject and 'A' level course from DOEACC, Ministry of Information & Communication and Technology, Govt. of India.

Note: Qualifications are relaxable at the discretion of the competent authority for reasons to be recorded in writing, in the case of candidates otherwise well qualified.

22

TRAINED GRADUATE TEACHER / HOME SCIENCE (FEMALE)

(a) Graduate from a recognized University with Diploma in Home Science from a recognized Institute.

OR (b) B.Sc. (Home Science) with Degree / Diploma in Training / Education.

23

TRAINED GRADUATE TEACHER / HINDI (FEMALE)

(i) Graduation with Hindi and 2-years Diploma in Elementary Education (by whatever name known).

OR Graduation with Hindi with at least 50% marks and 1-year Bachelor in Education (B.Ed).
OR Graduation with Hindi with at least 45% marks and 1-year Bachelor in Education (B.Ed), in accordance with the NCTE (Recognition norms and procedure) regulations issued from time to time in this regard.
OR 10+2 or its equivalent with at least 50% marks and 4-years Bachelor of Elementary education (B.El.Ed).
OR10+2 or its equivalent with at least 50% marks and 4-years B.A./B.Sc or B.A.Ed/B.Sc.Ed.
ORGraduation with Hindi with least 50% marks and 1-year B.Ed. (Special Education). AND

(ii) Pass in the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) to be conducted by the appropriate Government in accordance with the Guidelines framed by the NCTE for the purpose. AND

(iii) Competence to teach through Hindi medium. NOTE: Relaxation up to 5% in the qualifying marks shall be allowed to the candidates belonging to reserved categories such as SC/ST/OBC/PwBD.

24

TRAINED GRADUATE TEACHER / SOCIAL SCIENCE (FEMALE)

(i) Graduation with Social Science and 2-years Diploma in ElementaryEducation (by whatever name known).

OR Graduation with Social Science with at least 50% marks and 1-year Bachelor of Education (B.Ed.). ORGraduation with Social Science with at least 45% marks and 1-year Bachelor of Education (B.Ed.) in accordance with the NCTE (Recognition Norms and Procedure) Regulations issued from time to time in this regard. OR 10+2 or it equivalent with at least 50% marks and 4-years Bachelor of Elementary Education (B.El.Ed.). OR 10+2 or its equivalent with at least 50% marks and 4-years B.A/B.Sc. or B.A.Ed/B.Sc.Ed. OR Graduation with Social Science with at least 50% marks and 1-year B.Ed.(Special Education).AND

(ii) Pass in the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) to be conducted by the appropriate Government in accordance with the Guidelines framed by the NCTE for the purpose.

AND

(iii) Competence to teach through English Medium. NOTE: Relaxation up to 5% in the qualifying marks shall be allowed to the candidates belonging to reserved categories such as SC/ST/OBC/PwBD.

25

PHYSICAL TRAINING INSTRUCTOR (ENGLISH MEDIUM) (MALE)

(i) Graduate from a recognized University with Diploma in Physical Training from a recognized Institution.ORB.P.Ed. from a recognized University and 10+2 or its equivalent from recognised Board.

(ii) Competence to impart physical education through English medium.

26

PHYSICAL TRAINING INSTRUCTOR (ENGLISH MEDIUM) (FEMALE)

27

ASSISTANT MISTRESS (JUNIOR SCHOOL)

(i) 10+2 or its equivalent with at least 50% marks and 2-years Diploma in Elementary Education (by whatever name known). OR

10+2 or its equivalent with at least 45% marks and 2-years Diploma in Elementary Education (by whatever name known), in accordance with NCTE (Recognition Norms and Procedure) Regulations 2002. OR

10+2 or its equivalent with at least 50% marks and 4-years Bachelor of Elementary Education (B.El.Ed). OR

10+2 or its equivalent with at least 50% marks and 2-years Diploma in Education (Special Education). OR

Graduation and 2-years Diploma in Elementary Education (by whatever name known).AND

(ii) Pass in Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) to be conducted by appropriate Government in accordance with the Guidelines framed by the NCTE for the purpose.

AND

(iii) Competence to teach in English medium. NOTE: Relaxation up to 5% in the qualifying marks shall be allowed to the candidates belonging to reserved categories such as SC/ST/OBC/PwBD.

28

MUSIC MISTRESS

B.A. Degree with Music, as one of the subject from a recognized University.

OR 10+2 or its equivalent with any one of the following :

1. Sangeet Visharad Examination of the Gandharava Mahavidyalaya Mandal,Bombay.

2. Sangeet Vid Examination of the Indira Kala SangeetVishwa Vidhyala ,Khairabad (M.P.).

3.The Sangeet Prabhakar Examination of the Prayag SangeetSamiti (Academy of Music) Allahabad.

4. Sangeet Visharad Examination of Bhatkhande Sangeet Vidhyapeeth, Lucknow (previously, Morris College of Hindustani Music Lucknow).

5. Final Examination of the Madhva Sangeet MahavidyaIaya, Laishkar.Gwalior.

6. The Final Examination of Shankar Gandharya Vidyalaya, Gwalior.

7. Sangeet Ratan Diploma Awarded by the Director, Department of

Education, M.P.

29

DANCE MISTRESS

Degree in Dance from a recognised University (4-yeas Course).

OR

Diploma in Dance from a recognised Institution (5-years).

30

LABORATORY ASSISTANT/SCHOOL

10+2 or its equivalent with Science and 1-year experience in Pathological &

Bio-Chemical Laboratory.

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Read more about (Educational Qualification) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)

(Reservation) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)

VERTICAL RESERVATION

8.1 This CEN provides for Vertical Reservation for Scheduled Caste (SC), Scheduled Tribe (ST), Other Backward Classes (OBC)-Non Creamy Layer (NCL) and Economically Weaker Sections (EWS), wherever applicable and admissible, and as communicated by the Indenting Railways/Production Units under extant rules, as mentioned in the Vacancy Table.

8.2 All candidates, irrespective of community may be considered against UR vacancies, subject to fulfillment of parameters for UR candidates. However, against the vacancies earmarked for specific communities (SC/ST/OBCNCL/EWS), only candidates belonging to that community will be considered.

8.3 For availing reservation, SC/ST/OBC-NCL candidates should furnish Caste Certificate from competent authorities as per the format given at Annexure-I (for SC/ST candidates) and Annexure-II (for OBC-NCL candidates)at the time of DV. Further, in case of OBC-NCL candidates, the certificates should specifically indicate that the candidate does not belong to the Persons/Sections (Creamy Layer) mentioned in Column 3 of the Schedule of the Government of India, Department of Personnel and Training O.M.No.36012/22/93-Estt. (SCT) dated 08.09.93 & its subsequent revision through O.M.No.36033/3/2004-Estt. (Res) dated 09.03.2004, 27.05.2013, 13.09.2017and further revision, if any, received till the closing date for OLINE Registration of applications for this CEN. The candidate should ensure that he/she belong to the OBC- Non Creamy Layer category while applying for the posts against this CEN. Such candidate should produce a valid OBC certificate in the prescribed format during DV. Further, in addition to the community certificate (OBC), a declaration in the prescribed format as per Annexure IIA

8.4 EWS Reservation

has to be furnished by the candidate during DV,that he/she does not belong to the creamy layer.The certificate produced shall not be older than one year at the time of DV. Failing in these stipulations, their claim for reserved status (OBC-NCL) will not be entertained and the candidature/application of such candidates, if fulfilling all the eligibility conditions for General (Un-reserved) category, will be considered under General (UR) vacancies only.
Candidates who are not covered under the scheme of reservation for SC/ST/OBC-NCL and whose family has gross annual income below Rs 8.00 Lakh (Rupees eight lakh only) are to be identified as EWS for benefit of reservation for EWS. The income shall also include income from all sources i.e. salary, agriculture, business, profession etc. for the financial year prior to the year of application.For this CEN the financial year will be 2018-19 as the closing date of registration is 07.04.2019. Also, candidates whose family owns or possesses any of the following assets shall be excluded from being identified as EWS, irrespective of family income:

i. 5 acres of agricultural land and above;
ii. Residential flat of 1000 sq. ft. and above;
iii. Residential plot of 100 sq. yards and above in notified municipalities;
iv. Residential plot of 200 sq. yards and above in areas other than the notified municipalities.

The property held by a “Family” in different locations or different places/cities would be clubbed while applying the land or property holding test to determine EWS status.
The term “Family” for this purpose will include the person who seeks benefit of reservation, his/her parents and siblings below the age of 18 years as also his/her spouse and children below the age of 18 years.
The benefit of reservation under EWS can be availed upon production of an Income and Asset Certificate issued by a Competent Authority. The Income and Asset Certificate issued by any one of the following authorities in the
prescribed format as given in Annexure III
a) District Magistrate/Additional District Magistrate/Collector/Deputy Commissioner/Additional Deputy Commissioner/1st Class Stipendary Magistrate/Sub-Divisional Magistrate/Taluka Magistrate/Executive Magistrate/Extra Assistant Commissioner shall only be accepted as candidate’s claim as belonging to EWS:
b) Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/Presidency Magistrate
c) Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar and
d) Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his family normally resides.
The candidates applying against the vacancies reserved for EWS must possess Income and Asset Certificate as on closing date of registration of application for this CEN. Further, these candidates are also required to produce valid Income and Asset Certificate during Document Verification (DV). Failing in these stipulations, their claim for reserved status under EWS will not be entertained and the candidature/application of such candidates, if fulfilling all the eligibility conditions for General (Un-reserved) category, will be considered under General (UR) vacancies only.
8.5 Candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC-NCL/EWS who fulfill required minimum educational qualification can also apply against UR vacancies. They will however, have to compete with the UR candidates. No age relaxation will be allowed to such SC/ST/OBC-NCL candidates applying against UR vacancies. However, candidates have to indicate their actual community in the application.
8.6 Community/EWS status as on the closing date for ONLINE Registration of application for this CEN shall only be considered for availing reservation benefits if eligible and any change in the community status of the candidate
thereafter shall not be entertained.

9.0 HORIZONTAL RESERVATION:

9.1 This CEN provides for horizontal reservation for Ex-Servicemen(ExSM) and Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) irrespective of their community.
9.2 Vacancies for ExSM and PwBD wherever given in the vacancy table are not separate but are included in the total number of vacancies.
9.3 Wherever vacancies for PwBD are shown separately without any communitywise allotment, those vacancies are separate and not part of regular vacancies.
9.4 ExSM candidates may also apply against regular vacancies of any post(s) without separate earmarked ExSM vacancies. Even for these posts they are eligible for age relaxation and fee exemption as applicable for ExSM.
9.5 PwBD candidates of a particular disability may also apply against regular vacancies of any post(s) which are not having separate earmarked PwBD vacancies subject to condition that the post should have been identified
suitable for that disability. Even for these posts they are eligible for age relaxation and fee exemption as applicable for PwBD.
9.6 If regular PwBD vacancies cannot be filled due to non-availability of suitable candidates under thetype of disability for which vacancy is reserved or for any other sufficient reason, these shall not be filled and shall be carried forward as backlog vacancy to the next recruitment cycle. However, for the backlog PwBD vacancies indicated in the CEN, if candidates of specified disability for which vacancies are reserved are not available, these can
be filled by candidates of other disabilities for which the post is suitable. In case of non-availability of any PwBD candidates of the disabilities for which the post is identified as suitable, the vacancies will be filled by regular (those who are not PwBD) candidates in order of merit.

10.0 EX-SERVICEMEN (ExSM):

10.1 The term Ex-Servicemen means a person who has served in any rank (whether as a Combatant or non-Combatant) in the regular Army, Navy or Air Force of the Indian Union but does not include a person who has served in the Defense Security Corps, the General Reserve Engineering Force, the Lok Sahayak Sena and the Para Military Forces and
a. Who either has been retired or relieved or discharged from such service whether at his own request or being relieved by the employer after earning his or her pension( or)
b. Who has been relieved from such service on medical grounds attributable to military service or circumstances beyond his control and awarded medical or other disability pension; (or)
c. who has been released from such service as a result of reduction in establishment; (or)
d. Who has been released from such service after completing the specific period of engagement, otherwise than on his own request, or by way of dismissal, or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency and has been given a gratuity; and includes personnel of the Territorial Army, namely, pension holders for continuous embodied service or broken spells of qualifying service;(or)
e. Personnel of Army Postal Service who are part of Regular Army and retired from the Army Postal Service without reversion to their parent service with pension, or are released from the Army Postal Service on medical grounds attributable to or aggravated by military service or circumstances beyond their control and awarded medical or other disability pension; (or)
f. Personnel who were on deputation in Army Postal Service for more than six months prior to 14th April 1987; (or)
g. Gallantry award winners of the Armed forces including personnel of Territorial Army; or
h. Ex-recruits boarded out or relieved on medical ground and granted medical disability pension w.e.f. 01.02.2006.
10.2 Persons serving in the Armed Forces of the Union, who on retirement from service would come under the category of Ex-Servicemen are eligible to apply for re-employment one year before the completion of the specific terms of engagement and avail themselves of all concessions available to ExServicemen but such persons shall not be permitted to leave the uniform until they complete the specific terms of engagement in the Armed Forces of the Union.
Accordingly, such serving Defense personnel to be released within one year from the closing date of ONLINE Registration of applications (07.04.2019) for this CEN (i.e. on or before 07.04.2020) can also apply, both for vacancies
earmarked for Ex-Servicemen and for posts not reserved for them. However, they should possess the prescribed educational qualifications as on the closing date of registration (07.04.2019) of applications for this CEN.
10.3 Ex-Servicemen candidates who have already secured civil employment under Central Government in Group 'C’ & ‘D' (including PSUs, autonomous bodies/statutory bodies, nationalized banks etc.)after availing of the benefits given to Ex-Servicemenwill be permitted only the benefit of age relaxation as prescribed for Ex-Servicemen for securing another employment in a higher grade or cadre in Group 'C/D' under Central Government. Such candidates will not be considered against the vacancies reserved for Ex-Servicemen in the Central Government jobs.
10.4 If an Ex-Serviceman applies for various vacancies before joining any civil employment, he/she can avail the benefit of reservation as Ex-Servicemen for any subsequent employment, subject to the condition that an Ex-Serviceman as soon as he/she joins any civil employment, should give selfdeclaration/undertaking to the concerned employer about the date wise details of application for various vacancies, including this CEN, for which he/she
had applied for, before joining the initial civil employment. The acknowledged copy of this declaration along with NOC from the civil employer should be produced during DV failing which they will not get benefit of reservation for ExServicemen. Further, this benefit would be available only in respect of vacancies which are filled on direct recruitment and wherever reservation is applicable to the Ex-Servicemen.
10.5 The Medical standard of Ex-Serviceman will be according to Para 534 of Indian Railway Medical manual (IRMM) Volume I, which may be accessed at www.indianrailways.gov.in.

11.0 PERSONS WITH BENCHMARK DISABILITIES (PwBD)

11.1 The suitability or otherwise of a post for PwBD has been indicated against each post, under the column “Suitability for Persons with Benchmark Disability” with details of sub disability in Post Parameters Table (Annexure-A
Benchmark Disabilities:- As per The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016 (effective from 19thApril, 2017), the Benchmark Disabilities are as under: - ).

(a) Blindness and low vision;
(b) Deaf and hard of hearing;
(c) Locomotor disability including cerebral palsy, leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid attack victims and muscular dystrophy;
(d) Autism, intellectual disability, specific learning disability and mental illness;
(e) Multiple disabilities from amongst persons under clauses (a) to (d) including deaf-blindness in the posts identified for each disabilities. Definition of Specified Disabilities as provided in the Schedule of RPwD Act, 2016 is as

mentioned below:

11.2 Definition of Specified Disabilities:
1. Physical disability:-
A) Locomotor disability (a person’s inability to execute distinctive activities associated with movement of self and objects resulting from affliction of musculoskeletal or nervous system or both), including—
(a) “Leprosy cured person” means a person who has been cured of leprosy but is suffering from—
(i) loss of sensation in hands or feet as well as loss of sensation and paresis in the eye and eye-lid but with no manifest deformity;
(ii) manifest deformity and paresis but having sufficient mobility in their hands and feet to enable them to engage in normal economic activity;
(iii) extreme physical deformity as well as advanced age which prevents him/her from undertaking any gainful occupation, and the expression “leprosy cured” shall construed accordingly;
(b) “cerebral palsy” means a Group of non-progressive neurological condition affecting body movements and muscle coordination, caused by damage to one or more specific areas of the brain, usually occurring before, during or shortly after birth;
(c) “dwarfism” means a medical or genetic condition resulting in an adult height of 4 feet 10 inches (147 centimeters) or less;
(d) “muscular dystrophy” means a group of hereditary genetic muscle disease that weakens the muscles that move the human body and persons with multiple dystrophy have incorrect and missing information in their genes,
which prevents them from making the proteins they need for healthy muscles. It is characterized by progressive skeletal muscle weakness, defects in muscle proteins, and the death of muscle cells and tissue;
(e) “acid attack victims” means a person disfigured due to violent assaults by throwing of acid or similar corrosive substance.

B) Visual impairment—

(a) “blindness” means a condition where a person has any of the following conditions, after best correction—
(i) total absence of sight; or
(ii) visual acuity less than 3/60 or less than 10/200 (Snellen) in the better eye with best possible correction; or
(iii) limitation of the field of vision subtending an angle of less than 10 degree.
(b) “low-vision” means a condition where a person has any of the following conditions, namely:—
(i) visual acuity not exceeding 6/18 or less than 20/60 upto 3/60 or upto 10/200 (Snellen) in the better eye with best possible corrections; or
(ii) limitation of the field of vision subtending an angle of less than 40 degree up to 10 degree.
C) Hearing impairment—
(a) “deaf’ means persons having 70 DB healing loss in speech frequencies in both ears;
(b) “hard of hearing” means person having 60 DB to 70 DB hearing loss in speech frequencies in both ears
D) (1) “speech and language disability” means a permanent disability arising out of conditions such as laryngectomy or aphasia affecting one or more components of speech and language due to organic or neurological causes.
(2) Intellectual disability, a condition characterized by significant limitation both in intellectual functioning (reasoning, learning, problem solving) and in adaptive behaviour which covers a range of every day, social and practical
skills, including—
(a) “specific learning disabilities” means a heterogeneous group of conditions wherein there is a deficit in processing language, spoken or written, that may manifest itself as a difficulty to comprehend, speak, read, write, spell, or to do mathematical calculations and includes such conditions as perceptual disabilities, dyslexia, dysgraphia, dyscalculia, dyspraxia and developmental aphasia;
(b) “autism spectrum disorder” means a neuro-developmental condition typically appearing in the first three years of life that significantly affects a person’s ability to communicate, understand relationships and relate to others,
and is frequently associated with unusual or stereotypical rituals or behaviours.
(3) Mental behaviour— “mental illness” means a substantial disorder of thinking, mood, perception, orientation or memory that grossly impairs judgment, behaviour, capacity to recognize reality or ability to meet the
ordinary demands of life, but does not include retardation which is a condition of arrested or incomplete development of mind of a person, specially characterized by sub normality of intelligence.
(4) Disability caused due to— (a) chronic neurological conditions, such as—
(i) “multiple sclerosis” means an inflammatory, nervous system disease in which the myelin sheaths around the axons of nerve cells of the brain and spinal cord are damaged, leading to demyelination and affecting the ability of
nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord to communicate with each other;
(ii) “Parkinson’s disease” means a progressive disease of the nervous system marked by tremor, muscular rigidity, and slow, imprecise movement, chieflyaffecting middle-aged and elderly people associated with degeneration
of the basal ganglia of the brain and a deficiency of the neurotransmitter dopamine.
(b) Blood disorder—
(i) “Haemophilia” means an inheritable disease, usually affecting only male but transmitted by women to their male children, characterized by loss or impairment of the normal clotting ability of blood so that a minor would may
result in fatal bleeding;
(ii) “Thalassemia” means a group of inherited disorders characterized by reduced or absent amounts of hemoglobin.
(iii) “Sickle cell disease” means a hemolytic disorder characterized by chronic anemia, painful events, and various complications due to associated tissue and organ damage; “hemolytic” refers to the destruction of the cell membrane of red blood cells resulting in the release of hemoglobin.
(5) Multiple Disabilities (more than one of the above specified disabilities) including deaf, blindness which means a condition in which a person may have combination of hearing and visual impairments causing severe communication, developmental, and educational problems.
(6) Any other category as may be notified by the Central Government.
11.3. Degree of Benchmark Disability for Reservation and Competent Authority for Issue of Disability Certificate: Only such persons would be eligible for relaxation in conditions/reservation in posts who suffer from not less than 40 percent of relevant benchmark disability. Those Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) who have availed the relaxation and/or reservation and shortlisted for Document Verification have to submit Certificate of Disability
issued by the Competent Authority as per the form V, VI and VII of rule 18(1) under chapter 7 of Rights of Persons with Disabilities Rules, 2017 dated 15.06.2017. Refer Annexure V (A), Annexure V (B) and Annexure V(C)
11.4 Assistance of Scribe: Visually Impaired (VI) candidates/candidates whose writing speed is affected by Cerebral Palsy/muscular dystrophy/candidates with Locomotor disability (one arm)/Intellectual disability (Autism, specific learning disability and mental illness) can avail the assistance of scribe for writing answers on their behalf. For engaging the scribe, candidates will have to indicate the same while filling ONLINE application form. Engagement of scribe will be subject to the following conditions: for the revised formats. The existing certificates of disability issued under the Persons with Disabilities Act 1995 (since repealed) shall continue to be valid for the period specified therein.
(a) Candidates will have to arrange for the scribe on their own.
(b) The scribe so arranged should not himself/herself be the candidate for the notification for which the candidate is appearing. Also same scribe should not be engaged for more than one candidate. The scribe and the candidate shall give a declaration to this effect. Any violation, if detected at any stage will render both candidate and scribe disqualified.
(c) Candidates opting for scribe will have to provide additional details for scribes during submission of ONLINE application form as per Annexure-V(D)
(d) Separate e-Call Letter will be issued to scribes accompanying the candidates. , so that RRBs can issue e-Call Letter for scribe and the same shall be signed by both candidate and scribe. Scribe should produce original and valid ID proof at CBT Center and bring passport size photograph.
(e) The candidate shall be responsible for any misconduct on the part of the scribe brought by him/her during the examination.
(f) Candidates availing the assistance of a scribe shall be eligible for compensatory time of not less than 20 minutes for every hour of examination.
(g) Candidates who wish to avail services of scribe but are unable to furnish the details of scribe at the time of ONLINE application, may avail the services of scribe by filling up necessary details in Format given at Annexure V(D) at the CBT center duly complying the conditions stipulated for scribe. The change of scribe may also be allowed in emergency duly recording reasons and filling the relevant details including pasting of photograph of the new scribe as per Annexure V(D)
(h) Conditions regarding engagement of scribe shall be subject to various provisions/orders of the competent authority, as amended from time to time.
.
11.5 All one-eyed candidates and candidates whose visual degree of disability is less than 40% shall not be considered as Visually Impaired persons and the provision for engaging scribe shall not be applicable to them.
11.6 Selected PwBD candidates will be subjected to medical examination by Railway Medical Authorities at the time of DV and only those conforming to the medical standards as laid down in the Indian Railway Medical Manual and other extant provisions, as the case may be, will be eligible for appointment.
11.7 When vacancies are reserved for PwBDs and full panel for PwBDs cannot be made with the minimum qualifying percentage marks of each category, viz., UR, SC, ST, OBC-NCL, a relaxation of up to 2% marks in the minimum qualifying marks prescribed for the community will be allowed. Special Note for all Candidates seeking reservation/relaxation bene fits All the candidates seeking reservation/relaxation benefits available for
SC/ST/OBC-NCL/EWS/PwBD/ExSM must ensure that they are entitled to such reservation/relaxation as per eligibility prescribed in the Rules/CEN. They should be in possession of all the requisite certificates in the prescribed
format in support of their claim as stipulated in the Rules/CEN.

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Read more about (Reservation) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)

(Computer Based Examination (CBT) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)

Stages of Exam:

There shall be a Single Stage Computer Based Test (CBT) followed by Stenography Skill Test (SST)/Translation Test (TT)/Performance Test (PT)/Teaching Skill Test (TST) (as applicable) and document verification and medical examination thereafter. RRBs reserve the right to conduct the CBT in Single or multi stage mode.

Junior Translator/Hindi:

A single stage Computer Based Test will be conducted followed by a qualifying translation test. The Question Paper shall be designed to test equally both the knowledge of English language as well as knowledge of Hindi language. Atleast 50% of the questions will be designed to test language proficiency – 20% for English and 30% for Hindi. The remaining questions will be designed to test General Knowledge, General Intelligence, Simple Arithmetic and basics of computer.

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Read more about (Computer Based Examination (CBT) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)

(Apply Online) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)

(a) Candidates can apply for the notified posts of any one RRB only as per their eligibility through ONLINE application mode by visiting the official website of RRBs listed at Para 20.0.
(b) Read all the Information and Instructions detailed in the CENthoroughly before starting the filling up of application by clicking the appropriate Link on the RRB website. It is essential that the candidate understands all information of the CEN correctly to prevent any mistakes while filling application.
(c) Scanned documents in JPEG Format to be kept ready before filling the application In order to ensure speedy filling up of application by the candidates, they should keep the following documents ready in digital form before logging in to the application page.

Candidate Photograph: JPEG image of size 20 to 50KB (Please Refer Para 15.1 (o) (3) regarding specification of photograph)
Candidate Signature: JPEG image of size 10 to 40KB (Please Refer Para15.1 (o) (5) regarding specification of signature)
SC/ST Certificate(Only for candidates seeking Free Travel Pass): JPEG image of size 50 to 100KB
Scribe Photo (wherever applicable): JPEG image of size 20 to 50KB (Please Refer Para 15.1 (o) (3) regarding specification of photograph)

(d) Check RRB wise Vacancies for the qualification and Reservation Category of the candidate: The candidates are advised to check the Post Parameter Table and Vacancy Table in this CEN to ascertain vacancies notified against all RRBs andthen decide the RRB for which they wish to applyand ensure that the RRB to which they wish to fill in the online application is having vacancies for their educational qualification, community/categoryand eligibility in terms of age,medical standards, disability etc.
(e) Following steps may be followed to dynamically ascertain the availability of vacancies and candidate’s eligibility for various posts notified:

• Post Parameter Table:Click on the Post Parameter Table Tab. From this table, candidate can ascertain the post(s) for which he/she is eligible as per qualification, type of disability for which post is suitable if PwBD, required medical standards etc.
• Vacancy Table: To ascertain the comprehensive details of vacancy of all the posts notified against an RRB for his/her eligibility, candidate may select the RRB from the drop down list of RRBs and can view the vacancies for all the notified posts against various Railways/Units attached to that RRB on selecting the eligibility parameters. After scrutinizing the vacancy table, candidates may decide the RRB for which they wish to apply duly ensuring that vacancy exists for their qualification/community/EWS/PwBD/ExSM category etc.
• Once the RRB has been selected, preliminary registration is ompleted and registration number is allotted, change of RRB will not be permitted under any circumstances.

(f) Candidates are required to go to the link provided for filling ONLINE application and fill up the personal details/Bio-Data, fee paid etc., carefully. They are also required to exercise their option/preference for Post(s), Railway(s)/Production Unit(s).

(g) CANDIDATES PLEASE NOTE:

• Multiple posts and other requirements have been notified in this CEN.
The candidates are required to indicate their Post-wise and Railway/PUwise preferences very carefully. Options once exercised in the ONLINE Application shall be final and no request for change shall be entertained.
Therefore, candidates are advised to be careful in exercise of option for Post(s) and Railway(s)/PU(s). RRBs will allot the post and the Railway/Production Unit to the selected candidates as per the preference of the candidates subject to merit and vacancy position. However in case of administrative exigencies/requirements, RRBs reserve the right to allot any post/Railway subject to the suitability of the candidate(s).
• Candidates with partial option will be considered only for the specific categories opted by them since non-option for certain categories or all categories would indicate their unwillingness for the same.
• Candidates are advised to keep their personal mobile number and personal valid e-mail ID active throughout the recruitment process, as all communications from RRBs will be sent only through SMS/e-mail. RRBs
will not entertain any request for change of mobile number and e-mail address at any stage. Candidates are advised to note and preserve their Registration Number for further stages of recruitment process/ correspondence with RRB concerned. Candidates are further advised to visit website(s) of RRBs frequently to get the latest information on various stages of recruitment process or any changes about this CEN.
The onus is on the candidates to prove with valid documents that all the information submitted by them in the ONLINE application is true.

STEPS TO SUBMIT ONLINE APPLICATION:

completing the process at Para 15.0 a, b, c & d above carry out the following:
a) Select the RRB to which you wish to apply. Please be aware that, RRB once selected cannot be changed after the preliminary registration is completed and Registration number is allotted.
b) Confirm that you have read and understood the instructions clearly by clicking the check box. Click on the “New Registration”
c) Registration Details: Enter your name, Date of Birth and Father’s name as per Para 1.7 of General Instructions, Mother’s Name, Aadhaar Number, SSLC/Matric Roll Number, Year of Passing, Mobile Number and e-mail-ID and
then submit for registration.Candidates can modify the application particulars except RRB chosen, Email ID and Mobile Number, even after submission of application, but within the last date of submission of application, by paying
modification fee. Please note that the email ID used for the Registration must be yours and unique. Also note that both the email and Mobile Number will be verified during the Online Application process with a One Time Password (OTP).
d) Verification of email ID and mobile number through OTP: On submitting the primary details, the Registration Number and Password shall be displayed to the candidate. Also, OTPs shall be sent to the registered Mobile Number and e-mail along with the Registration details. The candidate should retrieve the OTPs from e-mail and Mobile and then enter OTPs to proceed with the filling up of application and to make payment.
Candidate should note and preserve their Registration Number for later reference during the recruitment process and RRB will not entertain any request seeking registration number.
e) Candidates can proceed with the online application by clicking on the “Already Registered” Button on the Home Page using the Registration Number and password.
f) In the Part Iof application page, provide the details of Educational Qualification, Community- UR/OBC/SC/ST/EWS, Gender, Religion, Ex SM, PwBD, Minority, Economically Backward Class and Age Relaxation eligibility category as applicable and other details.
g) In the Part II of application page, candidate has to set priority/preference of the posts.
Set priority / preferences for posts: If the candidate is eligible for more than one post based on his/her educational qualification and other details furnished, he/she must set the priority/preferences for these posts. The list of posts (in the chosen RRB) for which a candidate is eligible is displayed. Similarly, if the chosen RRB has vacancies for more than one Railway/Production Unit, then vacancies for all such Railways/Production Units for which a candidate is eligible, will be listed out. The candidate should fill their priority/preferences number in the textbox against each post that they are eligible for, in the RRB they are applying to.
Candidates with partial option will be considered only for the specific categories opted by them. Non-option for certain posts would be considered as their unwillingness for the same.

h) Payment and Bank Account Details:

i. On completion of application details as above, the candidate will be directed to the payment page to choose payment mode i.e. Bank (Online Net Banking/Credit Card/Debit Card/UPI and OfflineChallan) or Post Office Challan
as explained in Para 7.1 and complete the payment process. Chose the mode of payment and complete the payment process. Please note the last date and time specified for each mode of payment and submit the application well in time.
ii. Those paying through Bank-offline mode, the payment confirmation may take
2 hours and hence they have to again login after 2 hours and look for confirmation of payment status.
iii. The time period for payment confirmation shall vary from 24 hrs to 48 hrs in case of Post Office payment.
(i) Scribe for PwBD Candidates: Indicate option for scribe if you are a PwBD candidate eligible for scribe. Only the candidates suffering from Visually Impairment (VI)/candidates whose writing speed is affected by
LocomotorsDisability (one arm),are eligible for availing scribe against this CEN. In case you have firmed up the scribe, then enter the details of scribe such as name, father’s name, educational qualification etc. Please note that the qualification of the scribe should be one step below the qualification of the candidate taking examination. Alsothe scribe so arranged should not himself/herself be the candidate for the notification for which the candidate
is appearing and same scribe should not be engaged for more than one candidate.
j) Detailed Educational Qualification: Furnish all the relevant information on the qualification as required in the application.
k) Choice of Exam Language: English is the default language. In case the candidate wishes to choose any other language, then the same can be selected from the drop down list of languages. The languages listed are Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Odiya, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu. In case of any difference/ discrepancy/dispute in the Questions between English and the opted
language, the content of English version shall prevail.
l) Complete the balance fields e.g. Mother Tongue, Moles/Identification Marks, Address etc.
m) Bank Account Details for Refund: Candidate who attend 1st Stage CBT are eligible for refund of examination fee as per details in Para 7. All candidates who have given the confirmation to receive their refund to the account from which they have made the application fee payment, need not fill these details and hence, this will not be visible for them. Only those candidates who do not wish to receive the refund in the account through which they paid examination fee should provide the details of Beneficiary Account in which they wish to receive the refund viz. BeneficiaryName, Account Number and IFSC Code in the Online Application.
n) Candidates may indicate their consent or otherwise for sharing the scores obtained by them in RRB exams with other Ministries/Departments/ PSUs and Private organizations, for recruitment in their organizations.

o) Photograph and Signature Upload:

1. Candidate will be automatically directed to ‘Photo and Signature Upload’part of the application.
2. Select the Upload Photo Tab and upload your colour photograph. The photograph should comply with the following requirements.
3. SPECIFICATIONS FOR PHOTOGRAPH:
a. It should be a Color Passport Photograph with white/light color background.
b. It should be the size of 35mmX45mm or 320 x 240 pixelswith name and date printed on it.
c. It should be in JPG/JPEG format scanned with 100 DPI resolution.
d. The size of the photograph should be between 20-50KB.
e. The color photograph must have been taken on or after 15-12-2018 in a professional studio. Photographs taken using mobile and selfcomposed portraits may result in rejection of application.
f. The photo should have clear front view of the candidate without cap and sunglasses.
g. The face should occupy at least 50% of the area of the photograph with a full face view looking at the camera directly.
h. The main features of the face must not be covered by hair of the head any cloth or any shadow.
i. Forehead, eyes, nose and chin should be clearly visible.
j. In case the candidate wears glasses, then the photograph should not have any glare/reflections on glasses and eyes should be clearly visible.
k. The photograph must match with the candidate appearance on the days of CBTs/Stenography Test/Skill Test/Translation Test/DV and Medical est.
l. PwBD candidates should also upload passport photograph as per above specifications only and not the full body photograph used in the disability certificate.
m. Candidates are advised to keep at least 12 (Twelve) copies of the same photograph for further use as and when required during the recruitment process.
4. Select upload Signature Tab and upload your Scanned Signature. The signature image should comply with the following specifications.
5. Specification for Signature Image:
a. The applicant has tosign on white paper with Black Ink pen within a box of size 50mm x 20mm.
b. Signature must be in running letters and NOT IN BLOCK LETTERS.
c. The image should be in JPG/JPEG format scanned with 100 DPI resolution.
d. Dimensions of 50mm x 20mm or 140 x60 pixels (preferred).
e. Size of file should be between 10KB-40KB.
f. Notes
i. The signature must be of the applicant only and not of any other person. :
ii. The applicants signature obtained during registration and at the time of CBTs/SST/TT/DV/Medical should match the uploaded signature.
iii. In case it is found that there is a mismatch of signature, the candidate may be disqualified, legal prosecution will be initiated and the candidate will be debarred for life from appearing in railway recruitments (RRBs/RRCs).

6. SCANNING AND RESIZING OF THE PHOTOGRAPH AND SIGNATURE:

a. Set the scanner resolution to a minimum of 100 dpi (dots per inch).
b. Set Color to True Color. File Size as specified above.
c. Crop the image in the scanner to the edge of the photograph/signature,then use the upload editor to crop the image to the final size (as specified above).
d. The image file should be in JPG or JPEG format. An example file name is:image01.jpg or image01.jpeg.
e. Image dimensions can be checked by listing the folder files or moving the mouse over the file image icon. Candidates can easily obtain photo and signature in .jpeg format not exceeding 50KB & 40KB respectively by
using MS Paint or MS Office Picture Manager.
f. Scanned photograph and signature in any format can be saved in .jpg format by using ‘Save As’ option in the File menu and size can be reduced below 50KB (photograph) & 40KB (signature) by using crop and then resize option in the ‘Image’ menu. Similar options are available in other photo editors also.

p) SC/ST Certificate Upload:

Candidates belonging to SC/ST community who have opted to avail Free Rail Travel, have to upload scanned copy of their SC/ ST certificates (JPG/JPEG format, 50KB – 100KB) also for availing the facility of Free Travel Authority (Second Class Railway Pass).
CARE: If the file size and format for photograph, signature and SC/ST Community Certificate are not as prescribed, an error message will be displayed.

q) Submission of Application:

In the end candidates have to confirm the declaration“I hereby declare that I have gone through the eligibility criteria for the post(s) applied for and meet all the requirements therein, that all the details furnished by me in the
application are true and complete to the best of my knowledge & belief and nothing has been concealed or suppressed. I also understand that in case, any of the details furnished is found untrue during any stage of recruitment or thereafter RRB shall disqualify me for the post(s) applied for and /or I shall be liable for any other action under the extant rules”. After confirming the above declaration and submission of the application, the candidate may save the file as “PDF” and/or take print of the application and preserve it for reference and record.

MODIFICATION OF APPLICATION:

a. After final submission of ONLINE application, in case the candidates wish to make minor changes to correct inadvertent errors in the application, the correction of data other than RRB, email and mobile number can be done by
paying the modification fee of Rs.100/- (Non-Refundable). The modification fee shall be applicable to all candidates including fee concession categories and this fee is not refundable for any category.
b. In the case of a candidate modifying his community from SC/ST to UR or OBC, he will have to pay the difference in examination fee i.e. Rs.250/- in addition to the modification fee. In case of failure to do so, his modified
application will not be accepted.
c. Similarly, if a candidate is switching from Ex.SM/PwBD/Female/Transgender to UR/OBC- NonEx.SM/Non PwBD/Male etc., he will have to pay the difference in examination fee i.e. Rs.250/- in addition to the modification
fee. In case of failure to do so, his modified application will not be accepted.
d. The modification to the registration and application details can be done twice only.
e. CAUTION: Candidates who wish to modify their application are advised to do the same sufficiently well in advance of the closing date and time of the CEN. In case, due to last minute congestion, if the modifications attempt
fails at any stage, and the modification carried out have not been saved or not submitted in time, the earlier information furnished in the application shall be considered and no correspondence on this subject shall be
entertained.
f. The RRB, email id and mobile number cannot be changed.
g. The step by step procedure for modification of the application shall be as below:
i. Login using Registration Number and Password
ii. Pay modification fee through any of the modes available for actual examination fee payment. Ensure payment is done well within the date and time prescribed.
iii. Click on the ‘Modify Application’ Button.
iv. Proceed with the changes intended as per instructions given and submit the application. Preserve the print out of latest application for record.

INVALID APPLICATIONS / REJECTIONS

Online applications are liable for rejection on the following grounds amongst others: :-
a. Invalid photos on account of Black and White photo, photo with cap or wearing Goggles. Photos whichare disfigured, small size, full body, showing only one side view of the face, unrecognizable photos,photostatcopy of photo, group photo, selfie photo, photo taken by mobile, morphed photo and online application without photo among others.
b. Signature in capital/block letters.
c. Not possessing the prescribed qualification for the post(s) as on the closing date for registration of online application.
d. Over-aged or under aged or Date of Birth wrongly filled.
e. Multiple applications to different RRBs or same RRB. In such case, all applications will be rejected and such candidates will be debarred from future RRB/RRC exams.
f. Candidate's name figuring in the debarred list of any RRB / RRC.
g. Incomplete or incorrectly filled application.
h. Any other irregularities which are observedand considered as invalid by RRB.
NOTE: In case the application is rejected, candidates will be able to view their status ONLINE on the website of RRBsalong with the reasons for rejection(s) which is final and binding and no further correspondence shall be entertained on the subject. No refund of examination fee will be made on account of rejection of application. SMS and e-mail alerts shall also be sent to the candidates on their registered mobile numbers and e-mail IDs, as indicated in their ONLINE application. Candidates will not be intimated by post.

HALL TICKET (e-CALL LETTER) FOR CBTs, SST/PT/TST/TT, DV:

16.1 SMS and email messages will be sent to all eligible candidates about the e-Call letter and upload details on their registered mobile number and email ID. However, candidates should regularly visit the website of RRB as there can be failure in delivery of SMS/E-mail to the candidates due to reasons beyond control of RRBs.
16.2 Eligible candidates can download e-Call letter along with Annexure V(D) 16.3 Candidates should read the instructions on the e-Call letter carefully and follow them scrupulously. Failure to comply with the instructions may lead to cancellation of their candidature.(declaration for scribe, wherever applicable) from the RRBs websites about 10 days before the date of the CBT, Stenography Skill Test, Performance Test/Teaching Skill Test, Translation Test, DV(as applicable). Call letter will not be sent to candidates by post.
16.4 In case of SC/ST candidates who opted for free rail travel facility and uploaded their valid caste certificate for availing the benefit of free travel authority (Sleeper Class Railway Pass), the e-call letter for CBT, Stenography Skill Test, Performance Test/Teaching Skill Test, Translation Test, DV (as applicable) will contain the free travel authority and such candidates will be allowed to book ticket on submission of self-attested photo copy of e-call letter and SC/ST Certificate. During the journey, these candidates should carry original SC/ST Certificate and one original prescribed proof of identity for undertaking journey failing which they will be treated as travelling without ticket and charged accordingly.
16.5 Candidates must bring their e-Call letter along with a valid Photo ID (viz. Voter Card, Aadhaar Card, printout of e-Aadhaar (not Xerox copy of Aadhaar), Driving License, PAN card, Passport, Identity Card issued by the employer in case the candidate is a Govt. employee, College/University Photo ID card, (if still studying) in ORIGINAL to the examination hall, failing which candidates shall NOT be allowed to appear for the CBT, Stenography Skill Test, Performance Test/Teaching Skill Test, Translation Test, DV (as applicable). The name, date of birth and photo on ID should match with the details furnished in the online application, failing which the candidate may not be permitted to appear in CBT,Stenography Skill Test,Performance Test/Teaching Skill Test, Translation Test, DV (as applicable).
16.6 Candidates must also bring one color photograph (of size 35mm x 45mm) which was uploaded in the application, for appearing in the CBT,Stenography Skill Test, Performance Test/Teaching Skill Test, Translation Test, DV (as applicable).

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(VACANCY DETAILS) RRB NTPC (CEN No. 01/2019) Exam : RRB Thiruvananthapuram

RRB Thiruvananthapuram :

Cat. No.	Name of the Post	Level	Rly./ PU
Cat. No.	Name of the Post	Level	Rly./ PU	UR	SC	ST	OBC	EWS	Total
(1)	(2)	(3)	(4)	(5)	(6)	(7)	(8)	(9)	(10)
2	Station Master	6	SR	171	47	47	37	38	340
3	Goods Guard	5	SR	32	13	8	23	9	85
5	Senior Clerk Cum Typist	5	SR	12	4	2	6	2	26
6	Senior Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk	5	SR	81	37	20	58	24	220
9	Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk	3	SR	63	26	22	43	19	173
11	Junior Clerk Cum Typist	2	SR	13	9	6	8	3	39
13	Trains Clerk	2	SR	5	2	2	3	2	14
RRB Total				377	138	107	178	97	897
GRAND TOTAL (All RRBs)				15131	5127	2787	8712	3510	35277

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(VACANCY DETAILS) RRB NTPC (CEN No. 01/2019) Exam : RRB Siliguri

RRB Siliguri :

Cat. No.	Name of the Post	Level	Rly./ PU
Cat. No.	Name of the Post	Level	Rly./ PU	UR	SC	ST	OBC	EWS	Total
(1)	(2)	(3)	(4)	(5)	(6)	(7)	(8)	(9)	(10)
2	Station Master	6	NFR	20	7	4	13	6	50
3	Goods Guard	5	NFR	29	11	5	19	7	71
5	Senior Clerk Cum Typist	5	NFR	23	9	5	17	6	60
6	Senior Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk	5	NFR	35	13	7	23	9	87
8	Traffic Assistant	4	NFR	1	0	0	0	0	1
9	Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk	3	NFR	26	10	5	17	6	64
11	Junior Clerk Cum Typist	2	NFR	34	13	6	23	8	84
13	Trains Clerk	2	NFR	10	4	2	7	3	26
RRB Total				178	67	34	119	45	443

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(VACANCY DETAILS) RRB NTPC (CEN No. 01/2019) Exam : RRB Secunderabad

RRB Secunderabad :

Cat. No.	Name of the Post	Level	Rly./ PU
Cat. No.	Name of the Post	Level	Rly./ PU	UR	SC	ST	OBC	EWS	Total
(1)	(2)	(3)	(4)	(5)	(6)	(7)	(8)	(9)	(10)
1	Commercial Apprentice	6	ECoR	1	0	0	0	0	1
2	Station Master	6	ECoR	14	5	2	7	3	31
2	Station Master	6	SCR	328	119	63	219	81	810
3	Goods Guard	5	ECoR	59	20	11	32	14	136
3	Goods Guard	5	SCR	298	106	54	190	74	722
4	Junior Accounts Assistant Cum Typist	5	SCR	38	13	6	24	8	89
5	Senior Clerk Cum Typist	5	ECoR	3	3	3	1	1	11
5	Senior Clerk Cum Typist	5	SCR	47	19	9	27	11	113
6	Senior Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk	5	ECoR	13	5	2	8	3	31
6	Senior Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk	5	SCR	176	67	35	113	44	435
9	Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk	3	ECoR	17	6	3	9	4	39
9	Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk	3	SCR	243	90	44	154	60	591
10	Accounts Clerk Cum Typist	2	SCR	28	10	5	17	6	66
11	Junior Clerk Cum Typist	2	ECoR	2	2	4	1	2	11
11	Junior Clerk Cum Typist	2	SCR	47	20	13	27	12	119
13	Trains Clerk	2	ECoR	3	2	2	1	1	9
13	Trains Clerk	2	SCR	8	3	1	6	2	20
RRB Total				1325	490	257	836	326	3234

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(VACANCY DETAILS) RRB NTPC (CEN No. 01/2019) Exam : RRB Ranchi

RRB Ranchi :

Cat. No.	Name of the Post	Level	Rly./ PU
Cat. No.	Name of the Post	Level	Rly./ PU	UR	SC	ST	OBC	EWS	Total
(1)	(2)	(3)	(4)	(5)	(6)	(7)	(8)	(9)	(10)
1	Commercial Apprentice	6	ECR	1	0	0	0	0	1
1	Commercial Apprentice	6	SER	2	0	1	2	0	5
2	Station Master	6	ECR	50	19	10	35	13	127
2	Station Master	6	SER	34	26	8	21	10	99
3	Goods Guard	5	ECR	26	4	0	29	11	70
3	Goods Guard	5	SER	156	68	30	106	41	401
5	Senior Clerk Cum Typist	5	ECR	26	9	5	17	6	63
5	Senior Clerk Cum Typist	5	SER	28	12	5	17	8	70
6	Senior Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk	5	ECR	39	14	7	26	10	96
6	Senior Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk	5	SER	20	8	2	11	5	46
9	Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk	3	ECR	61	22	11	39	15	148
9	Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk	3	SER	34	14	5	18	8	79
11	Junior Clerk Cum Typist	2	ECR	29	11	5	20	8	73
11	Junior Clerk Cum Typist	2	SER	29	14	5	19	7	74
13	Trains Clerk	2	ECR	5	3	2	5	2	17
13	Trains Clerk	2	SER	8	2	2	3	2	17
RRB Total				548	226	98	368	146	1386

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(Medical Standards) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)

(Medical Standards For The Posts) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)

Candidates called for DV will have to pass requisite medical fitness test(s) conducted by the Railway Administration to ensure that the candidates are medically fit to carry out the duties connected with the post(s) opted by them. Visual Acuity Standard is one of the important criteria of medical fitness of railway staff. The medical standards are outlined below:

SL.NO	MEDICAL STANDARD	GENERAL FITNESS	VISUAL ACUITY
1	B- 1	Physically fit in all respects	Distant Vision: 6/9, 6/12 with or without glasses(power of lenses not to exceed 4D) Near Vision: Sn. 0.6,0.6 with or without glasses when reading or close work is required and must pass test for Colour Vision, Binocular Vision, Night Vision, Mesopic Vision etc.
2	C-1	Physically fit in all respects	Distant Vision: 6/12, 6/18 with or without glasses. Near Vision: Sn. 0.6, 0.6 with or without glasses when reading or close work is required.
3	C-2	Physically fit in allrespects	Distant Vision: 6/12, nil with or without glasses Near Vision: Sn. 0.6 combined with or without glasses where reading or close work is required

Note: The above medical standards are indicative and not exhaustive and apply to candidates in general. The candidates are advised to read Chapter 5 of Indian Railway Medical Manual Vol.I Different Medical standards shall apply to Ex-Servicemen as detailed in which can also be accessed at www.indianrailways.gov.in. Para 534 of Indian Railway Medical Manual (IRMM) Volume I www.indianrailways.gov.in , which may be accessed at .

Candidates are advised to ensure that they are eligible as per the medical standards for the post(s) opted by them. In case of failure of the candidate to pass the prescribed medical fitness for the opted posts, he will not be
considered for empanelment for that post and alternate appointment shall not be provided.

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(Important dates and times) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)

Date of Publication	23.02.2019
Opening of online registration of Applications	08.03.2019 at 10.00 hrs.
Closing of online registration of Applications	07.04.2019 at 23.59 hrs.
Closing Date & Time for Payment of Application Fee through:
(a) Online (Net Banking/ Credit Card/ Debit Card/UPI)	13.04.2019 at 23.59 hrs.
(b) SBI Challan	11.04.2019 at 13.00 hrs.
(c) Post Office Challan	11.04.2019 at 13.00 hrs.
Final submission of Applications	16.04.2019 at 23.59 hrs.
Computer Based Test (CBT)	Tentative schedule between June – July 2019

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