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(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-1 (General Inteligence & Reasoning)



(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-1

(General Inteligence & Reasoning)



Directions : A statement followed by two assumptions I & II is given. Which one of the four given alternatives is correct ?

Statement : Imprisonment for 27 years made Nelson Mandela The President.

 Assumptions : I. One who will be imprisoned for 27 years will become The President
II. To become The President imprisonment is a qualification.
(a) Only I is implicit.

(b) Only II is implicit.
(c) Both I & II are implicit.
(d) Neither I nor II is implicit.

2. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. 
CONVERSATION
(a) Nation

(b) Version
(c) Station

(d) Reason

3. A word is given in capital letters. It is followed by four words. Out of these four words, three cannot be formed from the letters of the word in capital letters. Point out the word which can be formed from the letters of the
given word in capital letters. 
PREMONITION
(a) ACTION

(b) NATION
(c) MONITOR

(d) REMOVE

4. If A = 1, FAT = 27,then FAITH = ?
(a) 44

(b) 42

(c) 41

(d) 40

5. If the word ‘STOVE’ can be written as ‘FNBLK, how can the word ‘VOTES’ be written in that code?
(a) LBNKF

(b) LNBKF
(c) LKNBF

(d) FLKBN

6. If’PAPER’ is written as’OZODQ’, how ‘PENCIL’ can be written in that code ?
(a) QFODJM

(b) OFOBHM
(c) ODMDJM

(d) ODMBHK

7. There are five friends-S, K, M, A, R. S is shorter than K, but taller than R. M is the tallest. A is a little shorter than K and little taller than S. Who has two persons taller and two persons shorter than him ?

(a) R

(b) S

(c) K

(d) A

8. Rajiv is the brother of Atul. Sonia is the sister of Sunil. Atul is the son of Sonia. How is Rajiv related to Sonia ?
(a) Nephew

(b) Son
(c) Brother

(d) Father

9. Of the five members of a panel sitting in a row, A is to the left of B, but on the right of C, D is on the right of B but is on the left of E. Find the member who is sitting in the middle.
(a) B

(b) D

(c) A

(d) C

10. There are some boys and dogs at a place. If total number of heads is 7 and total number of legs is 20, how many boys and how many dogs are there?
(a) 2 boys and 5 dogs

(b) 3 boys and 4 dogs
(c) 4 boys and 3 dogs

(d) 5 boys and 2 dogs

 

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(e-Book) RRB Group-D Exam Practice Sample Papers Download

11. P, Q & R are educated, P, R & S are hard working, R, S & T are employed, P, Q, S & T are polite. Who is educated, hardworking, polite but not employed ?
(a) P

(b) Q

(c) R

(d) T

12. Rama travels 10 km towards the north, turns left and travels 4 km and then again turns right and covers another 5 km and then turns right and travels another 4 km. How far is he from the starting point ?
(a) 5 km.

(b) 10 km.
(c) 15 km.

(d) 19 km.

13. A man starts from a point, walks 2 km towards north,turns towards his right and walks 2 km, turns right again and walks. What is the direction now he is facing ?
(a) South

(b) East
(c) North

(d) West

Directions (14-18): In the following questions select the related letters/ word / number/figure from the given alternatives.

14. Mother : Child: : Cloud : ?
(a) Shine

(b) Water
(c) Rain

(d) Weather

15. Mountain : Hill :: Tree : ?
(a) Forest

(b) Shrub
(c) Leaf

(d) Ground

16. ADBC : WZXY : : EHFG : ?
(a) STUV

(b) TUSV
(c) STVU

(d) SVTU

17. JLNP : OMKI :: SUWY : ?
(a) MLKJ

(b) PLHD
(c) XVTR

(d) FGHI

18. 42 : 56 :: 72 : ?
(a) 81

(b) 90
(c) 92

(d) 100

19. 3265 : 4376:: 4673: ?
(a) 2154

(b) 5487
(c) 3562

(d) 5784

Directions (20-21): In each of the following questions a word given in Capital Letters is followed by four answer words. Out of these only one cannot be formed by using the letters of the given words. Find out that word.

20. INTEGRAL
(a) ENTREATY

(b) TRIANGLE
(c) RELATING

(d) ALERTING

21. RAPPROCHEMENT
(a) REPRESENT

(b) REPROACH
(c) PHANTOM

(d) CEMENT

22. In a code language the following alphabets are coded in a particular way

(a) BOUND

(b) BONUS
(c) BUNCH

(d) BOARD

23. If PALE is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590, how is PEARL coded in that code?
(a) 29530

(b) 24153
(c) 25413

(d) 25430

Directions: In question no. 24, find out from amongst the alternatives, the pair of number not belonging to the group for lack of common property.

24. (a) 64-8

(b) 80-9
(c) 7-49

(d) 36-6

Directions: From among the given alternatives select the one in which the set of numbers is most like the set of numbers given in the question.

25. Given set : 63, 49, 35
(a) 81, 63, 45

(b) 64, 40, 28
(c) 72, 40, 24

(d) 72, 48, 24

Answer Keys :

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25.

 

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RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

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(Paper) RRB Bhubaneshwar Group “D” Exam (Held On 30.09.2007) Part-3



(Paper) RRB Bhubaneshwar Group “D” Exam (Held On 30.09.2007) Part-3



102. 6.7 + 9(8-(2.6+1.5) + 12) = ?

(1) 13.6

(2) 31.6

(3) 143.1

(4) 149.8

103. The highest prize in literature of Indian government is

(1) Literature Prize

(2) Lalit Kala Puraskar

(3) Dada Saheb Phalke Puraskar

(4) Jnanpith Puraskar

104. The area of a circle whose radius is 3.5 cm. is

(1) 12.5 cm2

(2) 22.5 cm2

(2) 28.5 cm2

(4) 38.5 cm2

105. A sum of Rs. 6300 was lent at 5% rate of interest for 9 years. The simple interest will be

(1) Rs. 1840

(2) Rs. 1942

(3) Rs. 2742

(4) Rs. 2835

106. In the following the Belghar wild- life sanctuary is known for

(1) Crocodile

(2) Elephants

(3) Tigers

(4) None of these

107. International Gandhi Prize 2006 was given to

(1) Kofi Annan

(2) Desmond Tutu

(3) Yohi Sasakava

(4) Sunderial Bahuguna

108. The player of tournament of World Cup Cricket 2007 was

(1) Graeme Smith

(2) Muttaih Muralitharan

(3) Rahul Dravid

(4) Gelnn McGrath

109. If the compound interest on a certain sum for 2 years at the rate of 10% p.a. is Rs. 630, the sum is

(1) Rs. 1000

(2) Rs. 2000

(3) Rs. 3000

(4) Rs. 4000

110. The largest gland in human body to secrete bile is

(1) Gall bladder

(2) Liver

(3) Skin

(4) Pancreas

 

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RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

RRB Group-D Exam Online Tests Series

 

111. The deepest lake of Asia is

(1) Rengali

(2) Pulicut

(3) Chilka

(4) Baikal

112. Chalk : Lime : : Coal : ?

(1) Carbon

(2) Fire

(3) Oven

(4) Chimney

113. Oriss is a chief producer of

(1) Wheat

(2) Cotton

(3) Pulse

(4) Jute

114. Which of the following is known for Bali journey?

(1) Cuttak

(2) Paradip

(3) Gopalpur

(4) Jajpur

115. In how many years will the simple interest on Rs. 6900 at the rate of 4% per annum be Rs. 2484?

(1) 4 years

(2) 7 years

(3) 9 years

(4) 12 years

116. In Forbes list, the richest man in the world is

(1) L.N. Mittal

(2) Bill Gates

(3) Queen Elizabeth

(4) George Bush

117. Jayadev belonged to

(1) Kakinada

(2) Machhalipatnam

(3) Vijaywada

(4) Puri

118. The study of heredity is called

(1) Anatomy

(2) Cytology

(3) Psychology

(4) Genetics

119. The last matches of Afro- Asian cricket championship were held in

(1) India

(2) Pakistan

(3) South Africa

(4) Kenya

120. Who is the first Indian spaceman?

(1) Homi Bhabha

(2) Rakesh Sharma

(3) Kalpana Chawla

(4) Sunita Williams

121. Which city hosted the Arab league conference?

(1) Dubai

(2) Muscat

(3) Riyadh

(4) Doha

122. If STORMY is coded as QVMTKA, then WINTER will be coded as

(1) UGLRCO

(2) UKLVCT

(3) XKNVDT

(4) XKLCVO

123. Barabat fort is situated at

(1) Cuttak

(2) Khurda

(3) Warangal

(4) Ahmedabad

124. The Commonwealth Games- 2010 will be held in

(1) Colombo

(2) Canberra

(3) New Delhi

(4) Dhaka

125. The dimensions of a rectangular hall are 5m x 4m x 3m. A window occupies an area of 4m2 . Without window the area of walls is

(1) 50m2

(2) 54m2

(3) 56m2

(4) 60m2

126. The nature of carbon dioxide is

(1) Inflammable

(2) Smellless

(3) Yellowish

(4) Sour

127. The largest store of bauxite has been found in the district of

(1) Nellore

(2) Engule

(3) Vishakhapattnam

(4) Tulcher

128. X starts for his office and walks 500m straight and turns left and walks 300m. he again turns left and walks 500m. he then turns right to walk 900m. How far is he from his office?

(1) 1000 m

(2) 1000 m

(3) 1200 m

(4) 1300 m

129. Which of the following is a non-metallic element?

(1) Mercury

(2) Manganese

(3) Carbon

(4) Gold

130. In respect of territorial area, the state of Andhra Pradesh is placed at

(1) Third

(2) Fourth

(3) Fifth

(4) Sixth

131. The recently discovered earthlike planet has been named ______ by the European scientists.

(1) NW 581C

(2) EU 581C

(3) PL 581C

(4) GL 581C

132. Karnam Malleswari is related to

(1) Weightlifting

(2) Wrestling

(3) Shotput

(4) Long jump 14

133. 300 men can do a work in 16 days. To do of the work in 15 days the number of men required is

(1) 80

(2) 75

(3) 60

(4) 45

134. The south- west monsoon starts during

(1) May- June

(2) June- July

(3) July - August

(4) August- September

135. The chairman of the Planning Commission in India is

(1) Dr. Manmohan Singh

(2) Arjun Singh

(3) P. Chidambaram

(4) Pranab Mukherjee

136. Salarjung museum is located in

(1) Hyderabad

(2) Delhi

(3) Kolkata

(4) Ahmedabad

137. The chief foodgrain crop of Andhra Pradesh is

(1) Ragi

(2) Jowar

(3) Wheat

(4) Rice

138. If DEADLY is coded as GHDGOB, then MOTIVE will be coded as

(1) OQVKXG

(2) NPUJWF

(3) PRWLYH

(4) QSXMZI

139. If A : B = 2 :1 and B :C = 6 : 5, then A : B : C =?

(1) 2 : 6 : 5

(2) 2 : 7 : 5

(3) 4 :10 : 7

(4) 12 : 6 : 5

140. The state with lowest area is

(1) Lakshadwip

(2) Pudicherry

(3) Goa

(4) Delhi

141. 47 kmph is equivalent to

(1) 10.03 m/s

(2) 11.04 m/s

(3) 13.05 m/s

(4) 14.06 m/s

142. Rocket is launched from

(1) Balasore

(2) Sri Harikota

(3) Trombay

(4) Siachen

143. Who is the President of Afghanistan?

(1) Pervez Musharraf

(2) Hamid Karzai

(3) M. Ahmedinejad

(4) M. Abbaas

144. The first novelist of Orissa is

(1) Faqir Mohan Senapti

(2) Gopinath Mohanty

(3) Anant Patnaik

(4) Manoj Das

145. A trader marks his goods at 20% higher than the cost price and then allows a discount of 10%. His gain per cent is

(1) 8%

(2) 10%

(3) 12%

(4) 14%

146. The outermost layer of earth’s atmosphere is

(1) Troposphere

(2) Lithosphere

(3) Mesosphere

(4) lonosphere

147. X, Y and Z can complete a work in 7, 14 and 28 days respectively. They together can complete the work in

(1) 4 days

(2) 8 days

(3) 12 days

(4) 16 days

148. A 140m long train is moving at 70 kmph. It will cross a man running at 4 kmph in the same direction of train in

(1) 4.63 seconds

(2) 5.63 seconds

(3) 6.63 seconds

(4) 7.63 seconds

149. 25m is what per cent of 7.5 km?

(1) 33%

(2) 3.3%

(3) 0.33%

(4) 0.03%

150. A tap can fill a tank in 8 minutes and an other tap can empty the tank in 16 minutes. If both the taps are opened together, the tank will be filled in

(1) 8 minutes

(2) 16 minutes

(3) 20 minutes

(4) 24 minutes

Answer Keys :

101. (4) 102. (4) 103. (4) 104. (4) 105. (4) 106. (2) 107. (3) 108. (4) 109. (3) 110. (2) 111. (4) 112. (1) 113. (4) 114. (4) 115. (3) 116. (2) 117. (4) 118. (4) 119. (4) 120. (2) 121. (3) 122. (2) 123. (1) 124. (3) 125. (1) 126. (4) 127. (1) 128. (3) 129. (3) 130. (3) 131. (4) 132. (1) 133. (1) 134. (1) 135. (1) 136. (1) 137. (4) 138. (3) 139. (4) 140. (1) 141. (3) 142. (2) 143. (2) 144. (2) 145. (1) 146. (4) 147. (1) 148. (4) 149. (3) 150. (1)

 

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RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

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(Paper) RRB Group D : Exam आर.आर.बी रेलवे ग्रुप -डी परीक्षा सामान्य ज्ञान SET-1


(Paper) RRB Group D : Exam आर.आर.बी रेलवे ग्रुप -डी परीक्षा
सामान्य ज्ञान SET-1


46.भारत का राष्ट्रीय पंचाग किस पर आधारित है?

(a) गुप्त संवत्
(b) विक्रम संवत्
(c) हिजरी संवत्
(d) शक संवत्

47. कत्थक भारत के किस क्षेत्र का प्रमुख शास्त्रीय नृत्य है?

(a) उत्तर भारत
(b) दक्षिण भारत
(c) पूर्वोत्तर भारत
(d) पश्चिम भारत

48. इजरायल की राजधानी कहाँ है?

(a) हेब्रॉन
(b) जेरुशलम
(c) तेल अवीव
(d) नजारेथ

49. गुटनिरपेक्ष आन्दोलन का प्रथम सम्मेलन कहाँ हुआ था?

(a) नई दिल्ली
(b) बीजिंग
(c) बेलग्रेड
(d) जापान

50. अण्डर-19 क्रिकेट वल्र्डकप का फाइनल 3 फरवरी, 2018  को खेला गया खिताब किस देश ने जीता?

(a) भारत
(b) पाकिस्तान
(c) ऑस्ट्रेलिया
(d) न्यूजीलैण्ड

51. अहमदाबाद स्थित ‘अभय घाट’ किसका समाधि स्थल है?

(a) इन्दिरा गाँधी
(b) मोरारजी देसाई
(c) राजीव गाँधी
(d) लालबहादुर शास्त्री

52. अमजद अली खाँ का सम्बन्ध किस वाद्ययन्त्र से है?

(a) सितार
(b) सरोद
(c) तबला
(d) सन्तूर

53. विश्व की सर्वाधिक जनसंख्या वाला देश कौन-सा है?

(a) भारत
(b) अमेरिका
(c) चीन
(d) जापान

54. स्पेन का राष्ट्रीय खेल क्या है?

(a) फुटबॉल
(b) हॉकी
(c) क्रिकेट
(d) साँडों की लड़ाई

55. ‘एशियन ड्रामा’ पुस्तक के लेखक कौन हैं?

(a) गुन्नार मिर्डल
(b) लियो टॉलस्टॉय
(c) मैक्सिम गोर्की
(d) मुल्कराज आनन्द

56. भारत में रेलवे जोनों की संख्या क्या है?

(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 17
(d) 18

57. ‘शाहनामा’ पुस्तक के रचनाकार कौन हैं?

(a) अलबरुनी
(b) फिरदौसी
(c) शेख सादी
(d) श्रीहर्ष

 

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RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

RRB Group-D Exam Online Tests Series

 

58. पीएसएलवी सी-40 द्वारा भारत ने 31 उपग्रहों का प्रक्षेपण किया इसमें अन्य कितने देशों के उपग्रह भी शामिल थे?

(a) पाँच
(b) छह
(c) सात
(d) चार

59.चीनी यात्री ह्वेनसांग किसके शासनकाल में भारत आया था?

(a) चन्द्रगुप्त मौर्य
(b) चन्द्रगुप्त प्रथम
(c) हर्षवद्र्धन
(d) चन्द्रगुप्त द्वितीय

60. आनन्दी बेन पटेल को किस राज्य का राज्यपाल नियुक्त किया गया है?

(a) छत्तीसगढ़
(b) तेलगांना
(c) मध्य प्रदेश
(d) झारखण्ड

61. स्वराज पार्टी के संस्थापक कौन थे?

(a) चितरंजन दास
(b) मोतीलाल नेहरू
(c) जवाहरलाल नेहरू
(d) ‘a’ और ‘b’

62. भारतीय राष्ट्रीय काँग्रेस और मुस्लिम लीग ने लखनऊ में कब एक समझौते पर हस्ताक्षर किया?

(a) 1916
(b) 1914
(c) 1918
(d) 1942

63. बिहार को बंगाल से अलग करके एक पृथक् प्रान्त कब मनाया गया था?

(a) 1910
(b) 1912
(c) 1914
(d) 1936

64. नालन्दा महाविहार का निर्माण किस राजवंश शासनकाल में हुआ था?

(a) गुप्त
(b) पाल
(c) सेन
(d) मौर्य

65.भारत की संसद में कौन शामिल हैं?

(a) लोकसभा और राज्यसभा
(b) राज्यसभा और राष्ट्रपति
(c) लोकसभा और राष्ट्रपति
(d) लोकसभा, राज्यसभा और राष्ट्रपति

66. 2017 एपके शिखर सम्मेलन का आयोजन कहाँ किया गया?

(a) बीजिंग (चीन)
(b) वैâनबरा (ऑस्ट्रेलिया)
(c) डा नांग (वियतनाम)
(d) जकार्ता (इण्डोनेशिया)

67. बिहार कृषि रोड मैप 2017-22 के बारे में क्या सही नहीं है?

(a) इसे बिहार के राज्यपाल सत्यपाल मलिक ने जारी किया।
(b) कृषि तथा विकास कल्याण से जुड़े कार्यक्रमों,अभियानों एवं मिशनों की चर्चा है।
(c) यह अपनी शृंखला का तीसरा रोड मैप है।
(d) पहली बार ‘बिहार कृषि रोड मैप’ वर्ष 2008 में जारी किया गया था।

68. किस राज्य की विधानसभा ने 26 अक्टूबर, 2017 को पिछड़ा वर्ग (राज्य की शैक्षिक संस्थाओं में सीटों और राज्य के अधीन सेवाओं में नियुक्तियों तथा पदों का आरक्षण) विधेयक 2017 पारित किया है?

(a) बिहार
(b) राजस्थान
(c) उत्तर प्रदेश
(d) मध्य प्रदेश

69.जलवायु परिवर्तन सम्मेलन कॉप 23/सीएमपी 13 का आयोजन 6-17 नवम्बर, 2017 के बीच कहाँ किया गया?

(a) बैकॉक (थाईलैण्ड)
(b) पेरिस (प्रâांस)
(c) बॉन (जर्मनी)
(d) वारसा (पोलैण्ड)

70. अमेरिकी राष्ट्रपति डोनाल्ड ट्रम्प ने नवम्बर, 2017 में किन एशियाई देशों का दौरा किया?

1. चीन
2. जापान
3. दक्षिण कोरिया
4. वियतनाम
5. फिलीपीन्स

कूट

(a) केवल 1
(b) केवल 4
(c) 1, 2 और 3
(d) ये सभी

71. विश्व के किस देश ने 29 अक्टूबर, 2017 को महिलाओं के लिए ‘स्पोट्र्स स्टेडियम’ बनाने की घोषणा की?

(a) कुवैत
(b) ईरान
(c) सऊदी अरब
(d) तुर्की

72. कैटेलोनिया के सन्दर्भ में कौन-सा/से कथन सही है?

1. स्पेन के इस स्वायत्त प्रान्त में पृथक्कता के लिए  जनमत-संग्रह किया गया।
2. कैटेलोनिया ने 27 अक्टूबर, 2017 को स्वतन्त्रता की घोषणा की
3. स्पेन ने कैटेलोनिया की स्वतन्त्रता को खारिज कर दिया।

कूट

(a) 1 और 2
(b) 1 और 2
(c) ये सभी
(d) 2 और 3

73. नागरिकता सम्बन्धी विवाद के बाद किस देश के उप-प्रधानमन्त्री को अपने पद से हटने का निर्णय देश के न्यायालय ने दिया?

(a) ऑस्ट्रेलिया
(b) न्यूजीलैण्ड
(c) जॉर्डन
(d) लेबनॉन

74. किस देश ने पहली बार एक रोबोट को ‘नागरिकता’ प्रदान की है?

(a) चीन
(b) ब्रिटेन
(c) सऊदी अरब
(d) जर्मनी

75. ‘2017 ग्लोबल पासपोर्ट पॉवर रैंक 2017’ में किस देश के पासपोर्ट की शक्तिशाली (पावरफुल) पासपोर्ट घोषित किया गया है?

(a) जर्मनी
(b) सिंगापुर
(c) भारत
(d) यूएसए

 

 

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Answers Keys :

46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (d) 51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (b) 61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (d) 66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (a) 71. (d) 72. (a) 73. (d) 74. (c) 75. (a)

(Paper) RRB Group D : Exam आर.आर.बी रेलवे ग्रुप -डी परीक्षा सामान्य विज्ञान SET-1


(Paper) RRB Group D : Exam आर.आर.बी रेलवे ग्रुप -डी परीक्षा
सामान्य विज्ञान SET-1


31. कार्य की इकाई क्या है?

(a) वाट
(b) न्यूटन
(c) जूल
(d) न्यूटन-सेकण्ड

32. इन्सुलिन का उत्पादन किया जाता है

(a) आइलेट्स ऑफ लैंगरहैन्स द्वारा
(b) पीयूष ग्रन्थि द्वारा
(c) थायरॉइड ग्रन्थि द्वारा
(d) एड्रिनल ग्रन्थि द्वारा

33. कीटों के वैज्ञानिक अध्ययन को कहते है

(a) इक्थियोलॉजी
(b) एण्टोमोलॉजी
(c) पैरासिटोलॉजी
(d) मेलेकोलॉजी

34. दुग्ध प्रोटीन को पचाने वाला एन्जाइम है

(a) पेप्सिन
(b) ट्रिप्सिन
(c) रेनिन
(d) इरेप्सिन

35. हमारे शरीर का अधिकतम भार बना है

(a) अस्थियों का
(b) शारीरिक अंगों का
(c) त्वचा, माँसपेशी व अंगों का
(d) जल का

36. निम्नलिखित में से किसने ‘एक्स’ किरणों का अविष्कार किया?

(a) रदरफोर्ड
(b) रॉएण्टजेन
(c) मैक्सवेल
(d) टोरिसेली

37. पेन्सिल की नोक निम्नलिखित में से किस एक से बनती है?

(a) सीसा
(b) एण्टीमनी
(c) ग्रेफाइट
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

 

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38. निम्नलिखित में से क्या जल से हलका होता है?

(a) एल्युमीनियम
(b) सोडियम
(c) मैग्नीशियम
(d) मैंगनीज

39. दूध के खराब होने का कारण होता है

(a) लेक्टोबैसीलस
(b) एस्परजिलस
(c) स्यूडोमोनास
(d) स्टेफाइलोकोकस

40. हरित-गृह प्रभाव के कारण पृथ्वी का तापमान

(a) घट रहा है
(b) बढ़ रहा है
(c) स्थिर है
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

41.ध्वनि के अतिरिक्त प्रतिबिम्ब को संचारित करने में समर्थ विद्युत युक्ति कहलाती है

(a) टेलीफोन
(b) ऑडियोफोन
(c) माइक्रोफोन
(d) वीडियोफोन

42.लेप्रोसी बेसिलस की खोज किसने की थी?

(a) जेनर
(b) रोनाल्ड रॉस
(c) लुई पाश्चर
(d) हैन्सेन

43. वायु का वेग किससे मापा जाता है?

(a) स्पीडोमीटर
(b) एनीमोमीटर
(c) टैकोमीटर
(d) ऑडियोमीटर

44. ‘माइटोमाइसिन’ नामक प्रतिजैविक निम्नलिखित रोगों के कुछ विशेष प्रकारों के उपचार में काम आता है

(a) कैंसर
(b) एड्स
(c) पोलिया
(d) सिफिलिस

45. रेडियो संचरण में इश् से आशय है

(a) फ्रीक्वेंट मॉड्यूलेशन
(b) फ्रीक्वेंसी मॉड्यूलेशन
(c) फर्मी मॉड्यूलेशन
(d) फैन मॉड्यूलेशन

 

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RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

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Answers Keys :

31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (a) 41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (c)

(Paper) RRB Group D : Exam आर.आर.बी रेलवे ग्रुप -डी परीक्षा गणित SET-1


(Paper) RRB Group D : Exam आर.आर.बी रेलवे ग्रुप -डी परीक्षा
गणित SET-1


1. किसी धनराशि पर 4% वार्षिक ब्याज की दर से 2 वर्षों के साधारण तथा चक्रवृद्धि ब्याजों का अन्तर Rs.4 है। वह धनराशि है

(a) Rs.2500

(b) Rs.2400

(c) Rs.2600

(d) Rs.2000

2. दो वर्गों के परिमाप 24 सेमी तथा 32 सेमी हैं इन वर्गों के क्षेत्रफल के योग के बराबर क्षेत्रफल वाले एक तीसरे वर्ग का परिमाप सेमी है

(a) 45 सेमी

(b) 40 सेमी

(c) 32 सेमी

(d) 48 सेमी

3. उस धन का आयतन क्या होगा जिसके विकर्ण की माप 4 सेमी है?

(a) 16 घन सेमी

(b) 27 घन सेमी

(c) 64 घन सेमी

(d) 8 घन सेमी

4. एक समचतुर्भुज विकर्ण क्रमश: 32 सेमी तथा 24 सेमी है। इस समचतुर्भुज का परिमाप है?

(a) 80 सेमी

(b) 72 सेमी

(c) 68 सेमी

(d) 64 सेमी

5. एक आयताकार बगीचे की लम्बाई 12 मी और चौड़ाई 5 मी है। इस आयताकार बगीचे के बराबर क्षेत्रफल वाले एक वर्गाकार बगीचे की विकर्ण की लम्बाई ज्ञात कीजिए

6.

7. एक समकोण समद्विबाहु त्रिभुज का क्षेत्रफल 800 वर्ग सेमी है तो इसके कण की लम्बाई क्या होगी?

8. A, B और C एक काम को Rs.707 में पूरा करने का ठेका लेता हैं। A और B एक साथ मिलकर उस काम का 5/7 भाग पूरा करते हैं तथा शेष बचा काम C अकेले पूरा करते है। C को कितनी मजदूरी मिलेगी?

(a) Rs.200
(b) Rs.102
(c) Rs.202
(d) Rs.150

 

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9. यदि (A+B) का 15% = (A-B) का 25% हो, तो B का कितने प्रतिशत A के बराबर है?

(a) 10%
(b) 60%
(c) 200%
(d) 400%

10. यदि संख्र्या x अन्य संख्या y से 10% कम है तथा y संख्या 125 से 10% अधिक है, तो x बराबर है।

(a) 150
(b) 143
(c) 140.55
(d) 123.75

11. यदि एक संख्या 5 से ज्यादा, लेकिन 9 से कम तथा 7 से ज्यादा, लेकिन 11 से कम है, तो संख्या है?

(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) 5

12. किसी राशि पर 5% वार्षिक ब्याज की दर से 2 वर्ष तथा 3 वर्ष का साधारण ब्याज क्रमश: Rs.100 तथा Rs.150 है। मूलधन ज्ञात कीजिए।

(a) Rs.5000
(b) Rs.8000
(c) Rs.1200
(d) Rs.1000

13. यदि पाँच प्रेक्षर्णों X, X+2, X+4, X+6 तथा X+8 का माध्य 11 है, तो अन्तिम तीन प्रेक्षणों का माध्य है

(a) 13
(b) 17
(c) 15
(d) 11

14. 154 मी और 246 मी लम्बाई की दो ट्रेन एक-दूसरे की ओर गतिशील हैं इन ट्रेनों की गति क्रमश: 52 किमी/घण्टा और 28 किमी/घण्टा है। वे एक-दूसरे को पार करने में कितना समय लेगी?

(a) 14 सेकण्ड
(b) 12 सेकण्ड
(c) 18 सेकण्ड
(d) 10 सेकण्ड

15. 94 को दो भागों में इस तरीके से बाँटिए कि पहले का पाँचवाँ भाग और दूसरे के आठवें भाग का अनुपात 3 : 4 हो

(a) 20, 44
(b) 30, 64
(c) 35, 69
(d) 34, 60

 

 

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RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

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Answers Keys :

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b)

(Paper) RRB Group D : Exam आर.आर.बी रेलवे ग्रुप -डी परीक्षा सामान्य बुद्धिमता एवं तर्कशक्ति SET-1


(Paper) RRB Group D : Exam आर.आर.बी रेलवे ग्रुप -डी परीक्षा
सामान्य बुद्धिमता एवं तर्कशक्ति SET-1


16. जीवन : मृत्यु : : आशा : ?

(a) उदास
(b) दर्द
(c) रोना
(d) निराशा

17. CE : 64 : : DE : ?

(a) 81
(b) 80
(c) 71
(d) 76

18. 5 : 36 : : 6 : ?

(a) 48
(b) 50
(c) 49
(d) 56

निर्देश (प्रं सं. 19-21) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में उसे चुनिए़ जो अन्य तीन विकल्प से भिन्न है

19.
(a) शर्ट
(b) कोट
(c) ट्राउजर
(d) कपड़ा

20.
(a) BCD
(b) QRS
(c) KMN
(d) WXY

21.
(a) 55 x 5
(b) 15 x 15
(c) 5 x 45
(d) 25 x 9

22. निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में कौन-विकल्प नीचे दिए गए शब्दों का सार्थक क्रम दर्शाता है?

1. कागज
2. पुस्तकालय
3. लेखक
4. पुस्तक
5. कलम

(a) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
(b) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
(c) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
(d) 5, 1, 3, 4, 2

 

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23. दी गई शृंखला में गलत संख्या ज्ञात कीजिए

5, 3, 6, 10, 9, 12, 17, 15, 18, 23

(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 9
(d) 12

निर्देश (प्र सं. 24-25) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में दिए गए विकल्पों में से उस सही विकल्प को चुनिए जो अनुक्रम को पूरा करेगा?

24. 30, 42, 56, 72, ?

(a) 86
(b) 90
(c) 84
(d) 88

25. L, M, O, R, V, ?

(a) A
(b) Z
(c) B
(d) E

26. चार उत्तर आकृतियों में से कौन-सी आकृति नीचे प्रश्न आकृति में दिए गए कटे हुए टुकड़ों से बन सकती है?

27. किरण, गाँधी स्क्वेयर, कोलकाता से चलती है,वह अपनी कार 6 किमी पश्चिम की ओर चलाती है और अपनी दा्इं ओर घूम कर 4 किमी चलाती है और फिर कार को अपनी दा्इं ओर घुमाती है। और 6 किमी चलाती है। वह आरम्भिक स्थल से कितनी दूर है?

(a) 6 किमी
(b) 16 किमी
(c) 4 किमी
(d) 8 किमी

निर्देश (प्र. सं. 28-29) दिए गए प्रश्न की दी गई जानकारी पर आधारित है?

A,B,C, D और E पाँच लड़के एक वृत्त में बैठे हैं। C, E  के ठीक बा्इं ओर बैठा हैं। A, D और E के बीच में बैठा है।

28. B और A के बीच में कौन बैठा है?

(a) C
(b) E
(c) D
(d) A

29. C के ठीक बा्इं ओर कौन बैठा है?

(a) E
(b) A
(c) B
(d) D

30. निम्न आकृतियों में से कौन-सा बैंगन, माँस, सब्जियों के बीच सम्बन्ध को दर्शाता है?

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Answers Keys :

16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (b)

(Paper) RRB Bhubaneshwar Group “D” Exam (Held On 30.09.2007) Part-2

(Paper) RRB Bhubaneshwar Group “D” Exam (Held On 30.09.2007) Part-2

51. The telegraphic code was invented by

(1) S.F.B. Morse

(2) Arcwright

(3) Thomas Addison

(4) G.Marconi

52. In a sum of Rs. 11.70, the coins of one rupee, 50 paise and 5 paise and 5 paise are in the ratio 3: 5 :7. Find the number of 50 paise coins.

(1) 6

(2) 10

(3) 14

(4) 20

53. Which place is famous for Jain caves ?

(1) Eilora

(2) Khandgiri

(3) Kapilash

(4) Sarnath

54. The first successful synchronous satellite of India is

(1) SLV

(2) APPLE

(3) ROHINI

(4) INSAT

55. Find the missing number in the following matrix.

2

5

?

10

5

50

5

4

20

(1) 10

(2) 15

(3) 20

(4) 25

56. Which of the following places is famous for thermal power plant ?

(1) Hirakud

(2) Manipal

(3) Polavaram

(4) Talcher

57. Indira Gandhi Zoological park is located in

(1) Vishakhapatnam

(2) Gyderabad

(3) Puri

(4) Bhubaneshwar

58. The universal blood donor is

(1) Group "Aa"

(2) Group "Ba"

(3) Group "AB"

(4) Group "O"

59. Which state is the biggest producer of cotton ?

(1) Kerala

(2) Karnataka

(3) Andhra Pradesh

(4) Maharashtra

60. The VIBGYOR spectrum is related to

(1) Light

(2) Sound

(3) Motion

(4) Energy

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61. Who invented telephone ?

(1) Graham Bell

(2) K.G. Gillete

(3) Wright brothers

(4) E. Torricelli

62. A man sells an article for Rs. 3550 and loses 19%. The cost price of the article is

(1) Rs. 4283

(2) Rs. 4350

(3) Rs. 4383

(4) Rs. 4450

63. The largest number which divides 411.752 and 1031 leaving remainder 8 in each case, is

(1) 8

(2) 11

(3) 21

(4) 31

64. The pilotless aircraft developed by DRDO whichis targeted, is

(1) Tejas

(2) Vijay

(3) Lakshya

(4) Varun

65. The first Indian woman justice of Supreme Court of India is

(1) Kiran Bedi

(2) Brinda Karat

(3) Fatima Bibi

(4) Mohini Giri

66. The instrument used to measure the intensity of earthquake is

(1) Dynamometer

(2) Seismograph

(3) Fathometer

(4) Magnetometer

 

67. The LCM of 2457,,,39612 and is

(1) 118

(2) 136

(3) 359

(4) 1403

68. The first train in India was inaugurated in

(1) 1753

(2) 1784

(3) 1853

(4) 1857

69. The calculating machine was invented by

(1) Pascal

(2) Bill Gates

(3) Issac Newton

(4) Goodyear

70. A man travels for 4 hours. The half of the journey is covered by bus at 40 kmph and the remaining at 30 kmph by scooter. What distance did he cover?

(1) 17.5 km

(2) 37.14 km

(3) 137.14 km

(4) 117.5 km

71. Who is the chairman of National Human Rights Commission in India?

(1) S.Rajendra Babu

(2) V.N. Kaul

(3) U.S. Mishra

(4) R.C. Lahouti

72. The urban population is most in

(1) Tamil Nadu

(2) West Bengal

(3) Karnataka

(4) Maharashtra

73. Who wrote a "Abhigyan Shakuntalam" ?

(1) Charak

(2) Harisen

(3) Bann Bhatta

(4) Kalidas

74. A man buys 8 mangoes for Rs. 9 and sells them at 9 mangoes for Rs. 8. his gain or loss per cent is

(1) 10.18% loss

(2) 10.18% gain

(3) 20.98% loss

(4) 20.98% gain

75. Which is understood best for conducting electricity?

(1) Radiators

(2) Conductors

(3) Vectors

(4) Regulators

76. The other name of evergreen forests is

(1) Deciduous forests

(2) Tropical forests

(3) Alpine forests

(4) None of these

77. 7, 8, 10, 13, 17, ?

(1) 18

(2) 20

(3) 22

(4) 24

78. Lignite is found in abundance in

(1) Orissa

(2) Andhra Pradesh

(3) Tamil Nadu

(4) Karnataka

79. The western seacoast in India is known as

(1) Coromandal

(2) Malabar

(3) Palk Strait

(4) Konkan

80. The river called China sorrow is

(1) Yang te

(2) Hwang Ho

(3) Three Gorges

(4) Shinago

81. Fraction 32 is equivalent to what per cent?

(1) 55%

(2) 75%

(3) 150%

(4) 175%

82. On January 26, 1950, India became

(1) Independent

(2) Democratic

(3) Republic

(4) Non-aligned

83. A car moves at 120 kmph, the distance covered by it in 15 minutes, is

(1) 20 km

(2) 30 km

(3) 40 km

(4) 50 km

84. Who invented the cholera vaccine?

(1) Joseph Lister

(2) Louis Pasteur

(3) Edward Jenner

(4) Roger Beacon

85. The smallest fraction in the following is

(1) 79

(2) 59

(3) 89

(4) 57

86. The two nuclear explosions took place in

(1) Kutch

(2) Andaman

(3) Pokharan

(4) Sunderban

87. In a group, the grandfather and his wife, father, mother, their three sons and their wives and two daughters of each son are included. The number of women in the group is

(1) 11

(2) 13

(3) 15

(4) 17

88. A cricketer scored at an average of 52 runs in 8 matches. The average of first 5 matches was 50, the average of the last 3 matches is

(1) 51.5

(2) 52.3

(3) 53.5

(4) 55.3

89. The missile fired from ground to air is

(1) Agni

(2) Trishul

(3) Naag

(4) Prithvi

90. The Railway Coach factory is situated in

(1) Varanast

(2) Kapurthala

(3) Chittaranjan

(4) Perambur

91. If a bus covers 135 km in 3 hours. The time taken to cover 200 km at the same speed is

(1) 3.22 hrs

(2) 3.44 hrs

(3) 4.22 hrs

(4) 4.44 hrs

92. The vegetation has life. Who researched on it?

(1) Hargobind Khurana

(2) Hippocratus

(3) Edward Jenner

(4) J.C. Bose

93. Which is an ice fed river?

(1) Ganges

(2) Mahanadi

(3) Tapti

(4) Godavari

94. The largest among the following

(1) 719

(2) 1216

(3) 1117

(4) 1318

95. The Runn of Kutch is known for

(1) Lion

(2) Tigers

(3) Herbivores

(4) Wild ass

96. The first commercial noncivilian aircraft is

(1) Tejas

(2) Saras

(3) Indian

(4) Volan

97. For contribution in the field of trade. Padma Bhushan, 2007 was awarded to

(1) LN Mittal

(2) S.B. Mittal

(3) Ratan Tata

(4) Azim Premji

98. The HCF of 12984, and is10864

(1) 182

(2) 380

(3) 3320

(4) 482

99. The first Indian to get Nobel Prize is

(1) Rabindra Nath Tagore

(2) C.V. Raman

(3) J.C. Bose

(4) Subhash Chandra Bose

100. Which latest satellite of INSAT series was launched in 2007?

(1) INSAT- 2B

(2) INSAT-2C

(3) INSAT-3D

(4) INSAT-4B

101. If difference between the ages of X and Y is 12 years and the ratio of their ages is 3 : 7, they what is the age of Y ?

(1) 4 years

(2) 7 years

(3) 11 years

(4) 21 years

Answer Keys :

51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (1) 56. (4) 57. (4) 58. (4) 59. (4) 60. (1) 61. (1) 62. (3) 63. (4) 64. (3) 65. (3) 66. (2) 67. (4) 68. (3) 69. (1) 70. (3) 71. (1) 72. (4) 73. (4) 74. (3) 75. (2) 76. (2) 77. (3) 78. (3) 79. (4) 80. (2) 81. (3) 82. (3) 83. (2) 84. (3) 85. (2) 86. (3) 87. (1) 88. (4) 89. (2) 90. (4) 91. (4) 92. (4) 93. (1) 94. (2) 95. (4)  96. (1) 97. (2) 98. (3) 99. (1) 100. (4) 

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RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

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(Paper) RRB Bhubaneshwar Group “D” Exam (Held On 30.09.2007) Part-1



(Paper) RRB Bhubaneshwar Group “D” Exam (Held On 30.09.2007) Part-1



1. Recently, the Mittal group acquired the steel company________.

(1) Arcellor

(2) Chorus

(3) Posco

(4) Jindal

2. Where is the headquarters of UNESCO located ?

(1) Paris

(2) Oslo

(3) Rome

(4) Istanbul

3. Which of the following locations is known for missile test?

(1) Chandiput

(2) Pokharan

(3) Shri Harikota

(4) Sunderban

4. When the rate of interest is decreased to 12.5% p.a. from 13% there is a loss of Rs. 104 in the annual income. What is the principal?

(1) Rs. 20800

(2) Rs. 21200

(3) Rs. 22400

(4) Rs. 23200

5. The Kalinga battle was fought near which of the following places ?

(1) Barabati

(2) Balasore

(3) Dhouli

4) Udaygiri

6. Which least number when added to 2000 makes it exactly divisible by 19?

(1) 7

(2) 11

(3) 14

(4) 17

7. Which kind of energy is there in a stretched rubber band?

(1) Kinetic

(2) Magnetic

(3) Potential

(4) Constant

8. Which of the following places is known for path figurine painting ?

(1) Painting

(2) Raghurajpur

(3) Pipili

(4) Jajpur

9. A car covers the 13 rd of its total distance at 60 kmph. next 13 rd at 30kmph and the remaining distance at 10 kmph, then what is the average speed of the whole journey?

(1) 33 kmph

(2) 25 kmph

(3) 20 kmph

(4) 15 kmph

10. Who is the present captain of Indian National Hockey team?

(1) Dhanraj Pillai

(2) Probodh Tirki

(3) Gaganjit Singh

(4) Dilip Tirki

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11. Who built the famous Jagannath temple ?

(1) Ashoka

(2) Kharvel

(3) Jajati Keshari

(4) Chola Gangdev

12. What will be the compound interest on a sum of Rs. 6000 for 2 years at the rate of 12% per annum ?

(1) Rs. 1526

(2) Rs. 1772

(3) Rs. 1886

(4) Rs. 2072

13. Indicating towards a picture Rita tells her daughter. ‘He is the only son of my mother’s mother." How is Rita related to that man?

(1) Sister

(2) Nephew / Niece

(3) Aunt / Maternal mother

4) Mother

14. Hindustan Zinc plant is located at

(1) Engule

(2) Udaipur

(3) Kakinanda 

(4) Vishakhapatnam

15. Which is the longest river of India ?

(1) Godavari

(2) Krishna

(3) Sindhu

(4) Ganges

16. At which of the following places was located an important village of old Kalinga?

(1) Puri

(2) Baripada

(3) Tosali

(4) Kyonjhar

17. Who was awarded first with Prime Minister prize for significant work in public administration?

(1) Y.V. Reddy

(2) Bimal Jalan

(3) N. Gopalaswamy

(4) Rajiv Chawla

18. Which part of the body is affected by Pneumonia ?

(1) Brain

(2) Heart

(3) Lungs

(4) Kidney

19. The average weight of A,B and C is 70 kg but the average weight of A and B is 90 kg. What is the weight oC?

(1) 30 kg.

(2) 35 kg

(3) 40 kg.

(4) 45 kg.

20. Which river originates from Orissa and merges with Godavari?

(1) Brahmani

(2) Rushikulya

(3) Nagawali

(4) Indravati

21. The Chilka lake is famous for

(1) White Whale

(2) White Shark

(3) White Dolphin

(4) White Prawn

22. Light, radiowaves and X-rays are______ waves.

(1) Electro magnetic

(2) Nuclear

(3) Magnetic resonance

(4) Seismic

23. Which of the following is a red planet ?

(1) Jupiter

(2) Mars

(3) Mercury

(4) Sun

24. The ratio of A and B is 5:7. The value of A is 185, then B is equal to

(1) 129

(2) 239

(3) 259

(4) 379

25. The headquarters of World Health Organization is located at

(1) Geneva

(2) Paris

(3) Berlin

(4) Washington

26. In Orissa, Mig is built at

(1) Cuttak

(2) Sambalpur

(3) Berhampur

(4) Sunaveda

27. Which of the following is the first college of Orissa?

(1) Orissa Veterinary College

(2) Revanshaw College

(3) Wurla Engineering College

(4) Government Arts College

28. Which of the following is a Hockey player?

(1) Dilip Tirki

(2) V.V.S. Lakshman

(3) W.Bhutia

(4) Pravin Thipse

29. The square root of 24649 is

(1) 127

(2) 137

(3) 157

(4) 247

30. Which of the following is a chief kharif crop in Orissa ?

(1) Jawar

(2) Bajara

(3) Rice

(4) Wheat

 

31. Eager : interest : : Sharp : ?

(1) Desire

(2) Height

(3) Smile

(4) Intelligence

32. The ratio of 50 ml and 2 litres is

(1) 1 : 20

(2) 1 : 25

(3) 1 : 40

(4) 1 : 80

33. Who wrote ˜My Experiments with Truth"?

(1) Jawaharlal Nehru

(2) Rabindranath Tagore

(3) M.K. Gandhi

(4) Jai Prakash Narayan

34. The deficiency of vitamin "C" causes

(1) Paralysis

(2) Scurvey

(3) T.B.

(4) Jaundice

35. What will come in place of the question mark in the following number series?

16 ,21, 7, 13, 18, 6, 19, ?, ?

(1) 22 and 6

(2) 24 and 8

(3) 22 and 8

(4) 24 and 6

36. If one side of a square is decreased by 5% its area decreases by

(1) 6.75%

(2) 9.75%

(3) 12.50%

(4) 25%

37. Which of the following states is the most densely covered by forests ?

(1) Orissa

(2) Madhya Pradesh

(3) Assam

(4) Arunachal Pradesh

38. Who among the following was awarded with Nodel Prize in Physics ?

(1) J.C. Bose

(2) Hargobind Khurana

(3) S. Chandra Shekhar

(4) Amartya Sen

39. The " Gateway of India" is situated in

(1) Delhi

(2) Mumbai

(3) Chennai

(4) Kolkata

40. Sultan Azlan Sah Hockey Tournament 2007 was won by

(1) India

(2) Pakistan

(3) South Korea

(4) Australia

41. Winter crop season is known in India as

(1) Rabi

(2) Winter

(3) Kharif

(4) Poddu

42. 3 49 1 2 1 of ? 7 10 7 7 + + − =

(1) 15

(2) 12

(3) 13

(4)121

43. Which Indian player has taken the highest number of wickets in Test Cricket ?

(1) B.S. Bedi

(2) Kapil Dev

(3) Sri Nath

(4) Anil Kumble

44. The population of a city is 70000. it increases at 10% in the first year and at 20% in the following year. What will be the population after 2 years ?

(1) 77000

(2) 84000

(3) 92400

(4) 104000

45. Which river flows in India through Tibbet ?

(1) Ravi

(2) Beas

(3) Brahmaputra

(4) Ganges

46. The decimal equivalent of 7 gm of a kilogram is

(1) 0.7

(2) 0.07

(3) 0.007

(4) 0.0007

47. Hyderabad was earlier known as

(1) Bhagyanagar

(2) Nizamabad

(3) Secunderabad

(4) Golconda

48. Kullu Valley is situated in

(1) Punjab

(2) Himachal Pradesh

(3) Kashmir

(4) Uttarakhand

49. Muchkund power project is situated in the state of

(1) Andhra Pradesh

(2) Orissa

(3) Gujarat

(4) Karnataka

50. Which mountain range divides India into north and south ?

(1) Nilgiris

(2) Satpura

(3) Vidhyas

(4) Aravali

Answer Keys :

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (3)  6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (4) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (1) 26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (1) 29. (3) 30. (3) 31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (3) 34. (2) 35. (2) 36. (2) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (4) 41. (1) 42. (3) 43. (4) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (3) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (2) 50. (3)

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Psychological Tests For Assistant Station Master - Personality

Psychological Tests For Assistant Station Master

NEW!  RRB ALP PSYCHOLOGICAL CBT EXAM Tests SeriesWith FREE DEMO Test

Subject : Test of Personality

Instructions

In this test there are some statements to see what attitudes and interest you have. There are three possible answers to each statement. No particular answer is “Right” or “Wrong”. You have to select the alternative which is most appropriate for you.

Q.1

I have, compared with others,

(A) participated in many community and social activities,

(B) several

(C) only a few community and social activities.

Q.2

Going around selling things, or asking for funds to help a cause I believe in, is for me:

(A) quite enjoyable

(B) In between

(C) an unpleasant job.

Q.3

In discussing art, religion, or politics, I seldom get so involved or excited that I forget politeness and human relations.

(A) True

(B) Uncertain

(C) False

Q.4

My friends probably think it is hard to get to know me really well.

(A) Yes

(B) In Between

(C) No

 

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Psychological Tests For Assistant Loco Pilot - Test of Memory

Subject : Test of Memory

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Test of Memory

Instructions

In this test you will be given a map to study and memorize buildings and other structures on it for some time, and then asked to indicate the location of these buildings on a test page. Study the following example for some time

Other Study Images is Below

Question are below

1 (A) 2 (B) 3 (C)  4 (D) 5 (E)

1 (A) 2 (B) 3 (C)  4 (D) 5 (E)

1 (A) 2 (B) 3 (C)  4 (D) 5 (E)

1 (A) 2 (B) 3 (C)  4 (D) 5 (E)

1 (A) 2 (B) 3 (C)  4 (D) 5 (E)

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Study Kit for Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Loco Pilot Exam

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) लोको पायलट परीक्षा के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री

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Psychological Tests For Assistant Station Master - Spatial Scanning

Psychological Tests For Assistant Station Master

Subject : Test of Spatial Scanning

NEW!  RRB ALP PSYCHOLOGICAL CBT EXAM Tests SeriesWith FREE DEMO Test

Instructions

This test is a measure of the ability to find the shortest possible route between any two stations (represented by a alphabets) in the shortest possible time. Below is given the map of a city. Dark lines indicate streets. The circles represent barriers which can not be crossed. Squares containing numbers represent houses. You have to find the shortest possible route between two alphabets. The number of the house passed by will be your answer.

(1) The shortest route will always pass by only one house.

(2) If a route touches only the corner of a house then it will not be counted.

(3) The same house can fall in more than one route.

Q.1

(1)(2)(3)(4)(5)(6)(7)(8)(9)(10)

Q.2

(1)(2)(3)(4)(5)(6)(7)(8)(9)(10)

Q.3

(1)(2)(3)(4)(5)(6)(7)(8)(9)(10)

Q.4

(1)(2)(3)(4)(5)(6)(7)(8)(9)(10)

Q.5

(1)(2)(3)(4)(5)(6)(7)(8)(9)(10)

Q.6

(1)(2)(3)(4)(5)(6)(7)(8)(9)(10)

Q.7

(1)(2)(3)(4)(5)(6)(7)(8)(9)(10)

Q.8

(1)(2)(3)(4)(5)(6)(7)(8)(9)(10)

Q.9

(1)(2)(3)(4)(5)(6)(7)(8)(9)(10)

Q.10

(1)(2)(3)(4)(5)(6)(7)(8)(9)(10)

Answer:

Q.1 (10) , Q.2 (5) , Q.3 (6), Q.4 (8), Q.5 (9), Q.6 (9), Q.7 (10) Q.8 (5) Q.9 (10) Q.10 (9)]

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Study Kit for Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Loco Pilot Exam

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) लोको पायलट परीक्षा के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री

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Psychological Tests For Assistant Station Master - Selective Attention

Psychological Tests For Assistant Station Master

Subject : Test of Selective Attention

NEW!  RRB ALP PSYCHOLOGICAL CBT EXAM Tests SeriesWith FREE DEMO Test

Instructions

This is a test of selective attention. There are 30 Problems in the test. Each Problem Consists of a row of digits. Your task is to add odd numbers (1, 3, 5, etc.) and indicate which of the 5 options shows the correct sum. While counting, even numbers (2, 4, 6, etc.) are to be ignored.

Q.1 2 4 6 4 3 2 1 4 5 6 4 2 5 2 1 2 6 2 6 2 1 2 3 6 2 4 2 6 5 6 2 2 4 4 6 4 3 2 4 2 5 6 4 4 3 2 1 6 2 2

(A) 36

(B) 31

(C) 39

(D) 38

(E) 33

Q.2 66244126441652424264632145624122312426524463612642

A. 33

B. 28

C. 26

D. 30

E. 35

Q.3 24624626541222634623634145412624243216641232462456

A. 35

B. 30

C. 24

D. 27

E. 34

Q.4 32632146322166215424461465242634246264526464224622

A. 39

B. 29

C. 32

D. 36

E. 31

Q.5 54212132423462421236521462426326412264123255646126

A. 35

B. 40

C. 39

D. 36

E. 42

Answer:

Q.1 Ans : B, Q.2 Ans : D , Q.3 Ans : A, Q.4 Ans : E, Q.5 Ans : E

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Study Kit for Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Loco Pilot Exam

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Psychological Tests For Assistant Station Master - Intelligence Test

Psychological Tests For Assistant Station Master

Subject : Test of Intelligence

NEW!  RRB ALP PSYCHOLOGICAL CBT EXAM Tests SeriesWith FREE DEMO Test

Instructions:

This is a test of intelligence. Each problem consists of five figures. Four of these figures are similar in a certain way. Your task is to find out the one, which is different from the other four.

Q.1

A. (1) B. (2) C.(3) D.(4) E.(5)

Q.2

A. (1) B. (2) C.(3) D.(4) E.(5)

Q.3

A. (1) B. (2) C.(3) D.(4) E.(5)

Q.4

A. (1) B. (2) C.(3) D.(4) E.(5)

Q.5

A. (1) B. (2) C.(3) D.(4) E.(5)

Answer:

Q.1- (2) , Q.2- (2) , Q.3- (1), Q.4- (3), Q.5- (4)

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Study Kit for Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Loco Pilot Exam

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) लोको पायलट परीक्षा के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री

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(Post Detail) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)



(Post Detail) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)



 

Cat. No.

Name of the Post

Level in 7th CPC

Pay(₹)

Med Std

Min Age

Max Age

Suitability for Persons with Benchmark

VI

HI

LD

OD

MD

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

1

JUNIOR STENOGRAPHER / HINDI

4

25500

C1

18

30

B, LV

D, HH

OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV

NO

YES

2

JUNIOR STENOGRAPHER / ENGLISH

4

25500

C1

18

30

B, LV

D, HH

OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV

NO

YES

3

JUNIOR TRANSLATOR / HINDI

6

35400

C2

18

33

B, LV

D, HH

OA, OL, BL, LC, DW, AAV

NO

YES

4

STAFF and WELFARE INSPECTOR

6

35400

C1

18

33

NO

No

DW, AAV

NO

NO

5

CHIEF LAW ASSISTANT

7

44900

C1

18

40

B, LV

No

OA, OL, BL, OAL, LC, DW, AAV

NO

YES

6

LAB ASSISTANT GRADE III CHEMIST and METALURGIST

2

19900

B1

18

30

NO

D, HH

OA, OL, BL, DW, AAV

NO

YES

7

FINGER PRINT EXAMINER

6

35400

C1

20

35

NO

D, HH

OA, OL, OAL, BL, DW, AAV

NO

YES

8

HEAD COOK

5

29200

C1

18

30

LV

D, HH

OL, DW

NO

YES

9

COOK

2

19900

C1

18

30

LV

D, HH

OL, DW

NO

YES

10

SENIIOR PUBLICITY INSPECTOR

6

35400

C1

18

33

NO

NO

OA, OL, BL, LC, DW, AAV

NO

NO

11

PUBLICITY INSPECTOR

5

29200

C1

18

33

NO

NO

OA, OL, BL, LC, DW, AAV

NO

NO

12

PHOTOGRAPHER

4

25500

C1

18

33

NO

D, HH

OL, LC, DW, AAV

NO

YES

13

POST GRADUATE TEACHER / BIOLOGY (ENGLISH MEDIUM) (MALE)

8

47600

C2

18

45

LV

No

OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV

NO

YES

14

POST GRADUATE TEACHER / ENGLISH (MALE)

8

47600

C2

18

45

LV

No

OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV

NO

YES

15

POST GRADUATE TEACHER / ENGLISH (FEMALE)

8

47600

C2

18

45

LV

No

OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV

NO

YES

16

POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ GEOGRAPHY (ENGLISH MEDIUM) (FEMALE)

8

47600

C2

18

45

LV

No

OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV

NO

YES

17

POST GRADUATE TEACHER / PHYSICS (MALE)

8

47600

C2

18

45

LV

No

OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV

NO

YES

18

POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ PHYSICS (FEMALE)

8

47600

C2

18

45

LV

No

OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV

NO

YES

19

POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ POLITICAL SCIENCE (FEMALE)

8

47600

C2

18

45

LV

No

OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV

NO

YES

20

POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ COMPUTER SCIENCE

8

47600

C2

18

45

LV

No

VH(LV) OH(OA, OL,BL,OAL)

NO

YES

21

TRAINED GRADUATE TEACHER / COMPUTER SCIENCE

7

44900

C2

18

45

LV

No

VH(LV) OH(OA, OL,BL, OAL)

NO

YES

22

TRAINED GRADUATE TEACHER / HOME SCIENCE (FEMALE)

7

44900

C2

18

45

LV

No

VH(LV) OH(OA, OL,BL,OAL)

NO

YES

23

TRAINED GRADUATE TEACHER / HINDI (FEMALE)

7

44900

C2

18

45

LV

No

OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV

NO

YES

24

TRAINED GRADUATE TEACHER / SOCIAL SCIENCE (FEMALE)

7

44900

C2

18

45

LV

No

OA, OL, BL, OAL, DW, AAV

NO

YES

25

PHYSICAL TRAINING INSTRUCTOR (ENGLISH MEDIUM) (MALE)

7

44900

C2

18

45

NO

NO

NO

NO

NO

26

PHYSICAL TRAINING INSTRUCTOR (ENGLISH MEDIUM) (FEMALE)

7

44900

C2

18

45

NO

NO

NO

NO

NO

27

ASSISTANT MISTRESS (JUNIOR SCHOOL)

6

35400

C2

18

45

LV

No

VH(LV) OH(OA, OL,BL,OAL)

NO

YES

28

MUSIC MISTRESS

6

35400

C2

18

45

LV

No

VH(LV) OH(OA, OL,BL,OAL)

NO

YES

29

DANCE MISTRESS

6

35400

C2

18

45

LV

No

VH(LV) OH(OA, OL,BL,OAL)

30

LABORATORY ASSISTANT/SCHOOL

4

25500

C2

18

45

LV

No

Not Applicable

Abbreviations: AAV=Acid Attack Victim, B=Blind, BL=Both Legs, D=Deaf, DW=Dwarfism, HH=Hard of Hearing, HI=Hearing Impairment, ID= Intellectual Disability, LC=Leprosy Cured, LD=Locomotor Disability, LV=Low Vision, MD=Muscular Dystrophy, MW= Muscular Weakness, OA=One Arm, OD=Other Disability, OL=One Leg, OAL=One Arm & One Leg, PwBD=Persons With Benchmark Disabilities, RPwD = Rights of Persons with Disabilities, SLD=Speech and Language Disability, VI=Visually Impairment.

Age :


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B

(Educational Qualification) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)



(Educational Qualification) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)



Cat.No.

Name of the Post

Minimum Educational Qualification

1

1

JUNIOR STENOGRAPHER / HINDI

10+2 or its equivalent examination from a recognized Board/University. The shorthand speed of 80 words per minute for a duration of 10 minutes with transcription time of 65 minutes.

2

JUNIOR STENOGRAPHER / ENGLISH

10+2 or its equivalent examination from a recognized Board/University. The shorthand speed of 80 words per minute for a duration of 10 minutes with transcription time of 50 minutes.

3

JUNIOR TRANSLATOR / HINDI

(i) Master's Degree of a  recognised University or equivalent in  Hindi or

English with English or Hindi as a compulsory or elective subject or as a medium  of  examination  at   Degree  level; OR

Master's   Degree of a recognised University or equivalent in any subject other than Hindi or English, with Hindi or English medium and English or Hindi as a compulsory or elective subject or as a medium of examination at Degree                                                                                                                  level; OR

Master's Degree of a recognised University or equivalent in any subject other than Hindi or English, with Hindi and English as  a  compulsory or elective subjects of either of the two as medium of examination and  other as      a      compulsory      or      elective      subject      at      Degree      level. AND

(ii) Recognized Diploma or Certificate Course in translation from Hindi to English and vice - versa or 2-years experience of translation work from Hindi to English and vice-versa in Central or State Government offices, including Government of India Undertaking.

4

STAFF and WELFARE INSPECTOR

Graduation +any   one    of   the  following  qualifications:

Diploma  in  Labour  Welare  /  Social  Welfare  or  LLB  with  Labour  Laws OR

Diploma in Labour Laws. OR PG Diploma in Personnel Management or MBA with   paper in Personnel Management or MBA/HR awarded by an institution recognised by the Govt of India.

5

CHIEF LAW ASSISTANT

A University Degree in Law with 3-year's standing practice as a pleader at Bar.  Serving Railway employees who are Law Graduates are also eligible to apply for these posts, provided they have served for at least 5 year's in any Branch of the Railway Administration. Vacancies earmarked for direct recruitment should also be available to the Railway Magistrates who are desirous of applying for such posts and who also fulfill the prescribed qualifications for the direct recruits.

 

6

LAB ASSISTANT GRADE III CHEMIST and METALURGIST

10+2 or its equivalent with Science (Physics and Chemistry) as subjects or its equivalent. And Diploma/Certificate in Lab. Technology from recognized Board/ Institute.

7

FINGER PRINT EXAMINER

10+2 or its equivalent from a recognised Board. And A Certificate issued by the All India Board for Examination of Finger Print Experts conducted by the Govt. of India.

 

8

HEAD COOK

10+2 or its equivalent from a recognised Board with Craftsmanship in Cookery from a recognised Institute.

Note: Recognization of Institute for the purpose will be determined by the recruiting agency.

9

COOK

10+2 or its equivalent from a recognised Board with Craftsmanship in Cookery from a recognised Institute.

Note: Recognization of Institute for the purpose will be determined by the recruiting agency.

 

10

SENIIOR PUBLICITY INSPECTOR

Degree from recognized University and Diploma in Public Relations /Advertising / Journalism / Mass Communication from a recognized institution / University.

Desirable: 2-years experience in related fields.

11

PUBLICITY INSPECTOR

Degree from recognized University and Diploma in Public Relations /Advertising / Journalism / Mass Communication from a recognized Institution/ University.

12

PHOTOGRAPHER

10+2 or its equivalent. Diploma in Photography/Digital photography/videography from a recognized / reputed institute in India and Diploma certificate in Computer Aided photo/video editing from recognized reputed institute.

Professional qualificaiton : Desirable:

(1) Overall knowledge and experience of news photography and event photography.

(2) Overall knowledge and experience of digital media.

(3) Capacity to independently handle assignment. Technical qualificaiton : Essential:

(1) Knowlege and capabilities to handle Digital Still SLR camera and Digital Video Camera. AND

(2) Capability to use photoshop for photo editing.

Desirable : Capability to use professional video editing software and create edited video from raw footage.

13

 

POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ BIOLOGY (ENGLISH MEDIUM) (MALE)

(A) 2 - years Integrated Post Graduate M.Sc. Course of Regional College of Education of NCERT in Biology. OR

Master Degree from a recognized University with at least 50% marks in aggregate in Botany / Zoology / Life Sciences / Bio Sciences / Genetics / Micro Biology / Bio Technology / Molecular Bio/Plant Physiology provided they have studied Botany and Zoology at Graduation level.

(B) B.Ed. or equivalent Degree from recognised University. (C) Proficiency in teaching in English medium.

Desirable: Knowledge of computer applications.

14

POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ ENGLISH (MALE)

(A) Master Degree from a recognized University with at least 50% marks in aggregate in English.

(B) B.Ed. or equivalent Degree from recognised University. (C) Proficiency in teaching in English medium.

Desirable: Knowledge of computer applications.

15

POST GRADUATE TEACHER / ENGLISH (FEMALE)

(A) Master Degree from a recognized University with at least 50% marks in aggregate  in  English.

(B) B.Ed;or  equivalent  Degree from recognised University.

(C) Proficiency in teaching in English  medium. Desirable: Knowledge of computer applications.

16

POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ GEOGRAPHY (ENGLISHMEDIUM) (FEMALE)

(A) 2-years Integrated Post Graduate M.Sc. Course of Regional College of Education of NCERT in Geography.

OR

Master  Degree from  a  recognized University with  at  least  50%  marks in aggregate  in  Geography. (B) B.Ed.or equivalent Degree from recognised University.

(C)  Proficiency in teaching in  English medium. Desirable: Knowledge of computer applications.

17

POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ PHYSICS (MALE)

(A) 2-years Integrated Post Graduate M.Sc. Course of Regional College of Education of NCERT in Physics.

OR

Master  Degree from  a  recognized University with  at  least  50%  marks in aggregate  in  Physics  /  Electronics  /  Applied  Physics  /  Nuclear  Physics.

B) B.Ed.  or  equivalent     Degree     from     recognised     University.

(C)  Proficiency     in     teaching     in     Hindi     and     English     medium. Desirable: Knowledge of computer applications.

18

POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ PHYSICS (FEMALE)

 

19

POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ POLITICAL SCIENCE

(FEMALE)

(A) Master Degree from a recognized University with at least 50% marks in aggregate in Political Science.

(B)  B.Ed.  or  equivalent     Degree     from     recognised     University.

(C)  Proficiency  in   teaching   in   Hindi  and  English   medium. Desirable: Knowledge of computer applications.

20

POST GRADUATE TEACHER/ COMPUTER SCIENCE

At least 50% marks in aggregate in any of  the following    :

(i) B.E. or B.Tech (Computer Science/IT) plus Post Graduate Diploma in Computer Applications or 'B' or 'C' Level Diploma from DOEACC, Ministry of Communication       and IT plus1-year Teaching   Experience. OR

(ii) M.Sc. (Computer   Science)/MCA   plus   1-year   Teaching   Experience. OR

(iii) Master  of  Engineering or   M.Tech.(Computer Science/IT).

Note: For subsequent promotion, the incumbent will have to acquire B.Ed. or equivalent.

21

TRAINED GRADUATE TEACHER / COMPUTER SCIENCE

At    least    50%    marks    in    aggregate    in    any    of    the    following    :

(1)  Bachelor  Degree  in  Computer  Application  (B.C.A.)  from  a  recognized University.

OR Graduation in Computer Science from a recognized University (Provided that the computer science subject must be studied in all years as main subject).

OR BE/B.Tech (Computer Science/Information Technology) from  a  recognized University.

OR Graduation in any subject and 'A' level course from DOEACC, Ministry of Information    &    Communication    and    Technology,    Govt.    of    India. 

Note:  Qualifications  are  relaxable  at  the  discretion  of  the  competent authority for reasons to be recorded in writing, in the case of candidates otherwise well qualified.

22

TRAINED GRADUATE TEACHER / HOME SCIENCE (FEMALE)

(a) Graduate from a recognized University with Diploma in Home Science from a  recognized Institute.

OR (b) B.Sc. (Home Science) with Degree / Diploma in Training / Education.

23

TRAINED GRADUATE TEACHER / HINDI (FEMALE)

(i) Graduation with Hindi and 2-years Diploma in Elementary Education (by whatever name                       known).

  • OR Graduation with Hindi with at least 50% marks and 1-year Bachelor in Education  (B.Ed).
  • OR Graduation with Hindi with at least 45% marks and 1-year Bachelor in Education (B.Ed), in accordance with the NCTE (Recognition norms and procedure)   regulations   issued   from   time   to    time   in    this   regard.
  • OR 10+2  or  its  equivalent with  at  least  50%  marks  and  4-years Bachelor of Elementary  education (B.El.Ed).
  • OR10+2 or  its  equivalent with  at  least  50% marks and  4-years B.A./B.Sc or B.A.Ed/B.Sc.Ed.
  • ORGraduation  with  Hindi  with  least  50%  marks  and  1-year  B.Ed.  (Special Education). AND

(ii) Pass in the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) to be conducted by the appropriate Government in accordance with the Guidelines framed by the NCTE for  the  purpose. AND

(iii) Competence  to teach  through  Hindi  medium. NOTE: Relaxation up to 5% in the qualifying marks shall be allowed to the candidates belonging to reserved categories such as SC/ST/OBC/PwBD.

24

TRAINED GRADUATE TEACHER / SOCIAL SCIENCE (FEMALE)

(i)  Graduation  with  Social  Science  and  2-years  Diploma  in  ElementaryEducation (by whatever name known).

OR Graduation with Social Science with at least 50% marks and 1-year Bachelor of Education (B.Ed.). ORGraduation with Social Science with at least 45% marks and 1-year Bachelor of Education (B.Ed.) in accordance with the NCTE (Recognition Norms and Procedure) Regulations issued from time to time in this regard. OR 10+2  or  it  equivalent  with  at  least  50%  marks  and  4-years  Bachelor  of Elementary Education (B.El.Ed.). OR 10+2  or  its  equivalent  with  at  least  50%  marks  and  4-years  B.A/B.Sc. or B.A.Ed/B.Sc.Ed. OR Graduation  with   Social  Science  with   at   least   50%   marks  and   1-year B.Ed.(Special Education).AND

(ii) Pass in the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) to be conducted by the appropriate Government in accordance with the Guidelines framed by the NCTE for the purpose.

AND

(iii) Competence to teach through English Medium. NOTE: Relaxation up to 5% in the qualifying marks shall be allowed to the candidates belonging to reserved categories such as SC/ST/OBC/PwBD.

25

PHYSICAL TRAINING INSTRUCTOR (ENGLISH MEDIUM) (MALE)

(i) Graduate from a recognized University with Diploma in Physical Training from a recognized Institution.ORB.P.Ed.  from  a  recognized  University  and  10+2  or  its  equivalent  from recognised Board.

(ii) Competence to impart physical education through English medium.

26

PHYSICAL TRAINING INSTRUCTOR (ENGLISH MEDIUM) (FEMALE)

27

ASSISTANT MISTRESS (JUNIOR SCHOOL)

(i) 10+2 or its equivalent with at least 50% marks and 2-years Diploma in Elementary Education (by whatever name known). OR

10+2 or its equivalent with at least 45% marks and 2-years Diploma in Elementary Education (by whatever name known), in accordance with NCTE (Recognition Norms and      Procedure) Regulations 2002. OR

10+2  or  its  equivalent with  at  least  50%  marks and  4-years Bachelor of Elementary Education (B.El.Ed). OR

10+2 or its equivalent with at least 50% marks and 2-years Diploma in Education (Special Education). OR

Graduation and 2-years Diploma in Elementary Education (by whatever name known).AND

(ii) Pass  in  Teacher Eligibility Test  (TET)  to  be  conducted by  appropriate Government in accordance with the Guidelines framed by the NCTE for the purpose.

AND

(iii) Competence to  teach in English medium. NOTE: Relaxation up to 5% in the qualifying marks shall be allowed to the candidates belonging to reserved categories such as SC/ST/OBC/PwBD.

28

MUSIC MISTRESS

B.A. Degree with Music, as one of the subject from a recognized University.

OR 10+2 or  its equivalent     with     any     one     of     the     following     :

1.  Sangeet Visharad  Examination  of  the  Gandharava     Mahavidyalaya Mandal,Bombay.

2. Sangeet  Vid Examination of   the Indira Kala SangeetVishwa   Vidhyala ,Khairabad (M.P.).

3.The Sangeet Prabhakar Examination of the Prayag SangeetSamiti (Academy of Music) Allahabad.

4.  Sangeet    Visharad  Examination  of  Bhatkhande  Sangeet  Vidhyapeeth, Lucknow  (previously,     Morris  College  of     Hindustani  Music  Lucknow).

5.     Final     Examination     of     the     Madhva     Sangeet     MahavidyaIaya, Laishkar.Gwalior.

6.   The   Final   Examination   of   Shankar   Gandharya   Vidyalaya,   Gwalior.

7.   Sangeet  Ratan   Diploma   Awarded   by   the   Director,  Department  of

Education, M.P.

 

 

29

 

 

DANCE MISTRESS

Degree    in    Dance    from    a    recognised    University    (4-yeas    Course).

OR

Diploma in Dance from a recognised Institution (5-years).

 

30

 

LABORATORY ASSISTANT/SCHOOL

10+2 or its equivalent with Science and 1-year experience in Pathological &

Bio-Chemical Laboratory.

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(Reservation) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)



(Reservation) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)



VERTICAL RESERVATION

8.1 This CEN provides for Vertical Reservation for Scheduled Caste (SC), Scheduled  Tribe (ST), Other Backward Classes (OBC)-Non Creamy Layer (NCL) and Economically Weaker Sections (EWS), wherever applicable and admissible, and as communicated by the Indenting Railways/Production Units under extant rules, as mentioned in the Vacancy Table.

8.2 All candidates, irrespective of community may be considered against UR vacancies, subject to fulfillment of parameters for UR candidates. However, against the vacancies earmarked for specific communities (SC/ST/OBCNCL/EWS), only candidates belonging to that community will be considered. 

8.3 For availing reservation, SC/ST/OBC-NCL candidates should furnish Caste Certificate from competent authorities as per the format given at Annexure-I (for SC/ST candidates) and Annexure-II (for OBC-NCL candidates)at the time of DV. Further, in case of OBC-NCL candidates, the certificates should specifically indicate that the candidate does not belong to the Persons/Sections (Creamy Layer) mentioned in Column 3 of the Schedule of the Government of India, Department of Personnel and Training O.M.No.36012/22/93-Estt. (SCT) dated 08.09.93 & its subsequent revision through O.M.No.36033/3/2004-Estt. (Res) dated 09.03.2004, 27.05.2013, 13.09.2017and further revision, if any, received till the closing date for OLINE Registration of applications for this CEN. The candidate should ensure that he/she belong to the OBC- Non Creamy Layer category while applying for the posts against this CEN. Such candidate should produce a valid OBC certificate in the prescribed format during DV. Further, in addition to the community certificate (OBC), a declaration in the prescribed format as per Annexure IIA

8.4 EWS Reservation

has to be furnished by the candidate during DV,that he/she does not belong to the creamy layer.The certificate produced shall not be older than one year at the time of DV. Failing in these stipulations, their claim for reserved status (OBC-NCL) will not be entertained and the candidature/application of such candidates, if fulfilling all the eligibility conditions for General (Un-reserved) category, will be considered under General (UR) vacancies only.
Candidates who are not covered under the scheme of reservation for SC/ST/OBC-NCL and whose family has gross annual income below Rs 8.00 Lakh (Rupees eight lakh only) are to be identified as EWS for benefit of reservation for EWS. The income shall also include income from all sources i.e. salary, agriculture, business, profession etc. for the financial year prior to the year of  application.For this CEN the financial year will be 2018-19 as the closing date of registration is 07.04.2019. Also, candidates whose family owns or possesses any of the following assets shall be excluded from being identified as EWS, irrespective of family income:

  • i. 5 acres of agricultural land and above;
  • ii. Residential flat of 1000 sq. ft. and above;
  • iii. Residential plot of 100 sq. yards and above in notified municipalities;
  • iv. Residential plot of 200 sq. yards and above in areas other than the notified municipalities.

The property held by a “Family” in different locations or different places/cities would be clubbed while applying the land or property holding test to determine EWS status.
The term “Family” for this purpose will include the person who seeks benefit of reservation, his/her parents and siblings below the age of 18 years as also his/her spouse and children below the age of 18 years.
The benefit of reservation under EWS can be availed upon production of an Income and Asset Certificate issued by a Competent Authority. The Income and Asset Certificate issued by any one of the following authorities in the
prescribed format as given in Annexure III
a) District Magistrate/Additional District Magistrate/Collector/Deputy Commissioner/Additional Deputy Commissioner/1st Class Stipendary Magistrate/Sub-Divisional Magistrate/Taluka Magistrate/Executive Magistrate/Extra Assistant Commissioner shall only be accepted as candidate’s claim as belonging to EWS:
b) Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/Presidency Magistrate
c) Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar and 
d) Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his family normally resides.
The candidates applying against the vacancies reserved for EWS must possess Income and Asset Certificate as on closing date of registration of application for this CEN. Further, these candidates are also required to produce valid Income and Asset Certificate during Document Verification (DV). Failing in these stipulations, their claim for reserved status under EWS will not be entertained  and the candidature/application of such candidates, if fulfilling all the eligibility conditions for General (Un-reserved) category, will be considered under General (UR) vacancies only.
8.5 Candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC-NCL/EWS who fulfill required minimum educational qualification can also apply against UR vacancies. They will however, have to compete with the UR candidates. No age relaxation will be allowed to such SC/ST/OBC-NCL candidates applying against UR vacancies.  However, candidates have to indicate their actual community in the application.
8.6 Community/EWS status as on the closing date for ONLINE Registration of application for this CEN shall only be considered for availing reservation benefits if eligible and any change in the community status of the candidate
thereafter shall not be entertained. 

9.0 HORIZONTAL RESERVATION:

9.1 This CEN provides for horizontal reservation for Ex-Servicemen(ExSM) and Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) irrespective of their community.
9.2 Vacancies for ExSM and PwBD wherever given in the vacancy table are not separate but are included in the total number of vacancies.
9.3 Wherever vacancies for PwBD are shown separately without any communitywise allotment, those vacancies are separate and not part of regular vacancies.
9.4 ExSM candidates may also apply against regular vacancies of any post(s) without separate earmarked ExSM vacancies. Even for these posts they are eligible for age relaxation and fee exemption as applicable for ExSM.
9.5 PwBD candidates of a particular disability may also apply against regular vacancies of any post(s) which are not having separate earmarked PwBD vacancies subject to condition that the post should have been identified
suitable for that disability. Even for these posts they are eligible for age relaxation and fee exemption as applicable for PwBD.
9.6 If regular PwBD vacancies cannot be filled due to non-availability of suitable candidates under thetype of disability for which vacancy is reserved or for any other sufficient reason, these shall not be filled and shall be carried forward as backlog vacancy to the next recruitment cycle. However, for the backlog PwBD vacancies indicated in the CEN, if candidates of specified disability for which vacancies are reserved are not available, these can
be filled by candidates of other disabilities for which the post is suitable. In case of non-availability of any PwBD candidates of the disabilities for which the post is identified as suitable, the vacancies will be filled by regular (those who are not PwBD) candidates in order of merit.

10.0 EX-SERVICEMEN (ExSM):

10.1 The term Ex-Servicemen means a person who has served in any rank (whether as a Combatant or non-Combatant) in the regular Army, Navy or Air Force of the Indian Union but does not include a person who has served in the Defense Security Corps, the General Reserve Engineering Force, the Lok Sahayak Sena and the Para Military Forces  and
a. Who either has been retired or relieved or discharged from such service whether at his own request or being relieved by the employer after earning his or her pension( or)
b. Who has been relieved from such service on medical grounds attributable to military service or circumstances beyond his control and awarded medical or other disability pension; (or)
c. who has been released from such service as a result of reduction in establishment; (or)
d. Who has been released from such service after completing the specific period of engagement, otherwise than on his own request, or by way of dismissal, or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency and has been given a gratuity; and includes personnel of the Territorial Army, namely, pension holders for continuous embodied service or broken spells of qualifying service;(or)
e. Personnel of Army Postal Service who are part of Regular Army and retired from the Army Postal Service without reversion to their parent service with pension, or are released from the Army Postal Service on medical grounds attributable to or aggravated by military service or circumstances beyond their control and awarded medical or other disability pension; (or)
f. Personnel who were on deputation in Army Postal Service for more than six months prior to 14th April 1987; (or)
g. Gallantry award winners of the Armed forces including personnel of Territorial Army; or
h. Ex-recruits boarded out or relieved on medical ground and granted medical disability pension w.e.f. 01.02.2006.
10.2 Persons serving in the Armed Forces of the Union, who on retirement from service would come under the category of Ex-Servicemen are eligible to apply for re-employment one year before the completion of the specific terms of engagement and avail themselves of all concessions available to ExServicemen but such persons shall not be permitted to leave the uniform until they complete the specific terms of engagement in the Armed Forces of the Union.
Accordingly, such serving Defense personnel to be released within one year from the closing date of ONLINE Registration of applications (07.04.2019) for this CEN (i.e. on or before 07.04.2020) can also apply, both for vacancies
earmarked for Ex-Servicemen and for posts not reserved for them. However, they should possess the prescribed educational qualifications as on the closing date of registration (07.04.2019) of applications for this CEN.
10.3 Ex-Servicemen candidates who have already secured civil employment under Central Government in Group 'C’ & ‘D' (including PSUs, autonomous  bodies/statutory bodies, nationalized banks etc.)after availing of the benefits given to Ex-Servicemenwill be permitted only the benefit of age relaxation as prescribed for Ex-Servicemen for securing another employment in a higher grade or cadre in Group 'C/D' under Central Government. Such candidates will not be considered against the vacancies reserved for Ex-Servicemen in the Central Government jobs.
10.4 If an Ex-Serviceman applies for various vacancies before joining any civil employment, he/she can avail the benefit of reservation as Ex-Servicemen for any subsequent employment, subject to the condition that an Ex-Serviceman as soon as he/she joins any civil employment, should give selfdeclaration/undertaking to the concerned employer about the date wise details of application for various vacancies, including this CEN, for which he/she
had applied for, before joining the initial civil employment. The acknowledged copy of this declaration along with NOC from the civil employer should be produced during DV failing which they will not get benefit of reservation for ExServicemen. Further, this benefit would be available only in respect of vacancies which are filled on direct recruitment and wherever reservation is applicable to the Ex-Servicemen.
10.5 The Medical standard of Ex-Serviceman will be according to Para 534 of Indian Railway Medical manual (IRMM) Volume I, which may be accessed at www.indianrailways.gov.in.

11.0 PERSONS WITH BENCHMARK DISABILITIES (PwBD)

11.1 The suitability or otherwise of a post for PwBD has been indicated against each post, under the column “Suitability for Persons with Benchmark Disability” with details of sub disability in Post Parameters Table (Annexure-A
Benchmark Disabilities:- As per The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016 (effective from 19thApril, 2017), the Benchmark Disabilities are as under: - ).

  • (a) Blindness and low vision;
  • (b) Deaf and hard of hearing;
  • (c) Locomotor disability including cerebral palsy, leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid attack victims and muscular dystrophy;
  • (d) Autism, intellectual disability, specific learning disability and mental illness;
  • (e) Multiple disabilities from amongst persons under clauses (a) to (d) including deaf-blindness in the posts identified for each disabilities. Definition of Specified Disabilities as provided in the Schedule of RPwD Act, 2016 is as 

mentioned below:

11.2 Definition of Specified Disabilities:
1. Physical disability:-
A) Locomotor disability (a person’s inability to execute distinctive activities associated with movement of self and objects resulting from affliction of musculoskeletal or nervous system or both), including—
(a) “Leprosy cured person” means a person who has been cured of leprosy but is suffering from—
(i) loss of sensation in hands or feet as well as loss of sensation and paresis in the eye and eye-lid but with no manifest deformity;
(ii) manifest deformity and paresis but having sufficient mobility in their hands and feet to enable them to engage in normal economic activity;
(iii) extreme physical deformity as well as advanced age which prevents him/her from undertaking any gainful occupation, and the expression “leprosy cured” shall construed accordingly;
(b) “cerebral palsy” means a Group of non-progressive neurological condition affecting body movements and muscle coordination, caused by damage to one or more specific areas of the brain, usually occurring before, during or shortly after birth;
(c) “dwarfism” means a medical or genetic condition resulting in an adult height of 4 feet 10 inches (147 centimeters) or less;
(d) “muscular dystrophy” means a group of hereditary genetic muscle disease that weakens the muscles that move the human body and persons with multiple dystrophy have incorrect and missing information in their genes,
which prevents them from making the proteins they need for healthy muscles. It is characterized by progressive skeletal muscle weakness, defects in muscle proteins, and the death of muscle cells and tissue;
(e) “acid attack victims” means a person disfigured due to violent assaults by throwing of acid or similar corrosive substance.

B) Visual impairment—

(a) “blindness” means a condition where a person has any of the following conditions, after best correction—
(i) total absence of sight; or
(ii) visual acuity less than 3/60 or less than 10/200 (Snellen) in the better eye with best possible correction; or
(iii) limitation of the field of vision subtending an angle of less than 10 degree.
(b) “low-vision” means a condition where a person has any of the following conditions, namely:—
(i) visual acuity not exceeding 6/18 or less than 20/60 upto 3/60 or upto 10/200 (Snellen) in the better eye with best possible corrections; or
(ii) limitation of the field of vision subtending an angle of less than 40 degree up to 10 degree.
C) Hearing impairment—
(a) “deaf’ means persons having 70 DB healing loss in speech frequencies in both ears;
(b) “hard of hearing” means person having 60 DB to 70 DB hearing loss in speech frequencies in both ears
D) (1) “speech and language disability” means a permanent disability arising out of conditions such as laryngectomy or aphasia affecting one or more components of speech and language due to organic or neurological causes.
(2) Intellectual disability, a condition characterized by significant limitation both in intellectual functioning (reasoning, learning, problem solving) and in adaptive behaviour which covers a range of every day, social and practical
skills, including—
(a) “specific learning disabilities” means a heterogeneous group of conditions wherein there is a deficit in processing language, spoken or written, that may manifest itself as a difficulty to comprehend, speak, read, write, spell, or to do mathematical calculations and includes such conditions as perceptual disabilities, dyslexia, dysgraphia, dyscalculia, dyspraxia and developmental aphasia;
(b) “autism spectrum disorder” means a neuro-developmental condition typically appearing in the first three years of life that significantly affects a person’s ability to communicate, understand relationships and relate to others,
and is frequently associated with unusual or stereotypical rituals or behaviours. 
(3) Mental behaviour— “mental illness” means a substantial disorder of thinking, mood, perception, orientation or memory that grossly impairs judgment, behaviour, capacity to recognize reality or ability to meet the
ordinary demands of life, but does not include retardation which is a condition of arrested or incomplete development of mind of a person, specially characterized by sub normality of intelligence.
(4) Disability caused due to— (a) chronic neurological conditions, such as— 
(i) “multiple sclerosis” means an inflammatory, nervous system disease in which the myelin sheaths around the axons of nerve cells of the brain and spinal cord are damaged, leading to demyelination and affecting the ability of
nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord to communicate with each other;
(ii) “Parkinson’s disease” means a progressive disease of the nervous system marked by tremor, muscular rigidity, and slow, imprecise movement, chieflyaffecting middle-aged and elderly people associated with degeneration
of the basal ganglia of the brain and a deficiency of the neurotransmitter dopamine.
(b) Blood disorder—
(i) “Haemophilia” means an inheritable disease, usually affecting only male but transmitted by women to their male children, characterized by loss or impairment of the normal clotting ability of blood so that a minor would may
result in fatal bleeding;
(ii) “Thalassemia” means a group of inherited disorders characterized by reduced or absent amounts of hemoglobin.
(iii) “Sickle cell disease” means a hemolytic disorder characterized by chronic anemia, painful events, and various complications due to associated tissue and organ damage; “hemolytic” refers to the destruction of the cell membrane of red blood cells resulting in the release of hemoglobin.
(5) Multiple Disabilities (more than one of the above specified disabilities) including deaf, blindness which means a condition in which a person may have combination of hearing and visual impairments causing severe communication, developmental, and educational problems.
(6) Any other category as may be notified by the Central Government. 
11.3. Degree of Benchmark Disability for Reservation and Competent Authority for Issue of Disability Certificate: Only such persons would be eligible for relaxation in conditions/reservation in posts who suffer from not less than 40 percent of relevant benchmark disability. Those Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) who have availed the relaxation and/or reservation and shortlisted for Document Verification have to submit Certificate of Disability
issued by the Competent Authority as per the form V, VI and VII of rule 18(1) under chapter 7 of Rights of Persons with Disabilities Rules, 2017 dated 15.06.2017. Refer Annexure V (A), Annexure V (B) and Annexure V(C) 
11.4 Assistance of Scribe: Visually Impaired (VI) candidates/candidates whose writing speed is affected by Cerebral Palsy/muscular dystrophy/candidates with Locomotor disability (one arm)/Intellectual disability (Autism, specific learning disability and mental illness) can avail the assistance of scribe for writing answers on their behalf. For engaging the scribe, candidates will have to indicate the same while filling ONLINE application form. Engagement of scribe will be subject to the following conditions: for the revised formats. The existing certificates of disability issued under the Persons with Disabilities Act 1995 (since repealed) shall continue to be valid for the period specified therein.
(a) Candidates will have to arrange for the scribe on their own.
(b) The scribe so arranged should not himself/herself be the candidate for the notification for which the candidate is appearing. Also same scribe should not be engaged for more than one candidate. The scribe and the candidate shall give a declaration to this effect. Any violation, if detected at any stage will render both candidate and scribe disqualified.
(c) Candidates opting for scribe will have to provide additional details for scribes during submission of ONLINE application form as per Annexure-V(D)
(d) Separate e-Call Letter will be issued to scribes accompanying the candidates. , so that RRBs can issue e-Call Letter for scribe and the same shall be signed by both candidate and scribe. Scribe should produce original and valid ID proof at CBT Center and bring passport size photograph. 
(e) The candidate shall be responsible for any misconduct on the part of the scribe brought by him/her during the examination.
(f) Candidates availing the assistance of a scribe shall be eligible for compensatory time of not less than 20 minutes for every hour of examination.
(g) Candidates who wish to avail services of scribe but are unable to furnish the details of scribe at the time of ONLINE application, may avail the services of scribe by filling up necessary details in Format given at Annexure V(D) at the CBT center duly complying the conditions stipulated for scribe. The change of scribe may also be allowed in emergency duly recording reasons and filling the relevant details including pasting of photograph of the new scribe as per Annexure V(D)
(h) Conditions regarding engagement of scribe shall be subject to various provisions/orders of the competent authority, as amended from time to time.
.
11.5 All one-eyed candidates and candidates whose visual degree of disability is less than 40% shall not be considered as Visually Impaired persons and the provision for engaging scribe shall not be applicable to them.
11.6 Selected PwBD candidates will be subjected to medical examination by Railway Medical Authorities at the time of DV and only those conforming to the medical standards as laid down in the Indian Railway Medical Manual and other extant provisions, as the case may be, will be eligible for appointment.
11.7 When vacancies are reserved for PwBDs and full panel for PwBDs cannot be made with the minimum qualifying percentage marks of each category, viz., UR, SC, ST, OBC-NCL, a relaxation of up to 2% marks in the minimum qualifying marks prescribed for the community will be allowed. Special Note for all Candidates seeking reservation/relaxation bene fits All the candidates seeking reservation/relaxation benefits available for
SC/ST/OBC-NCL/EWS/PwBD/ExSM must ensure that they are entitled to such reservation/relaxation as per eligibility prescribed in the Rules/CEN. They should be in possession of all the requisite certificates in the prescribed
format in support of their claim as stipulated in the Rules/CEN.

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(Computer Based Examination (CBT) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)



(Computer Based Examination (CBT) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)



Stages of Exam: 

There shall be a Single Stage Computer Based Test (CBT) followed by Stenography Skill Test (SST)/Translation Test (TT)/Performance Test (PT)/Teaching Skill Test (TST) (as applicable) and document verification and medical examination thereafter. RRBs reserve the right to conduct the CBT in Single or multi stage mode.

Junior Translator/Hindi:

A single stage Computer Based Test will be conducted followed by a qualifying translation test. The Question Paper shall be designed to test equally both the knowledge of English language as well as knowledge of Hindi language. Atleast 50% of the questions will be designed to test language proficiency – 20% for English and 30% for Hindi. The remaining questions will be designed to test General Knowledge, General Intelligence, Simple Arithmetic and basics of computer. 

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(Apply Online) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)



(Apply Online) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)



(a) Candidates can apply for the notified posts of any one RRB only as per their eligibility through ONLINE application mode by visiting the official website of RRBs listed at Para 20.0.
(b) Read all the Information and Instructions detailed in the CENthoroughly before starting the filling up of application by clicking the appropriate Link on the RRB website. It is essential that the candidate understands all information of the CEN correctly to prevent any mistakes while filling application.
(c) Scanned documents in JPEG Format to be kept ready before filling the application In order to ensure speedy filling up of application by the candidates, they should keep the following documents ready in digital form before logging in to the application page.

  • Candidate Photograph: JPEG image of size 20 to 50KB (Please Refer Para 15.1 (o) (3) regarding specification of photograph)
  • Candidate Signature: JPEG image of size 10 to 40KB (Please Refer Para15.1 (o) (5) regarding specification of signature)
  • SC/ST Certificate(Only for candidates seeking Free Travel Pass): JPEG image of size 50 to 100KB
  • Scribe Photo (wherever applicable): JPEG image of size 20 to 50KB (Please Refer Para 15.1 (o) (3) regarding specification of photograph) 

(d) Check RRB wise Vacancies for the qualification and Reservation Category of the candidate: The candidates are advised to check the Post Parameter Table and Vacancy Table in this CEN to ascertain vacancies notified against all RRBs andthen decide the RRB for which they wish to applyand ensure that the RRB to which they wish to fill in the online application is having vacancies for their educational qualification, community/categoryand eligibility in terms of age,medical standards, disability etc.
(e) Following steps may be followed to dynamically ascertain the availability of vacancies and candidate’s eligibility for various posts notified: 

  • • Post Parameter Table:Click on the Post Parameter Table Tab. From this table, candidate can ascertain the post(s) for which he/she is eligible as per qualification, type of disability for which post is suitable if PwBD, required medical standards etc.
  • • Vacancy Table: To ascertain the comprehensive details of vacancy of all the posts notified against an RRB for his/her eligibility, candidate may select the RRB from the drop down list of RRBs and can view the vacancies for all the notified posts against various Railways/Units attached to that RRB on selecting the eligibility parameters. After scrutinizing the vacancy table, candidates may decide the RRB for which they wish to apply duly ensuring that vacancy exists for their qualification/community/EWS/PwBD/ExSM category etc.
  • • Once the RRB has been selected, preliminary registration is ompleted and registration number is allotted, change of RRB will not be permitted under any circumstances.

(f) Candidates are required to go to the link provided for filling ONLINE application and fill up the personal details/Bio-Data, fee paid etc., carefully. They are also required to exercise their option/preference for Post(s), Railway(s)/Production Unit(s).

(g) CANDIDATES PLEASE NOTE:

• Multiple posts and other requirements have been notified in this CEN. 
The candidates are required to indicate their Post-wise and Railway/PUwise preferences very carefully. Options once exercised in the ONLINE Application shall be final and no request for change shall be entertained.
Therefore, candidates are advised to be careful in exercise of option for Post(s) and Railway(s)/PU(s). RRBs will allot the post and the Railway/Production Unit to the selected candidates as per the preference of the candidates subject to merit and vacancy position. However in case of administrative exigencies/requirements, RRBs reserve the right to allot any post/Railway subject to the suitability of the candidate(s).
• Candidates with partial option will be considered only for the specific categories opted by them since non-option for certain categories or all categories would indicate their unwillingness for the same.
• Candidates are advised to keep their personal mobile number and personal valid e-mail ID active throughout the recruitment process, as all communications from RRBs will be sent only through SMS/e-mail. RRBs 
will not entertain any request for change of mobile number and e-mail address at any stage. Candidates are advised to note and preserve their Registration Number for further stages of recruitment process/ correspondence with RRB concerned. Candidates are further advised to visit website(s) of RRBs frequently to get the latest information on various stages of recruitment process or any changes about this CEN.
The onus is on the candidates to prove with valid documents that all the information submitted by them in the ONLINE application is true.

STEPS TO SUBMIT ONLINE APPLICATION:

completing the process at Para 15.0 a, b, c & d above carry out the  following:
a) Select the RRB to which you wish to apply. Please be aware that, RRB once selected cannot be changed after the preliminary registration is completed and Registration number is allotted.
b) Confirm that you have read and understood the instructions clearly by clicking the check box. Click on the “New Registration” 
c) Registration Details: Enter your name, Date of Birth and Father’s name as per Para 1.7 of General Instructions, Mother’s Name, Aadhaar Number, SSLC/Matric Roll Number, Year of Passing, Mobile Number and e-mail-ID and
then submit for registration.Candidates can modify the application particulars except RRB chosen, Email ID and Mobile Number, even after submission of application, but within the last date of submission of application, by paying
modification fee. Please note that the email ID used for the Registration must be yours and unique. Also note that both the email and Mobile Number will be verified during the Online Application process with a One Time Password (OTP).
d) Verification of email ID and mobile number through OTP: On submitting the primary details, the Registration Number and Password shall be displayed to the candidate. Also, OTPs shall be sent to the registered Mobile Number and e-mail along with the Registration details. The candidate should retrieve the OTPs from e-mail and Mobile and then enter OTPs to proceed with the filling up of application and to make payment. 
Candidate should note and preserve their Registration Number for later reference during the recruitment process and RRB will not entertain any request seeking registration number.
e) Candidates can proceed with the online application by clicking on the “Already Registered” Button on the Home Page using the Registration Number and password.
f) In the Part Iof application page, provide the details of Educational Qualification, Community- UR/OBC/SC/ST/EWS, Gender, Religion, Ex SM, PwBD, Minority, Economically Backward Class and Age Relaxation eligibility category as applicable and other details.
g) In the Part II of application page, candidate has to set priority/preference of the posts.
Set priority / preferences for posts: If the candidate is eligible for more than one post based on his/her educational qualification and other details furnished, he/she must set the priority/preferences for these posts. The list of posts (in the chosen RRB) for which a candidate is eligible is displayed. Similarly, if the  chosen RRB has vacancies for more than one Railway/Production Unit, then vacancies for all such Railways/Production Units for which a candidate is eligible, will be listed out. The candidate should fill their priority/preferences number in the textbox against each post that they are eligible for, in the RRB they are applying to. 
Candidates with partial option will be considered only for the specific categories opted by them. Non-option for certain posts would be considered as their unwillingness for the same.

h) Payment and Bank Account Details:

i. On completion of application details as above, the candidate will be directed to the payment page to choose payment mode i.e. Bank (Online Net Banking/Credit Card/Debit Card/UPI and OfflineChallan) or Post Office Challan
as explained in Para 7.1 and complete the payment process. Chose the mode of payment and complete the payment process. Please note the last date and time specified for each mode of payment and submit the application well in time.
ii. Those paying through Bank-offline mode, the payment confirmation may take
2 hours and hence they have to again login after 2 hours and look for confirmation of payment status.
iii. The time period for payment confirmation shall vary from 24 hrs to 48 hrs in case of Post Office payment.
(i) Scribe for PwBD Candidates: Indicate option for scribe if you are a PwBD candidate eligible for scribe. Only the candidates suffering from Visually Impairment (VI)/candidates whose writing speed is affected by
LocomotorsDisability (one arm),are eligible for availing scribe against this CEN. In case you have firmed up the scribe, then enter the details of scribe such as name, father’s name, educational qualification etc. Please note that the qualification of the scribe should be one step below the qualification of the candidate taking examination. Alsothe scribe so arranged should not himself/herself be the candidate for the notification for which the candidate
is appearing and same scribe should not be engaged for more than one candidate.
j) Detailed Educational Qualification: Furnish all the relevant information on the qualification as required in the application.
k) Choice of Exam Language: English is the default language. In case the candidate wishes to choose any other language, then the same can be selected from the drop down list of languages. The languages listed are Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Odiya, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu. In case of any difference/ discrepancy/dispute in the Questions between English and the opted
language, the content of English version shall prevail. 
l) Complete the balance fields e.g. Mother Tongue, Moles/Identification Marks, Address etc.
m) Bank Account Details for Refund: Candidate who attend 1st Stage CBT are eligible for refund of examination fee as per details in Para 7. All candidates who have given the confirmation to receive their refund to the account from which they have made the application fee payment, need not fill these details and hence, this will not be visible for them. Only those candidates who do not wish to receive the refund in the account through which they paid examination fee should provide the details of Beneficiary Account in which they wish to receive the refund viz. BeneficiaryName, Account Number and IFSC Code in the Online Application.
n) Candidates may indicate their consent or otherwise for sharing the scores obtained by them in RRB exams with other Ministries/Departments/ PSUs and Private organizations, for recruitment in their organizations.

o) Photograph and Signature Upload:

1. Candidate will be automatically directed to ‘Photo and Signature Upload’part of the application.
2. Select the Upload Photo Tab and upload your colour photograph. The photograph should comply with the following requirements.
3. SPECIFICATIONS FOR PHOTOGRAPH:
a. It should be a Color Passport Photograph with white/light color background.
b. It should be the size of 35mmX45mm or 320 x 240 pixelswith name and date printed on it.
c. It should be in JPG/JPEG format scanned with 100 DPI resolution.
d. The size of the photograph should be between 20-50KB.
e. The color photograph must have been taken on or after 15-12-2018 in a professional studio. Photographs taken using mobile and selfcomposed portraits may result in rejection of application.
f. The photo should have clear front view of the candidate without cap and sunglasses.
g. The face should occupy at least 50% of the area of the photograph with a full face view looking at the camera directly.
h. The main features of the face must not be covered by hair of the head any cloth or any shadow.
i. Forehead, eyes, nose and chin should be clearly visible.
j. In case the candidate wears glasses, then the photograph should not have any glare/reflections on glasses and eyes should be clearly visible.
k. The photograph must match with the candidate appearance on the days of CBTs/Stenography Test/Skill Test/Translation Test/DV and Medical est.
l. PwBD candidates should also upload passport photograph as per above specifications only and not the full body photograph used in the disability certificate.
m. Candidates are advised to keep at least 12 (Twelve) copies of the same photograph for further use as and when required during the recruitment process.
4. Select upload Signature Tab and upload your Scanned Signature. The signature image should comply with the following specifications.
5. Specification for Signature Image:
a. The applicant has tosign on white paper with Black Ink pen within a box of size 50mm x 20mm.
b. Signature must be in running letters and NOT IN BLOCK LETTERS.
c. The image should be in JPG/JPEG format scanned with 100 DPI resolution.
d. Dimensions of 50mm x 20mm or 140 x60 pixels (preferred).
e. Size of file should be between 10KB-40KB.
f. Notes
i. The signature must be of the applicant only and not of any other person. :
ii. The applicants signature obtained during registration and at the time of CBTs/SST/TT/DV/Medical should match the uploaded signature.
iii. In case it is found that there is a mismatch of signature, the candidate may be disqualified, legal prosecution will be initiated and the candidate will be debarred for life from appearing in railway recruitments (RRBs/RRCs).

6. SCANNING AND RESIZING OF THE PHOTOGRAPH AND SIGNATURE:

a. Set the scanner resolution to a minimum of 100 dpi (dots per inch).
b. Set Color to True Color. File Size as specified above.
c. Crop the image in the scanner to the edge of the photograph/signature,then use the upload editor to crop the image to the final size (as specified above).
d. The image file should be in JPG or JPEG format. An example file name is:image01.jpg or image01.jpeg.
e. Image dimensions can be checked by listing the folder files or moving the mouse over the file image icon. Candidates can easily obtain photo and signature in .jpeg format not exceeding 50KB & 40KB respectively by
using MS Paint or MS Office Picture Manager. 
f. Scanned photograph and signature in any format can be saved in .jpg format by using ‘Save As’ option in the File menu and size can be reduced below 50KB (photograph) & 40KB (signature) by using crop and then resize option in the ‘Image’ menu. Similar options are available in other photo editors also.

p) SC/ST Certificate Upload:

Candidates belonging to SC/ST community who have opted to avail Free Rail Travel, have to upload scanned copy of their SC/ ST certificates (JPG/JPEG format, 50KB – 100KB) also for availing the facility of Free Travel Authority (Second Class Railway Pass).
CARE: If the file size and format for photograph, signature and SC/ST Community Certificate are not as prescribed, an error message will be displayed.

q) Submission of Application:

In the end candidates have to confirm the declaration“I hereby declare that I have gone through the eligibility criteria for the post(s) applied for and meet  all the requirements therein, that all the details furnished by me in the
application are true and complete to the best of my knowledge & belief and nothing has been concealed or suppressed. I also understand that in case, any of the details furnished is found untrue during any stage of recruitment or thereafter RRB shall disqualify me for the post(s) applied for and /or I shall be liable for any other action under the extant rules”. After confirming the above declaration and submission of the application, the candidate may save the file as “PDF” and/or take print of the application and  preserve it for reference and record.

MODIFICATION OF APPLICATION:

a. After final submission of ONLINE application, in case the candidates wish to make minor changes to correct inadvertent errors in the application, the correction of data other than RRB, email and mobile number can be done by
paying the modification fee of Rs.100/- (Non-Refundable). The modification fee shall be applicable to all candidates including fee concession categories and this fee is not refundable for any category.
b. In the case of a candidate modifying his community from SC/ST to UR or OBC, he will have to pay the difference in examination fee i.e. Rs.250/- in addition to the modification fee. In case of failure to do so, his modified
application will not be accepted. 
c. Similarly, if a candidate is switching from Ex.SM/PwBD/Female/Transgender to UR/OBC- NonEx.SM/Non PwBD/Male etc., he will have to pay the difference in examination fee i.e. Rs.250/- in addition to the modification
fee. In case of failure to do so, his modified application will not be accepted.
d. The modification to the registration and application details can be done twice only.
e. CAUTION: Candidates who wish to modify their application are advised to do the same sufficiently well in advance of the closing date and time of the CEN. In case, due to last minute congestion, if the modifications attempt 
fails at any stage, and the modification carried out have not been saved or not submitted in time, the earlier information furnished in the application shall be considered and no correspondence on this subject shall be
entertained. 
f. The RRB, email id and mobile number cannot be changed.
g. The step by step procedure for modification of the application shall be as below:
i. Login using Registration Number and Password
ii. Pay modification fee through any of the modes available for actual examination fee payment. Ensure payment is done well within the date and time prescribed.
iii. Click on the ‘Modify Application’ Button.
iv. Proceed with the changes intended as per instructions given and submit the application. Preserve the print out of latest application for record.

INVALID APPLICATIONS / REJECTIONS

Online applications are liable for rejection on the following grounds amongst others: :-
a. Invalid photos on account of Black and White photo, photo with cap or wearing Goggles. Photos whichare disfigured, small size, full body, showing only one side view of the face, unrecognizable photos,photostatcopy of photo, group photo, selfie photo, photo taken by mobile, morphed photo and online application without photo among others.
b. Signature in capital/block letters.
c. Not possessing the prescribed qualification for the post(s) as on the closing date for registration of online application.
d. Over-aged or under aged or Date of Birth wrongly filled.
e. Multiple applications to different RRBs or same RRB. In such case, all applications will be rejected and such candidates will be debarred from future RRB/RRC exams.
f. Candidate's name figuring in the debarred list of any RRB / RRC.
g. Incomplete or incorrectly filled application.
h. Any other irregularities which are observedand considered as invalid by RRB.
NOTE: In case the application is rejected, candidates will be able to view their status ONLINE on the website of RRBsalong with the reasons for rejection(s) which is final and binding and no further correspondence shall be entertained on the subject. No refund of examination fee will be made on account of rejection of application. SMS and e-mail alerts shall also be sent to the candidates on their registered mobile numbers and e-mail IDs, as indicated in their ONLINE application. Candidates will not be intimated by post.

HALL TICKET (e-CALL LETTER) FOR CBTs, SST/PT/TST/TT, DV:

16.1 SMS and email messages will be sent to all eligible candidates about the e-Call letter and upload details on their registered mobile number and email ID. However, candidates should regularly visit the website of RRB as there can be failure in delivery of SMS/E-mail to the candidates due to reasons beyond control of RRBs.
16.2 Eligible candidates can download e-Call letter along with Annexure V(D) 16.3 Candidates should read the instructions on the e-Call letter carefully and follow them scrupulously. Failure to comply with the instructions may lead to cancellation of their candidature.(declaration for scribe, wherever applicable) from the RRBs websites about 10 days before the date of the CBT, Stenography Skill Test, Performance Test/Teaching Skill Test, Translation Test, DV(as applicable). Call letter will not be sent to candidates by post. 
16.4 In case of SC/ST candidates who opted for free rail travel facility and uploaded their valid caste certificate for availing the benefit of free travel authority (Sleeper Class Railway Pass), the e-call letter for CBT, Stenography Skill Test, Performance Test/Teaching Skill Test, Translation Test, DV (as applicable) will contain the free travel authority and such candidates will be allowed to book ticket on submission of self-attested photo copy of e-call letter and SC/ST Certificate. During the journey, these candidates should carry original SC/ST Certificate and one original prescribed proof of identity for undertaking journey failing which they will be treated as travelling without ticket and charged accordingly.
16.5 Candidates must bring their e-Call letter along with a valid Photo ID (viz. Voter Card, Aadhaar Card, printout of e-Aadhaar (not Xerox copy of Aadhaar), Driving License, PAN card, Passport, Identity Card issued by the employer in case the candidate is a Govt. employee, College/University Photo ID card, (if still studying) in ORIGINAL to the examination hall, failing which candidates shall NOT be allowed to appear for the CBT, Stenography Skill Test, Performance Test/Teaching Skill Test, Translation Test, DV (as applicable). The name, date of birth and photo on ID should match with the details furnished in the online application, failing which the candidate may not be permitted to appear in CBT,Stenography Skill Test,Performance Test/Teaching Skill Test, Translation Test, DV (as applicable).
16.6 Candidates must also bring one color photograph (of size 35mm x 45mm) which was uploaded in the application, for appearing in the CBT,Stenography Skill Test, Performance Test/Teaching Skill Test, Translation Test, DV (as applicable).

Click Here To Apply Online

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(VACANCY DETAILS) RRB NTPC (CEN No. 01/2019) Exam : RRB Thiruvananthapuram



(VACANCY DETAILS) RRB NTPC (CEN No. 01/2019) Exam : RRB Thiruvananthapuram



RRB Thiruvananthapuram :

Cat. No.

Name of the Post

Level

Rly./ PU

UR

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

Total

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(6)

(7)

(8)

(9)

(10)

2

Station Master

6

SR

171

47

47

37

38

340

3

Goods Guard

5

SR

32

13

8

23

9

85

5

Senior Clerk Cum Typist

5

SR

12

4

2

6

2

26

6

Senior Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk

5

SR

81

37

20

58

24

220

9

Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk

3

SR

63

26

22

43

19

173

11

Junior Clerk Cum Typist

2

SR

13

9

6

8

3

39

13

Trains Clerk

2

SR

5

2

2

3

2

14

RRB Total

377

138

107

178

97

897

GRAND TOTAL (All RRBs)

15131

5127

2787

8712

3510

35277

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(VACANCY DETAILS) RRB NTPC (CEN No. 01/2019) Exam : RRB Siliguri



(VACANCY DETAILS) RRB NTPC (CEN No. 01/2019) Exam : RRB Siliguri



RRB Siliguri :

Cat. No.

Name of the Post

Level

Rly./ PU

UR

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

Total

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(6)

(7)

(8)

(9)

(10)

2

Station Master

6

NFR

20

7

4

13

6

50

3

Goods Guard

5

NFR

29

11

5

19

7

71

5

Senior Clerk Cum Typist

5

NFR

23

9

5

17

6

60

6

Senior Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk

5

NFR

35

13

7

23

9

87

8

Traffic Assistant

4

NFR

1

0

0

0

0

1

9

Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk

3

NFR

26

10

5

17

6

64

11

Junior Clerk Cum Typist

2

NFR

34

13

6

23

8

84

13

Trains Clerk

2

NFR

10

4

2

7

3

26

RRB Total

178

67

34

119

45

443

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(VACANCY DETAILS) RRB NTPC (CEN No. 01/2019) Exam : RRB Secunderabad



(VACANCY DETAILS) RRB NTPC (CEN No. 01/2019) Exam : RRB Secunderabad



RRB Secunderabad :

Cat. No.

Name of the Post

Level

Rly./ PU

UR

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

Total

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(6)

(7)

(8)

(9)

(10)

1

Commercial Apprentice

6

ECoR

1

0

0

0

0

1

2

Station Master

 

6

ECoR

14

5

2

7

3

31

SCR

328

119

63

219

81

810

3

Goods Guard

5

ECoR

59

20

11

32

14

136

SCR

298

106

54

190

74

722

4

Junior Accounts Assistant Cum Typist

5

SCR

38

13

6

24

8

89

5

Senior Clerk Cum Typist

5

ECoR

3

3

3

1

1

11

SCR

47

19

9

27

11

113

6

Senior Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk

 

5

ECoR

13

5

2

8

3

31

SCR

176

67

35

113

44

435

9

Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk

 

3

ECoR

17

6

3

9

4

39

SCR

243

90

44

154

60

591

10

Accounts Clerk Cum Typist

 

2

 

SCR

 

28

 

10

 

5

 

17

 

6

 

66

11

Junior Clerk Cum Typist

 

2

ECoR

2

2

4

1

2

11

SCR

47

20

13

27

12

119

13

Trains Clerk

 

2

ECoR

3

2

2

1

1

9

SCR

8

3

1

6

2

20

RRB Total

1325

490

257

836

326

3234

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(VACANCY DETAILS) RRB NTPC (CEN No. 01/2019) Exam : RRB Ranchi



(VACANCY DETAILS) RRB NTPC (CEN No. 01/2019) Exam : RRB Ranchi



RRB Ranchi :

Cat. No.

Name of the Post

Level

Rly./ PU

UR

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

Total

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(6)

(7)

(8)

(9)

(10)

1

Commercial Apprentice

 

6

ECR

1

0

0

0

0

1

SER

2

0

1

2

0

5

2

Station Master

 

6

ECR

50

19

10

35

13

127

SER

34

26

8

21

10

99

3

Goods Guard

 

5

ECR

26

4

0

29

11

70

SER

156

68

30

106

41

401

5

Senior Clerk Cum Typist

 

5

ECR

26

9

5

17

6

63

SER

28

12

5

17

8

70

6

Senior Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk

 

5

ECR

39

14

7

26

10

96

SER

20

8

2

11

5

46

9

Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk

 

3

ECR

61

22

11

39

15

148

SER

34

14

5

18

8

79

11

Junior Clerk Cum Typist

 

2

ECR

29

11

5

20

8

73

SER

29

14

5

19

7

74

13

Trains Clerk

 

2

ECR

5

3

2

5

2

17

SER

8

2

2

3

2

17

RRB Total

548

226

98

368

146

1386

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(Medical Standards) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)



(Medical Standards For The Posts) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)



Candidates called for DV will have to pass requisite medical fitness test(s) conducted by the Railway Administration to ensure that the candidates are medically fit to carry out the duties connected with the post(s) opted by them. Visual Acuity Standard is one of the important criteria of medical fitness of railway staff. The medical standards are outlined below:

SL.NO

MEDICAL STANDARD

GENERAL FITNESS

VISUAL ACUITY

1

B- 1

Physically fit in all respects

Distant  Vision:  6/9,  6/12  with  or  without  glasses(power of lenses not to exceed 4D)

Near Vision: Sn. 0.6,0.6 with or without glasses when reading or close work is required and must pass test for Colour Vision, Binocular Vision, Night Vision, Mesopic Vision etc.

2

C-1

Physically fit  in all respects

Distant Vision: 6/12, 6/18 with or without glasses.

Near Vision: Sn. 0.6, 0.6 with or without glasses when reading or close work is required.

3

C-2

Physically fit  in allrespects

Distant Vision: 6/12, nil with or without glasses

Near Vision: Sn. 0.6 combined with or without glasses where reading or close work is required

Note: The above medical standards are indicative and not exhaustive and apply to candidates in general. The candidates are advised to read Chapter 5 of Indian Railway Medical Manual Vol.I Different Medical standards shall apply to Ex-Servicemen as detailed in which can also be accessed at www.indianrailways.gov.in. Para 534 of Indian Railway Medical Manual (IRMM) Volume I www.indianrailways.gov.in , which may be accessed at .

Candidates are advised to ensure that they are eligible as per the medical standards for the post(s) opted by them. In case of failure of the candidate to pass the prescribed medical fitness for the opted posts, he will not be
considered for empanelment for that post and alternate appointment shall not be provided.

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(Important dates and times) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)



(Important dates and times) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)



Date of Publication

23.02.2019

Opening of online registration of Applications

08.03.2019 at 10.00 hrs.

Closing of online registration of Applications

07.04.2019 at 23.59 hrs.

Closing Date & Time for Payment of Application Fee through:

 

(a) Online (Net Banking/ Credit Card/ Debit Card/UPI)

13.04.2019 at 23.59 hrs.

(b) SBI Challan

11.04.2019 at 13.00 hrs.

(c) Post Office Challan

11.04.2019 at 13.00 hrs.

Final submission of Applications

16.04.2019 at 23.59 hrs.

Computer Based Test (CBT)

Tentative schedule between

June – July 2019

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(Age Limit) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)



(Age Limit) RRB : Ministerial and Isolated Categories (CEN) No.03/2019)



  • The lower and upper age limit indicated for the post(s) in the Vacancy Table will be reckoned as on 01.07.2019.
  • For various age groups theDate of Birth of candidates should be between the dates given below(Both dates inclusive): -

Age Groups

Upper Limit of Date of Birth

Lower Limit ofDate of Birth (Not later than)

UR

OBC-Non-Creamy Layer

SC/ST

For all community /categories

18 to 30

02.07.1989

02.07.1986

02.07.1984

01.07.2001

18 to 33

02.07.1986

02.07.1983

02.07.1981

01.07.2001

18 to 40

02.07.1979

02.07.1976

02.07.1974

01.07.2001

18 to 45

02.07.1974

02.07.1971

02.07.1969

01.07.2001

20 to 35

02.07.1984

02.07.1981

02.07.1979

01.07.1999

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(VACANCY DETAILS) RRB NTPC (CEN No. 01/2019) Exam : RRB Patna



(VACANCY DETAILS) RRB NTPC (CEN No. 01/2019) Exam : RRB Patna



RRB Patna :

Cat. No.

Name of the Post

Level

Rly./ PU

UR

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

Total

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(6)

(7)

(8)

(9)

(10)

1

Commercial Apprentice

6

ECR

22

8

5

15

5

55

2

Station Master

6

ECR

37

28

46

29

15

155

3

Goods Guard

5

ECR

62

48

36

44

21

211

4

Junior Accounts Assistant Cum Typist

5

ECR

94

34

17

62

23

230

5

Senior Clerk Cum Typist

5

ECR

25

9

8

17

7

66

6

Senior Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk

5

ECR

61

23

13

41

16

154

9

Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk

3

ECR

17

7

4

12

5

45

10

Accounts Clerk Cum Typist

2

ECR

11

4

2

7

2

26

11

Junior Clerk Cum Typist

2

ECR

20

9

5

15

5

54

RWP

0

1

0

0

0

1

13

Trains Clerk

2

ECR

13

10

3

10

4

42

RRB Total

362

181

139

252

103

1039

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(VACANCY DETAILS) RRB NTPC (CEN No. 01/2019) Exam : RRB Muzaffarpur



(VACANCY DETAILS) RRB NTPC (CEN No. 01/2019) Exam : RRB Muzaffarpur



RRB Muzaffarpur :

Cat. No.

Name of the Post

Level

Rly./ PU

UR

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

Total

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(6)

(7)

(8)

(9)

(10)

2

Station Master

6

ECR

6

2

1

4

2

15

3

Goods Guard

5

ECR

4

2

1

2

1

10

5

Senior Clerk Cum Typist

5

ECR

12

5

3

9

4

33

6

Senior Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk

5

ECR

56

20

10

37

14

137

9

Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk

3

ECR

36

14

6

23

8

87

11

Junior Clerk Cum Typist

2

ECR

18

8

4

12

5

47

RRB Total

132

51

25

87

34

329

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(VACANCY DETAILS) RRB NTPC (CEN No. 01/2019) Exam : RRB Mumbai



(VACANCY DETAILS) RRB NTPC (CEN No. 01/2019) Exam : RRB Mumbai



RRB Mumbai :

Cat. No.

Name of the Post

Level

Rly./ PU

UR

SC

ST

OBC

EWS

Total

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(6)

(7)

(8)

(9)

(10)

1

Commercial  Apprentice

6

CR

11

2

1

5

2

21

 

2

 

Station Master

 

6

CR

89

38

18

51

31

227

SCR

52

20

10

35

13

130

WR

39

18

0

40

11

108

 

3

 

Goods Guard

 

5

CR

54

21

10

39

17

141

SCR

11

4

2

8

3

28

WR

55

24

12

41

15

147

4

Junior Accounts Assistant Cum Typist

 

5

CR

271

32

35

26

41

405

WR

202

75

38

135

50

500

5

Senior Clerk Cum Typist

5

CR

104

27

20

46

20

217

SCR

2

1

0

2

1

6

WR

56

18

17

32

13

136

6

 

Senior Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk

 

5

CR

95

44

40

110

40

329

SCR

14

5

3

10

4

36

WR

65

24

13

44

17

163

9

Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk

 

3

CR

59

25

11

39

15

149

SCR

2

1

0

1

1

5

WR

88

33

17

61

23

222

10

Accounts Clerk Cum Typist

 

2

CR

26

8

2

12

5

53

WR

71

26

13

46

17

173

11

Junior Clerk Cum Typist

2

CR

153

43

24

71

37

328

WR

33

8

6

24

8

79

13

Trains Clerk

2

CR

27

8

5

16

4

60

SCR

1

0

0

1

0

2

RRB Total

1580

505

297

895

388

3665

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(VACANCY DETAILS) RRB NTPC (CEN No. 01/2019) Exam : RRB Malda



(VACANCY DETAILS) RRB NTPC (CEN No. 01/2019) Exam : RRB Malda



RRB Malda :

 

Cat. No.

 

Name of the Post

 

Level

 

Rly./ PU

 

UR

 

SC

 

ST

 

OBC

 

EWS

 

Total

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(6)

(7)

(8)

(9)

(10)

1

Commercial Apprentice

6

SER

8

1

2

3

1

15

2

Station Master

 

6

ER

45

13

6

14

9

87

SER

32

11

5

19

7

74

3

Goods Guard

 

5

ER

61

22

11

38

14

146

SER

64

23

11

41

15

154

5

Senior Clerk Cum Typist

5

ER

14

4

3

8

4

33

SER

23

8

3

14

5

53

6

Senior Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk

 

5

ER

64

7

5

5

10

91

SER

38

13

6

23

8

88

9

Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk

 

3

ER

26

8

4

15

7

60

SER

26

3

5

14

5

53

 

11

Junior Clerk Cum Typist

 

2

ER

26

8

5

17

7

63

SER

45

16

8

29

11

109

13

Trains Clerk

2

ER

4

2

1

2

1

10

SER

4

1

0

2

0

7

RRB Total

480

140

75

244

104

1043

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Disclaimer: RRB EXAM PORTAL वेबसाइट किसी भी प्रकार से रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB) के साथ संबद्ध नहीं है, रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड एवं भारतीय रेलवे की आधिकारिक वेबसाइट पर जाने के लिए www.rrcb.gov.in पर विजिट करें |

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