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(Notification) RRB TEACHER Exam : CENTRALISED NOTICE CEN: 07/2024



(Notification) RRB TEACHER Exam : CENTRALISED NOTICE CEN: 07/2024



Railway wise summary of vacancies for various posts are furnished below for immediate reference. Further,the parameters(Qualification, Medical standard and Suitability of the post for PwBD etc) of various posts included in the CEN is at Annexure A and Railway and post wise vacancy for all the notified posts is at Annexure B. However, Railway reserves the right to revise this assessment in part or full. 

Post Detail :

Post Name

UR

OBC

SC

ST

EWS

Total

Junior Stenographer (Hindi)

100

60

35

15

20

230

Junior Stenographer (English)

90

55

30

15

18

208

Junior Translator (Hindi)

70

40

25

10

12

157

Chief Law Assistant

40

25

15

07

08

95

Cook

30

15

10

05

05

65

Photographer

20

10

06

04

03

43

Post Graduate Teacher (PGT)

25

12

07

03

03

50

Trained Graduate Teacher (TGT)

50

25

15

07

08

105

Physical Training Instructor

15

08

05

02

02

32

Staff & Other Isolated Posts

60

30

20

10

10

130

Total

500

280

168

78

89

1115

Education Qualification: 

(A) Master Degree from a recognized University with atleast 50% marks in aggregate in History.
(B) B.Ed. or equivalent degree from recognised University.
(C) Proficiency in teaching in English medium.

Desirable: Knowledge of computer applications.

Age : (as on 01.01.2025)

  • Minimum- 18 Years
  • Maximum-48 Years

Exam Fee :

SL. No.

Candidate Categories

Fee

1

For  all  candidates  except  the  fee  concession  categories  mentioned  below  at Sl.No.2 Out of this fee of Rs 500 an amount of Rs 400 shall be refunded in due course duly deducting bank charges as applicable on appearing in CBT.

Rs.500/-

2

For  PwBD  /  Female  /Transgender/  Ex-Servicemen  candidates  and  candidates belonging to SC/ST/Minority Communities/ Economically Backward Class.

*This fee of Rs 250 shall be refunded in due course duly deducting bank charges as applicable on appearing in CBT.

Rs.250/-*

Scale of Pay :

Level 1 of 7th CPC Pay Matrix

RECRUITMENT PROCESS :

There shall be a Single Stage Computer Based Test (CBT) followed by Translation Test (TT)/Performance Test (PT)/Teaching Skill Test (TST) (as applicable) and document verification and medical
examination thereafter. RRBs reserve the right to conduct the CBT in Single or multi stage mode.

How to Apply :

a) Click on the Apply: (Create an Account / and already have an Account). During the ONLINE APPLICATION, candidates will be asked to ‘Create Account’. If a candidate has already created an Account for CENs notified in 2024, they should use same account credentials to log in and apply for this CEN as well. If the candidates have not created an Account earlier, they must first ‘Create an Account’ before proceeding to fill up the application for this CEN. Candidates are advised to fill in the details required for account creation with utmost care, as corrections of any kind will not be permitted once the account is created. Details filled in the ‘Create an Account’ form (including mobile number and Email ID) cannot be modified at any stage once the account is created. 

b) Registration Details: Enter your name, Date of Birth and Father‘s name as per Para 1.7 of General Instructions, Mother‘s Name, Aadhaar Number, SSLC/Matric Roll Number, Year of Passing, Mobile Number and email-ID and then submit for registration. Before submitting for registration, ensure and confirm that all the information furnished above are correct, as the details furnished for registration cannot be changed later. Please note that the email ID and mobile number used for the Registration must be yours and unique. Also note that both the email and mobile number will be verified during the Online Application process with a One Time Password (OTP). 

c) Verification of email ID and mobile number through OTP: On submitting the primary details, OTPs shall be sent to the registered mobile number and email. The candidate should retrieve the OTPs from email and Mobile and then enter OTPs to proceed with the filling up of application and to make payment through OTP “Activation Link”

d) On successful OTP activation, Registration Number will be generated and sent on registered email ID and mobile number. Candidates should note and preserve their Registration Number for later reference during the recruitment process and RRB will not entertain any request seeking registration number. Before final submission of application, candidates are advised, in their own interest to authenticate their identity using Aadhaar during the “Create an Account" stage. If they miss this step, they can still authenticate Aadhaar during the process of filling the details in online application by using the “Verify Aadhaar" facility after providing their Aadhaar details. This action will facilitate a smoother process at different stages of recruitment for the candidates. 

e) Candidates can proceed with the online application by clicking on the “Candidate Login” button on the Home Page using the Registration Number and password. In the Part-I of application page, provide the details of Educational Qualification, Community i.e. UR/OBC (NCL)/SC/ST/EWS, Gender, Religion, Ex SM, PwBD, Minority, Economically Backward Class and Age Relaxation eligibility category as applicable and other details. 

f) Payment and Bank Account Details: On completion of application details as above, the candidate will be directed to the payment page to choose payment mode i.e. Bank (Online Net Banking/Credit Card/Debit Card/UPI explained in Para 7.0 and complete the payment process. Chose the mode of payment and complete the payment process. If there is a failure of online payments, the candidate has to make another transaction. Please note the last date and time specified for each mode of payment and submit the application well in time. 

g) In the Part-II of application page, candidate has to indicate their priority/preference of the posts. Set priority / preferences for posts: If the candidate is eligible for more than one post based on his/her educational qualification and other details furnished, he/she must set the priority/preferences for these posts. The list of posts (in the chosen RRB) for which a candidate is eligible is displayed. Similarly, if the chosen RRB has vacancies for more than one Railway/Production Unit, then vacancies for all such Railways/Production Units for which a candidate is eligible, will be listed out. The candidate should fill their priority/preferences number in the textbox against each post that they are eligible for, in the RRB they are applying to. 

h) Scribe for PwBD Candidates: Indicate option for scribe if you are a PwBD candidate and eligible for scribe. In case of persons with benchmark disabilities in the category of Blindness, Locomotor Disability (Both Arm affected – BA) and Cerebral Palsy, the facility of scribe shall be given, if so desired by the person. The candidate can avail the assistance of scribe after submission of letter of undertaking as per Annexure-V(D) at the examination centre. In case of other category of persons with benchmark disabilities, the provision of scribe can be allowed on production of a certificate to the effect that the person concerned has physical limitation to write and scribe is essential to write examination on his behalf, from the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Medical Superintendant of a Government Health Care institution. 
The candidate can avail the assistance of scribe after producing the certificate as per Annexure-V(G) and submission of letter of undertaking as per Annexure-V(D) at the examination centre. The PwBD persons having less than 40% disability (covered under the definition of Section 2(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act) and having difficulty in writing can also avail the assistance of scribe for writing answers on their behalf after producing the certificate as per Annexure-V(E) and submission of letter of undertaking as per Annexure-V(F) at the examination centre. In case you have firmed up the scribe, then enter the details of scribe such as name, father‘s name, educational qualification etc. The scribe so arranged should not himself/herself be the candidate for the notification for which the candidate is appearing and same scribe should not be engaged for more than one candidate.

i) Detailed Educational Qualification: Furnish all the relevant information on the qualification as required in the application.

j) Choice of Exam Language: English is the default language. In case the candidate wishes to choose any other language,then the same can be selected from the drop down list of languages. The languages listed are Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Oriya, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu. In case of any difference/ discrepancy/dispute in the Questions between English and the opted language, the content of English version shall prevail. 

k) Complete the balance fields e.g. Mother Tongue, Moles/Identification Marks, Address etc.

l) Bank Account Details for Refund: Candidates who attend 1st Stage CBT are eligible for refund of examination fee as per details in Para 7.0. All candidates who have given the confirmation to receive their refund to the account from which they have made the application fee payment, need not fill these details and hence, this will not be visible for them. Only those candidates who do not wish to receive the refund in the account through which they paid examination fee should provide the details of Beneficiary Account in which they wish to receive the refund viz. Beneficiary Name, Account Number, Name of Bank and IFSC Code in the Online Application. 

m) Candidates may indicate their consent or otherwise for sharing the scores obtained by them in RRB exams with other Ministries/Departments/PSUs and Private organizations, for recruitment in their organizations.

n) Photographand SignatureUpload:
(i) Candidate will be automatically directed to “Photo and Signature Upload” part of the application.

Submission of Application:

In the end candidates have to confirm the declaration “I hereby declare that I have gone through the eligibility criteria for the post(s) applied for and meet all the requirements therein, that all the details furnished by me in the application are true and complete to the best of my knowledge & belief and nothing has been concealed or suppressed. I also understand that in case, any of the details furnished is found untrue during any stage of recruitment or thereafter, RRB shall disqualify me for the post(s) applied for and /or I shall be liable for any other action under the extant rules”. 

After confirming the above declaration and submission of the application, the candidate may save the file as ‘PDF’ and/or take print of the application and preserve it for reference and record.

Important Date :

Date of Publication

06/01/2025

Opening date & time of online registration of Applications

07/01/2025 (00:00 Hrs)

Closing date & time for online submission of Applications

06/02/2025 (23:59 Hrs)

Closing date & time for Application fee payment after closing date for online submission of Applications i.e. 22.02.2025 (23:59 hrs)

07/02/2025 to 08/02/2025

Date & time for Modification window for corrections  in application form with payment of modification fee.

(Please   Note:  Details  filled  in  ‘Create  an  Account’   form  and ‘Chosen Railway’ cannot be modified)

09/02/2025 to 18/02/2025

Click Here To Download Official Notification

(E-BOOKS) for RRB Exams

Courtesy : RRB

 

(Download) RRB : Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers-18-DECEMBER-2024 SHIFT-3

(Download) RRB : Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers-18-DECEMBER-2024 SHIFT-3

EXAM NAME Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers

EXAM DATE : 18 Dec 2024

SHIFT : 3

MEDIUM : English

Q.1 Evaluate: 33 ÷ 9 × 3 - 2 × 3
Ans 1. 8
2. 5
3. 7
4. 4

Q.2 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.
(Left) 3 & ^ 5 7 # 9 % 8 * 4 < 1 $ 2 @ * 6 (Right) 
How many such symbols are there which are immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by another number?
Ans 1. 5
2. 4
3. 3
4. 2
Q.3 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?
HFC JHE LJG NLI ?
Ans 1. PMK
2. PNK
3. PML
4. PNL

Q.4 The Indigo Rebellion took place in _______ during 1859-1860.
Ans 1. Madras
2. Bengal
3. Punjab
4. Bombay

Q.5 Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule is used to determine _________.

Ans 1. the amount of current flowing through the conductor
2. the strength of the magnetic field
3. the direction of force on a current-carrying conductor
4. the magnitude of the force on a current-carrying conductor

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EXAM NAME Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers

EXAM DATE : 18 Dec 2024

SHIFT : 2

MEDIUM : English

Q.1 A man sold an article for ₹360 by first giving a d% discount on its marked price, and then another discount having the same nominal value (in ₹). If the marked price of the article is ₹2250, then what is the value of d?
Ans 1. 41
2. 38
3. 42
4. 45

Q.2 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of ::? 
# : UOK :: HBX : %
Ans 1. # = TJF, % = MGC
2. # = PJF, % = NGC
3. # = PJF, % = MGO
4. # = PJF, % = MGC

Q.3 The marks scored by 10 students are given below. 
18, 13, 14, 18, 14, 17, 15, 11, 13, 18 The mode of the data is:

Ans 1. 13
2. 18
3. 14
4. 11

Q.4 What does the thumb represent in Fleming's Right-Hand Rule?
Ans 1. Direction of motion
2. Direction of voltage
3. Direction of magnetic field
4. Direction of induced current

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EXAM NAME Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers

EXAM DATE : 18 Dec 2024

SHIFT : 1

MEDIUM : English

Q.1 Write the expanded form of (6a + 2b + 7c)2.
Ans 1. 36a2 + 4b2 + 49c2 + 28ab + 28bc + 84ac
2. 36a2 + 4b2 + 49c2 + 24ab + 28bc + 94ac
3. 36a2 + 4b2 + 49c2 + 24ab + 23bc + 84ac
4. 36a2 + 4b2 + 49c2 + 24ab + 28bc + 84ac

Q.2 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 
34 ÷ 33 × 22 + 19 − 40 = ?

Ans 1. 74
2. 72
3. 73
4. 70

Q.3 Two sets of numbers are given below. In each set of numbers, certain mathematical operation(s) on the first number result(s) in the second number. Similarly, certain mathematical operation(s) on the second number result(s) in the third number and so on. Which of the given options follows the same set of operations as in the given sets?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) 19-57-114-134; 21-63-126-146 

Ans 1. 18-54-108-118
2. 17-51-102-112
3. 20-60-120-180
4. 16-48-96-116

Q.4 Tapan starts from Point A and drives 8 km towards the south. He then takes a right turn,drives 5 km, turns right and drives 12 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 9 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.) 

Ans 1. 4 km to the west
2. 7 km to the west
3. 5 km to the west
4. 6 km to the west

Q.5 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1) Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam was introduced in 2023.
2) Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam ensures 33% reserved seats for women in the Parliament, Legislative Assemblies and Delhi Assembly.
3) Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam will be in force for 10 years only.

Ans 1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 3
4. 1 and 2

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EXAM NAME Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers

EXAM DATE : 17 Dec 2024

SHIFT : 3

MEDIUM : English

Q.1 Which scientist(s) established the laws of Inheritance?
Ans 1. Watson and Crick
2. Charles Darwin
3. Gregor Johann Mendel
4. Thomas Hunt Morgan

Q.2 Find the value of 1.356+4.25X8-3.562X6+7.5X4
Ans 1. 41.625
2. 42.237
3. 43.012
4. 43.984

Q.3 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
86 78 64 56 42 34 ?
Ans 1. 20
2. 22
3. 26
4. 28

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EXAM NAME Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers

EXAM DATE : 17 Dec 2024

SHIFT : 2

MEDIUM : English

Q.1 Find the simple interest (in closest integral ₹) on ₹4000 at 5.25% per annum rate of interest for the period from 5 February 2024 to 6 April 2024
Ans 1. 33
2. 34
3. 36
4. 35

Q.2 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the Annual Financial Statement 2024-25?
1) The Budget 2024-25 will focus on four castes.
2) 1 crore farmers across the country will be initiated into natural farming, supported by certification and branding in the next 2 years.
3) 20,000 need-based bio-input resource centres to be established.
4) 1,000 Industrial Training Institutes will be upgraded in hub and spoke arrangements with outcome orientation.
Ans 1. 3 only
2. 4 only
3. 2 only
4. 1 only

Q.3 Which of the following is true about asexual reproduction?
Ans 1. It results in offspring genetically identical to the parent.
2. It requires complex reproductive organs.
3. It requires fertilisation.
4. It involves two parent organisms.

Q.4 What are the number of chromosomes in a human male germ cell?
Ans 1. 46 pairs of Chromosomes
2. 23 pairs of Chromosomes
3. 23 Chromosomes
4. 46 Chromosomes

Q.5 In which language was the classic Indian novel 'Chandrakanta' originally written?
Ans 1. Hindi
2. Bengali
3. Urdu
4. Tamil

Q.6 In Delhi Sultanate, the holder of an ‘iqta’, who also worked as the administrative head of his ‘iqta’, was designated as ________.
Ans 1. ariz
2. wazir
3. qazi
4. muqti

Q.7 A six-digit number is divisible by 91. If 143 is added to this number, the resulting number is divisible by which of the following number?
Ans 1. 13
2. 7
3. 11
4. 91

Q.8 GJBF is related to ILDH in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, JMEI is related to LOGK. To which of the following is MPHL related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. ROJN
2. ORJN
3. ORNJ
4. RONJ

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EXAM NAME Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers

EXAM DATE : 17 Dec 2024

SHIFT : 1

MEDIUM : English

Q.1 An electric fan is connected to a 220 V generator. The current is 0.50 A. What is the power used by the fan?

Ans 1. 110 Watt
2. 11 Watt
3. 440 Watt
4. 220 Watt

Q.2 Find the arithmetic mean of the following data (correct to two places of decimals).

Classinterval 5-15 15-25 25-35 35-45 45-55 55-65
Frequency 12 18 8 14 16 8

Ans 1. 33.68
2. 43.72
3. 22.38
4. 39.45

Q.3 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of ::?
# : RXT :: FLH : %
Ans 1. # = OGT, % = IKH
2. # = GHT, % = INY
3. # = OUP, % = KIU
4. # = OUQ, % = IOK

Q.4 Which of the following rivers is ephemeral?
Ans 1. Beas
2. Chambal
3. Yamuna
4. Luni
 

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EXAM NAME Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers

EXAM DATE : 16 Dec 2024

SHIFT :3

MEDIUM : English

Q.1 Which of the following is true regarding the bud development process in Hydra?
Ans 1. Cell divisions at one site
2. Formation of spore
3. Splitting of cytoplasm
4. Splitting of nucleus

Q.2 When an atom of sodium reacts with an atom of chlorine to form sodium chloride, each sodium atom:
Ans 1. gains one electron
2. gains one proton
3. loses one electron
4. loses one proton

Q.3 If at same rate of interest, in 2 years, the simple interest is ₹56 and compound interest is ₹72, then what is the principal (in ₹)?
Ans 1. 53
2. 42
3. 49
4. 44

Q.4 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 4835176, what will be the sum of the digits which are second from the left and second from the right?
Ans 1. 10
2. 12
3. 11
4. 14

Q.5 Which of the following chemical equations is balanced?
Ans 1. 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
2. H₂ + 2O₂ → 2H₂O
3. H₂ + O₂ → H₂O
4. H₂O + O₂ → H₂O₂

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EXAM NAME Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers

EXAM DATE : 16 Dec 2024

SHIFT : 2

MEDIUM : English

Q.1 Pratap starts from Point A and drives 16 km towards south. He then takes a right turn,drives 13 km, turns right and drives 18 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 18 km.

He takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.) 
Ans 1. 7 km to the west
2. 5 km to the west
3. 3 km to the west
4. 6 km to the west

Q.2 If the Radius hamisphere is increse by 50% the find the percentage increse the volume.
Ans 1. 112.5%
2. 150%
3. 125%
4. 137.5%

Q.3 Sangeeta and Hemlata invest in a business in the ratio 1 : 3. If total profit is Rs. 2568,then what is difference between the profit (in Rs.) of Sangeeta and Hemlata?
Ans 1. 1384
2. 1284
3. 1184
4. 1334

Q.4 The length of each of the two equal sides of an isosceles triangle is 89 cm each and the length of its base is 78 cm. The area (in cm2) of the triangle is:
Ans 1. 3120
2. 3134
3. 3102
4. 3139

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EXAM NAME Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Papers

EXAM DATE : 16 Dec 2024

SHIFT : 1

MEDIUM : English

Q.1 SKIB is related to OGNG in a certain way based on the English alphabecal order.
In the same way, CUCV is related to YQHA. To which of the following opons is QIRK related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. MWEP
2. MWPE
3. MEPW
4. MEWP

Q.2 The magnetic field inside a long, straight solenoid carrying current is ____________.
Ans 1. uniform and parallel to the axis of the solenoid
2. inversely proportional to the current
3. zero
4. stronger near the edges

Q.3 Which of the following materials is likely to be non-biodegradable?
Ans 1. Paper
2. Plastic
3. Vegetable peels
4. Wood

Q.4 Which of the following articles deals with the Finance Commission that distributes taxes between the Centre and State?
Ans 1. Article 281
2. Article 283
3. Article 282
4. Article 280

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