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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : CHIEF LOCO INSPECTOR - DIESEL, OFFICIAL LANGUAGE - DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : CHIEF LOCO INSPECTOR - DIESEL,
OFFICIAL LANGUAGE - DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS
 
Official Language - Descriptive Questions
 
1      When was official language act formed?
2      Write the communication procedure between „A‟ and „B‟ region central govt. officers.
3      Write the communications procedure between central govt. and state government offices of various regions.
4      Write the communications procedure between state govt. offices of various regions.
5      What are the states in „A‟, „B‟ and „C‟ regions?
6      Write short notes on proficiency in Hindi.
7      Write short notes on working knowledge on Hindi.
8      Write short notes on manuals, codes other Literature articles of …. etc. to be maintained in relation to official language act.
9      What are examinations will be held for improving Hindi and explain them briefly.
10    What are the incentives to be given to clerks in encouraging Hindi?
11    What are the incentives to be given to stenographers in encouraging Hindi?
12    What are the awards established for promoting Official language?
13    What is the importance on forming of official language?
14    Write your suggestions to improve the implementation of official language.

 

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : CHIEF LOCO INSPECTOR - DIESEL LOCOMOTIVES - FILL IN THE BLANKS

RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : CHIEF LOCO INSPECTOR
- DIESEL LOCOMOTIVES - FILL IN THE BLANKS
 

Diesel Locomotives - Fill in the Blanks :

1.         Foot pedal switch is provided for__________.Purpose of main generators  in locomotive  is___________and___________.

2.         If auxiliary generator fails_____________Indication will  come  and  work  for______________Hrs  and Engine not  to be____________.

3.         PCS  will  get  knocked  out  by _________ and ______________ valves operated.        

4.         In one and third (1st  & 3rd) transition_________relay will pick up and_____________ contactors will close.

5.         To pick up R1 contactor____________switch to be closed and there by______________will start working.

6.         SAR relay is located in _____________type locos and ERR is located in___________type of locos.

7.         On run if pinion slips______ relay will operate and  if  traction  motor  cable rubbed  with  loco  body ________________relay will pick up.

8.         On run  if  anyone  traction  motor   defective _________normal working and ____________should not be used. to  be  done  for

9.         Alarm  gang  will  operate  for_____________safety devices   operated   and   buzzer will  operate   for _____________safety device operation.

10.       If  transition  relay (TR)  pick  up___________contactors will drop and____________contactors will pick up.

 

 

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : CHIEF LOCO INSPECTOR - DIESEL, G&SR/ACCIDENT MANUAL - FILL IN THE BLANKS

RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : CHIEF LOCO INSPECTOR - DIESEL,
G&SR/ACCIDENT MANUAL - FILL IN THE BLANKS
 

G&SR/Accident Manual - Fill in the Blanks

1.  Accidents are classified into ------- categories and they are -----------------------------------.

2.  Train accidents are divided into ------ parts and they are ---------------.

3.  Loss of railway property above Rs………… is treated as serious accident.

4.  Consequential  train  accidents  that  are  reportable  to Railway Board Safety Directorate are ----------.

5.  General target time for turning out ART during day / night is ------ minutes.

6.  General target time for turning out MRV with direct  / indirect despatch facility is ------ minutes.

7.  Composition of MRV is ------- and -----------.

8.  Mock drill for ART / MRV shall be conducted once in ------- in case they are not moved on account of accidents.

9.  ----------- is the ex-gratia to be paid in case of death/ serious injury / simple injury in train accidents.

10. ----------- is the ex-gratia to be paid in case of death / serious injury / simple injury at manned LC Gate accidents where prima-facie failure is on Railways.

11. Rs…………….. is the compensation paid in cases of death in train accidents.

12. Accident siren three long, one short indicate --------------.

13. Accident siren four long, one short indicate ---------------.

14. ----- is the duration of long siren and ------ is the duration of short siren.

15. Threshold  value  of  Railway property loss  is  fixed  at Rs……….

16. In the event of breakdown of control telephone, trains shall be   given  precedence  over  each other - in that process running of Goods trains takes ----------- place.

17. Block instrument bell code 000000 indicate ------.

18. Block instrument bell code 000000 - 000 indicate ------.

19. BCC and PCC is valid for a period of ------------.

20. As a temporary measure when DSTE/ADSTE issue BCC for Signal Maintainers, such BCC is valid for ------- and such extension is limited to ------------.

21.Acknowledgement for block bell beat, if not received from the station adjacent, the code shall be repeated after a lapse of --------.

22. Single and double line TSR No. is -------------.

23. The TSR of the station shall be checked and signed by the SM in-charge of the station---------.

24. TSR shall be retained in the station after its completion for a period of ------------------.

25. Outlying Sidings are identified by ------- mark board.

26. PN  Sheets  shall  be  preserved  in  the  station  after  its completion for a period of ------------------.

27. --------- is the block instrument bell code for „cancel last signal‟.

28. ------------- is the block instrument bell code for „stop and examine the train‟.

29. When SM observes a train running through his station without LV board / Tail lamp during day / night, he shall give ------------ bell code to SM in advance and -----------

KEY

1.  5, Train accidents, Yard accidents, Indicative accidents, Equipment Failure and Unusual incidences.

2.  Two parts,  they are Consequential  train  accidents  and Other Train Accidents.

3.  2,00,00, 000/-

4.  A1 to A4, B1 to B4, C1 to C4, D1 to D4 and E1

5.  30 / 45

6.  15 / 20

7.  Medical Van, Auxiliary Van

8.  Quarter

9.  Rs. 15,000/- / Rs. 5,000/- / Rs. 500/-

10. Rs. 6,000/- / Rs. 2,500/- / NIL

11. Rs. 4,00,000/-

12. Out station accident, mainline clear, MRV required.

13. Out station accident, mainline blocked, MRV required.

14. 30 seconds , 5 seconds

15. Rs. 1,00,000/-.

16. 11th place

17. Obstruction danger signal

18. Train parted or divided

19. Three years

20. One year, only once

21. Not less than 20 seconds

22. T.14 for single line and T.15 for double line

23. Daily

24. One  year  from  the  half  year  ending in  which  it          is completed

25. „S‟ mark board

26. Six  months  from  the half  year  ending in  which  it       is completed

27. 00000

28. 000000 - 0

29. 000000 - 00 to SM in advance and 000000 - 000 to SM in rear.

 

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : CHIEF LOCO INSPECTOR - DIESEL, G&SR/ACCIDENT MANUAL – MCQ

RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : CHIEF LOCO INSPECTOR - DIESEL,
G&SR/ACCIDENT MANUAL – MCQ
 

G&SR/Accident  Manual - Multiple Choice Questions

1. Approved special instructions are issued or approved by___________(C)
(A) COM 
(B)DRM
(C)CRS
(D)Sr DOM
 
2. Special instructions are issued by_________. (A) 
(A).Authorized Officer
(B).Controlling officer
(C).Supervisor in charge
(D).All the above
 
3.___________is the authorized officer of South Central Railway. (B)
(A).CRS
(B) COM
(C).DRM
(D).CSO
 
4.___________is the normal authority to proceed on Single Line token / token less sections. (C)
(A).Starting Memo
(B).T/409
(C).TOKEN/OFF ASPECT OF LSS
(D). None
 
5. On Double line or on Single Line when block instrument is defective_________is given as ATP for the LP. (D)
(A).T/A 912
(B).T/511
(C).T/512
(D).T/C-D 1425
 
6. Block stations under Absolute Block System are sub-classified as_________,____________,_____________, & _____________.(C)
(A).FLAG , CROSSING,NON CROSSING ,RUN THROUGH
(B).REPORTING,NON REPORING ,CLASSIFIED,UNCLSSSIFIED
(C). CLASS A,B,C&D
(D). ALL OF THE ABOVE)
 
7. BOL in TAS and MAS is________ and _________   meters, which shall be reckoned from_______.(B) 
(A).200-180-LSS
(B).400 -180-FSS
(C).120-120-LSS
(D).200-180 -FSS
 
8. SOL in TAS and MAS is __________  and__________meters. (C)
(A). 120-120
(B).400-180
(C).180-120
(D).180-180
 
9. SOL is measured on Single Line from___________and on Double Line from ___________. (A)
(A). Trailing Points-Shunting Limit Board
(B).BSLB-SLB
(C).Trailing Points -BSLB
(D). LB-PB
 
10. The distance from outer signal to outermost facing points on SL shall be ___________  meters. (C)
(A).400
(B).420
(C).580
(D).800
 
 
 

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : CHIEF LOCO INSPECTOR - DIESEL LOCOMOTIVES - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF CHIEF
LOCO INSPECTOR -DIESEL (MECHANICAL DSL)
 
Diesel Locomotives - Multiple Choice Questions
 
1 What  is  the  minimum  Head  light  Focusing  distance required in the locomotives provided with electrical head light? . d
a) 100 meters
b) 1000 meters              
c) 2000 meters
d) 250 meters and above
 
2 What is the Fuel oil tank capacity in WDP1 locomotive in litres? c
a) 4000 b) 5000
c) 3000 c) 2000
 
3 When OPS drops or LLOB trips, the engine will_____ . b
a) Raise b) Shutdown
c) Comes to Idle d) Hunting
 
4 Expressor lube oil pump is driven by____. b
a) Gear
b) Chain
c) Motor
d) Belt
 
5 The exhaust manifold is connected to______part of the TSC. a
a) Gas Inlet Casing
b) Intermediate Casing
c) Turbine Casing
d) Blower Casing 
 
6 One  of  the  following  is  the  equipment  in  Nose compartment .c
a) MR1
b) MR2
c) Control   air   pressure reservoir
d) All the above
 
7 How many Power Contactors are available in  WDG4 Locomotive? .d
a) 7
b) 9 
c) 8
d) 0
 
8 What  is  the  Lube oil  capacity(in  litres)  in  WDP1 locomotives? a
a) 760
b) 910
c) 1100
d) 1457
 
9 If white smoke is emitting from exhaust chimney, what could be the reason? a
A) Water  mixed  with  fuel
b) Governor oil mixed with fuel
c) Lube oil mixed with fuel
d) None of these oil
 
11 Water leaking continuously from water telltale pipe .b
a) Dummy it  and  work
b) Fail the loco further
c) Do fast pumping
d) Work on lower notches
 
12 Cooling Water capacity in WDM2 locomotive is liters..d
a) 900
b) 910 
c) 1300
d) 1210
 
13 The rundown test of NAPIER Turbo is to be conducted on_______notch. a
a) Idle
b) 4
c) 6
d) 2
 
14 During one of the following occasions Hot engine alarm indication will get c
a) Continuous 8th  notch working
b) Excess load
c) Water pump not working expansion tank  
d) Full water in
 
15 The lube oil   consumption   for   every 100   liters consumption of fuel on  WDM2/WDG4 is b
a) 1.7/1.0 ltrs
b) 1.5/0.5 ltrs 
c) 1.6/0.7 ltrs
d) 1.0/0.3 ltrs
 
16 ………………..type  of   speedometer   is   available on WDG4. b
a) Mechanical
b) Radar Sensor
c) Electrical
d) Electronic
 
17 The more Oxygenated Air is required for better_______ . b
a) Control air pressure
b) Combustion  of fuel
c) Braking
d) Cooling
 
18 Hot engine alarm (HEA) will come at ______ degrees centigrade in WDG3A locos. c
a) 60
b) 70
c) 90
d) 80
 
19 Electro Pneumatic Governor is located in c
a) Expressor room
b) Radiator room
c) Nose compartment
d) Rear compartment
 
20 During the MR air pressure efficiency test ___kg /cm2 pressure should be created within minutes. d
 
a) 1.0 , 7
b) 1.5 , 6
c) 0.9 , 8
d) 0.7 , 5
 
 

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : CHIEF LOCO INSPECTOR - DIESEL LOCOMOTIVES-DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF CHIEF
LOCO INSPECTOR -DIESEL (MECHANICAL DSL)
 
Diesel Locomotives - Descriptive Questions
 
1.   How to conduct AIR BRAKE SELF TEST in WDG4 loco?
2.   Write about cab console changing in WDG4 MU.
3.   How to trouble shoot MR drooping in WDP4 loco?
4.   Explain the Cranking and shutdown procedure in WDG4 loco.
5.   How to move WDP4/WDG4 loco as live, banker and DEAD in train?
6.   Write the CRS sanction speeds of WDP4 over GNT Division.
7.   Write the CRS sanction speeds of WDP1 over GNT Division.
8.   Write the CRS sanction speeds of WDM2 over GNT Division.
9.   Write the isolation of TCC1 in WDP4 step wise operation of EM2000.
10.  Write about AUTO FLASHER LIGHT.
11.  How Air Dryer function in DSL locomotive?
12.  Write about AIR FLOW INDICATOR.
13.  Write BP charging and destruction and recharging in WDM2 loco.
14.  Write the independent brake working in WDM2 loco.
15.  Write about C2 relay valves function in the loco barking system.
16.  Draw the circuit and explain load meter not responding.
17.  Draw the circuit and explain Throttle not responding
18.  Write the details of important modifications issued by RDSO.
19.  Draw the circuit and explain Engine not cranking.
20.  Draw the circuit and explain Engine cranking but not firing.
21.  Draw the circuit and explain Engine firing but not holding.
22.  Write about power ground.
23.  How to detect defective traction motor (continuous wheel slip).
24.  Write about MU32B valve.
25.  Write about F1 selector valve.
26.  What are the circumstances Dynamic brake should be avoided?
27.  Reasons for HOT engine and how to work the train?
28.  Write about the TEN tests to be conducted while taking over charge.
29.  Write the fuel oil system in WDP4 with neat sketch.
30.  Explain MR system in WDP4/WDG4 Locos with neat sketch.
31.  How will you trouble shoot in case of GR power/GR dynamic in WDP4/ WDG4 Locos?
32.  Write short notes about 1) AC control beaker 2) control breaker 3) Local control breaker in WDP4/WDG4 Locos. 4)Turbo Lube pump breaker.
33.  Write short Notes about 1) Radar 2) EPD-Engine protection device 3) Ejector 4) Pressure Cap. in case of WDP4/WDG4 Locos.
34. Trouble shoot 1) Loss of train Line pressure  2) Low MR equalizing Pressure.
35.  Write short Notes about 1) Return sight glass 2) Bypass sight glass 3) creep control 4) L/T switch.
36.  How to conduct load rest in case of WDP4/WDG4 Locos?
37.  Write Functioning and purpose of Flange lubrication system in WDP4/ WDG4 Locos.
 

 

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : CHIEF LOCO INSPECTOR - DIESEL, G&SR/ACCIDENT MANUAL - DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF CHIEF
LOCO INSPECTOR -DIESEL (MECHANICAL DSL)
 
G&SR/Accident Manual - Descriptive Questions
 
1 Write the essentials of absolute block systems.
2 Write the essentials of automatic block system.
3 Which trains can be dispatched to open communication in single line during total interruption of Communications?
4 What is station section and block section?
5 Write the station section of B-class station multiple aspect signals in double line.
6 Write the station section of B-class station multiple aspect signals in single line.
7 Write the station section of B-class station two aspect signals in double line.
8 Write the station section of C-class station multiple aspects in double line.
9 Write the conditions to grant line clear in B-class station double line.
10 Write the conditions to grant line clear in A-class station.
11 Write the conditions to grant line clear in C-class station.
12 Explain block overlap and signal overlap.
13 What type of abnormalities will come under breach of block rules?
14 What is block back and block forward?
15 Explain how a train can be received in to an obstructed line.
16 Explain how a train can be received into an unsignalled line.
17 How to distinguish the general rule and subsidiary rule?
18 Write about subsidiary signals.
19 What is a Repeating Signal and Signal Repeater?
20 What are the minimum equipment of signals to be provided in A-class, B- class and C-class stations?
21 Write about exchanging of alright signals.
22 Write the procedure to work a train without guard.
23 Write the procedure to work a train without brake van.
24 Write the significance for provision of IB signal. Explain how the signal is provided with diagram and write how to pass IB signal at ON.
25 Write about detonating signals.
26 Write about fuse signals.
27 Write about block section limit board and shunting limit board.
28 Write about various engineering indicators come across while working a train.
29 Write about Stop-board, S-board, W-board, W/L-board, W/B-board and shunting warning board.
30 Write how to pass an automatic signal at „ON‟ in double line and single line.
31 How the communications will be opened in single line during total interruption of communications?
32 How the trains can be worked in automatic block system if prolonged failure of automatic signals?
33 How the train can be secured in block section and station section?
34 What are the precautions to be taken while working material train?
35 How to clear the front portion and leftover portion from block section?
36      How many types of shunting available and explain each of them.
37 Write about the responsibilities for supervising the shunting.
38 How many types of interlocking are available? Explain each of them.
39 What are the occasions to issue a caution order? How it will be prepared and served?
40 Write about station working rules.
41 Write about various types of ODCs working.
42 How the wagons containing explosives and inflammables will be marshalled in various trains?
43 Which is the circumstance called as total interruption of communication and in double line how the trains can be dealt?
44 Write about the duties of loco pilot in case loco unable to haul the load.
45 Write the duties of loco pilot in case of train parting.
46 How the trains will be worked in case one line obstructed in double line.
47 How a damaged vehicle can be cleared?
48 How you will guide the loco pilot to clear the stalled train from the peak of the gradient?
49 A train arrived to BZA by 120 min. late. BZA-MAS is the last lap of its journey. Engg. Allowance is 34 min, traffic allowance is 48 min. and loco allowance is 32 min. Explain how the train can be gained punctuality.
50 Write about the indications of accident siren and in case of siren defect how the communication is dealt.
51 How the railway accidents are categorized?
52 How a run-over case is dealt?
53 Write short notes on block ticket.
54 Write the conditions for taking off home signal.
55 Write about point indicator and trap indicator.
56 Write about how a stop signal can be passed at ON.
57 What are the duties of loco pilot in absence of fixed signal?
58 Write about the hand signals.
59 Write the duties of loco pilot in case of accident.
60 Why signal warning boards are necessary and where they are provided?
61 What are the duties of loco pilot while starting from an originating station?
62 How the guard can be intimated by the loco pilot to protect the train in rear in case unable to proceed further?
63 How the engineering indicators will be provided in case of various speed restrictions within 200 meters at same spot?
64 How many types of working systems existing and among them which are available in S. C. Railway?
65 How an automatic gate signal will be passed at ON?
66 What are the occasions to back the train and what is the procedure be followed?
67 How a semi automatic signal will be passed at „ON‟?
68 How many types of freight train BPCs are available and explain them.
69 What are the communications available between loco pilot and guard?
70 What are the various injuries related to accident manual and explain each of them.
71.     How the train can be worked in case explosion in track or train?
72 What are the instructions regarding the usage of portable field telephone?
73 How many types of signals available?
74 How a train can be dealt on calling on signal?
75 How many types of repeating signals available and explain each of them.
76 What are the signals that cannot be used for shunting operation?
77 If two home signals are placed on same post, explain to which route they belong.
78 Why signal sighting committee is needed and what is the periodicity of inspections?
79 Write the duties of loco pilot on seeing a flasher light on adjacent line.
80 Write the duties of loco pilot in case of explosion of a detonator.
81 How the train can be protected in case of accident in double line absolute block system?
82 How the train can be protected in case of accident in double line automatic block system?
83 How the  train  can  be  protected  during the  total  interruption  of communication in single line absolute block system?
84 How the train can be protected on double line during total interruption of communication?
85 How the train can be stopped on out of course at station in automatic block system?
86 What are the duties of loco pilot when train detained at first stop signal?
87 What are the precautions to be taken when moving a C-class ODC in electrified section?
88 How the trains can be dealt during struck up of permissible signal in OFF aspect?
89 What are the authorities will be given in single line to perform shunting at various occasions provided with push button type block instrument?
90 What is the authority to perform shunting in double line multiple aspect signals at various occasions?
91 Write the differences between position light shunt signals and shunting permitted indicator. 
92 How a train can be dispatched from an un-signaled line?
93 How the train can be passed on a weld failure / rail fracture or multiple rail fracture?
94 How a work spot having stop and start will be protected by engineer- ing indicators?
95 Which type of indicative accident is reportable by telephone to Railway Board by the Zonal Railway and by the Division to the Zonal Railway?
96 Who is the accepting authority for all other Consequential Train Acci- dent, except UMLC accidents?
97 What is the station section at a Class  „B‟ station with Multiple Aspect Signals on double line?
98 What is the authority required for performing shunting beyond outer most facing point/BSLB on a double line class „B‟ station?
99      “Dispatch a message from a block station intimating the block station immediately in rear on a double line or either side on a single line that the block section is obstructed or being obstructed”. What is this?

 

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : CHIEF LOCO INSPECTOR - DIESEL, GENERAL- DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF CHIEF
LOCO INSPECTOR -DIESEL (MECHANICAL DSL)
 
General Descriptive Questions
 
1 What are the duties of Loco Inspector, being as first official to accident site?
2 How you counsel Loco Pilots to avoid Train Partings?
3 What are track parameters affect the running of a train?
4 What are the measurements to be taken in derailed Loco?
5 What are the measurements to be taken in derailed coach?
6 How an accident message will be given and explain with the contents?
7 Explain how excess twist will cause an accident with diagram?
8 What are the parameters to be taken on track during derailment?
9 What are parameters available in strip chart of SPM and how they can be read?
10 Write various oscillations that happen in locomotives while on run with brief explanation of each?
11 What is the procedure to be followed if any Railway Staff found in drunken state while “Sign-ON” and “Sign-OFF”?
12 How can the Overtime be reduced?
13 How can PAD and PDD be reduced?
14 What is the importance of implementation of 10-hrs duty Rule?
15 Write about categorization and monitoring of Loco Pilots?
16 How will you conduct a fact finding inquiry if loco hit a foreign body being a first official to the spot?
17 Define the following:
a) Railway Accident
b) Consequent Accident
c) Indicative Accident
d) Yard derailment
18 What various types of inquires are held to investigate into Railway accident?
19 How the periodical medical examination and psychological test of staff contribute towards improved safety in train operations?
20 Describe some of the mechanical / electrical safety devices recently introduced for better safety in train operation?
21 How does the monitoring and periodical screening of staff help in reducing accidents?
22 What are your suggestions to improve safety consciousness among the running staff to reduce the train accidents?
23 What are the duties of Power Controllers?
24 What are the duties of Crew Controllers at Crew lobbies and in Control organisation?
25 Being a first official to the accident spot of manned level crossing gate how will you deal the situation?
26 Being a first official to the accident spot of train passed a stop signal at “ON”, how you will deal the situation?
27 Write about payment wages act, minimum wages act and workmen’s Compensation Act (WCA).
28 What are the factors which will not come under WCA during accident for payment of  compensation?
29 What are the duties of supervisor in case of on duty injury or disablement of an employee?
30 How the assessment of Mail & Express and passenger Crew will be done?
31 Write short notes about factory act?
32 What are norms to be kept in mind while preparing loco links and explain with illustration?
33 What are norms to be kept in mind while preparing crew links and explain with illustration?
34 What are the advantages of air brake over vacuum brake?
35 In a Diesel Loco Shed, 160 WDM2 locos are available. How much outage can be given to goods if coaching requirement is 41?
36 What are the services / movements come under ineffective outage?
37 How many employees are required if 2 members working in a shift of 12 hrs roster and 8 hrs roster?
38 How the assessment of Goods crew will be done?
39 How survey to be conducted at RCD?
40 Write about new JPO of CC+6+2 and CC+8+2.
41 What is ruling gradient and how it is affecting the sectional Load?
42 What is critical block section?
43 What is the procedure to conduct Running Time Trials?
44 How the load trials will be conducted what are factors affecting in fixing of train load?
45 Write the duty at a stretch and rest rules pertaining to Running staff.
46 What are the precautions to be taken while clearing dead locomotives?
47 What are steps to be taken to improve outage in goods service?
48 What are the steps to be taken to improve the average speed?
49 How Fuel Trip Ration Trails shall be conducted and trip ration fixed?
50 Write about RCD and Registers to be maintained at RCDs?
51 How will you counsel a loco pilot to drive a train if 20 KMPH speed restriction at the peak of the gradient?
52 Expand the following:
1) RITES 2) IRCTC 3) CMS 4) RDSO 5) CORE 6) FOIS 7) COIS 8) IVRS
9)  CRIS  10) IRISET
53 Expand the following:
1) BCM 2) TTM 3) SPART 4) TRR 5) TFR 6) TSR 7) PQRS 8) BWM
54 What is fire? How fires are classified and how each fire will be controlled?
55 Write the procedure to be followed to condemn a detonator?
56 What are the reasons for stalling and how you counsel LPs to avoid Stallings?
57 What is combined train report?
58 Write about Working time table and passenger time table and why skip time is necessary?
59 Write the types of passes available in Railways to the Railway employees and Write the entitlement restrictions of various passes to running staff?
60 What is school pass and by whom it will be issued?
61 Who are eligible for inclusion in privilege pass?
62 If wife and husband both are Railway employees for how many passes both are eligible?
63 What is SDP and for what distance it can be used?
64 What is “DCP‟ and to whom it will be issued?
65 When a son aged beyond 21 years will be included in a privilege pass?
66 When a daughter is aged beyond 21 years can she be included in a privilege pass?
67 If last year passes issued in current year, till what date it will eligible to travel?
68 What is joining time for first 1000 kms?
69 How many days joining time is admissible during request transfer?
70 What are the restrictions to be followed to suspended employee in respect to promotion?
71 What type of documents can be allowed to examine by the   DE?
72 Write about the documents in respect of DAR cases.
73 Who will be nominated as presenting officer and who will be nominated as inquiry officer?
74 What is periodicity of PME to be followed?
75 What are medical standards to be maintained by a Loco Pilot and Loco Inspector?
76 What are the PME period treated as on duty?
77 What are the occasions can the employee shall be directed for special PME?
78 What action Railway administration has to take if an employee reports after 45days absent?
79 What action Railway administration has to take if an employee reports after 90 days absent?
80 What are the types of leaves existing in Railways?
81 Write about Leave rules.
82 What is the procedure to grant quarantine leave?
83 How many days of LAP/LHAP credited in January?
84 How many days LAP can be enchased?
85 How a sick leave can be commuted?
86 Write short notes on various types of leaves available for railway men?
87 If a person joins in December into Railway service, how many casual leaves he is eligible?
88 Is casual leave can prefix or suffix with any kind of leave?
89 How many days of causal leave eligible to running staff in a calendar year?
90 What is S.O.P in granting of leave by Sr. Supervisor to Running staff and other   staff?
91 Write the duty roster of running staff.
92 List out the categories under HOER and indicate rostered hours of each category?
93 Write the differences between Essentially Intermittent and Continuous categories.
94 Write about PNM and JCM.
95 Distinguish between Excluding and Continuous category.
96 Distinguish between Supernumerary posts and Temporary post.
97 What is assumed attendance?
98 Write short notes on Intensive and Essentially Intermittent category.
99 What are the allowances admissible to running staff?
100 Write short notes on OSDA.
101 What are the minor penalties and major penalties?
102 What is the procedure to impose minor penalty?
103 What is the procedure to impose minor penalty
104 What is the procedure for imposing major penalty?
105 Write model time schedule for progress of major penalty “DAR‟ cases.
106 What are the differences between removal and dismissal?
12307 What is the procedure for procuring non stock items?
108 How many types of indents are there?
109 Procedure for condemnation of pretty items?
110 Write the abbreviations of the following:
1)DAR 2) VC 3) SPE
 

 

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (AC) ESTABLISHMENT, STORES & GENERAL QUESTIONS

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (AC)

 

ESTABLISHMENT, STORES & GENERAL QUESTIONS

A) Objective:

Ranker Section – B Question Bank – General (Common to all Trades)

Each question carries one mark.

1)   Chief Electrical Engineer is the Electrical head of the South Central Railway.

2)  The full form of CESE  is Chief Electrical Service Engineer

3)  Inventory can be in the form of Raw materials, supplies, in process goods .

4)  In computer terminology, LAN stands for Local area network.

5)  I.R.S stands for Indian Railway standard.

6)  21  languages are recognized by the eighth schedule

7)  On passing of which examination conducted by the Hindi Training Scheme, Personal pay will be given Pragya.

8)  Metal Token pass issued to Officers.

9)  Maternity leave can be granted for a maximum period of 180 Days.

10) Maximum LHAP that can be granted at one time 24 Months.

11) RDSO stands for Research, Design and Standards Organisationorganisation.

12) RDSO located at Lucknow.

13) An employee can be deemed suspended, if he is detained in custody for more than 48 hrs reviewed

14)  According to D and AR, commission means UPSC.

15) Railway Board located at New Delhi 

16) Women employees having two minor children may be granted child care leave for a maximum period of 730 days during their entire service.

17) Rejected saleable scrap should be sent to Scrap Depot, Lallaguda.

18) Dismissal is a more serious punishment.

19) PHOD stands for Principle Head of the department.

20) Extraordinary leave can be granted in combination with other leaves except CL.

21) PHOD of the Electrical Department CEE.

22) During Hospital leave full salary is granted for a period of 120 days.

23) During Special Disability leave full salary is granted for a period of 120 days.

24) Head quarters of South Central Railway is located at Secunderabad.

25) SCR stands for South Central Railway.

26) Following leaves can be granted in combination LAP+LHAP+ Commuted leave.

27) For donation of blood one day Special Casual Leave.

28) Decode COFMOW Central Organisation for Modernization of Workshops.

29) Compulsory retirement is a Major penalty.

30) ISO stands for  Institute of Science and Ocean studies.

31) EMS stands for Environmental Management system.

32) ISO 9000 Series deals with QMS.

33) ISO 14000 Series deals with EMS.

34) S1302A indent will be generated, when the value of material is more than Rs. 10,000/-.

35) With holding of the Privilege Passes or Privilege ticket order or both is a Minor penalty.

36) Rs. 2800/- is the grade pay of Technician –I

37) Paternity leave can be granted for a maximum period of 15 days.

38) Periodicity for checking the fire extinguisher 3 months.

39) The term CCA stands for city compensatory allowance.

40) Leave cannot be claimed as a matter of right.

41) The leave sanctioning authority may refuse or revoke of any kind of leave.

42) The leave sanctioning authority cannot alter the kind of leave due and applied for.

43) LAP can be accumulated up to maxim of 300 days.

44) Commuted leave not exceeding half the amount of half pay leave due can be taken on medical certificate.

45) Leave not due during the entire service is limited to maximum of 360 days.

46) The duration of maternity  leave is for 135 days.

47) ISO 9000 Series deals with  QMS

48) ISO 14000 Series deals with EMS

49) ISO 18001 Series deals with OHSAS

50) If attempts are made to make an instrument very sensitive, quality is likely to be impaired is precision.

51) In computer terminology, ID address is computer address

52) In computer terminology, IP stands for Internet protocol

53) In computer terminology, ORACLE is a Database.

54) Hospital leave can be granted for a maximum period of 28 months.

55) In computer terminology, LAN stands for  local area network .

56) In computer terminology, HTTP is an Protocol.

57) I.R.S stands for Indian Railway standard.

58) In computer terminology, IDE is related to HDD.

59) How many languages are recognized by the eighth schedule 21.

60) In computer terminology, Modem is a  Analog to Digital / Digital to Analog converter.

61) Rail wheel factory located at Yelahanka, Bangalore.

62) In computer terminology, ISP is a service provider.

63) In computer terminology, MB stands for mega bytes.

64) In computer terminology, NTFS is a file system.

65) In computer terminology, One kilo byte is equal to 1024 bites.

66) In computer terminology, 80386 Processor is a 32 bit microprocessor chip used in personal computers.

67) In computer terminology, Gateway in computers A device that connects dissimilar networks.

68) Leave not due shall not be granted in case of leave preparatory.

69) LHAP can be converted in half period of leave on an average pay on medical grounds is called commuted leave..

70) Action to eliminate the cause of a detected non conformity is Corrective action.

71) Meeting of PREM committee at Railway board, zonal Railway and Divisional Railway level will a quarter.

72) RWF stands for Rail wheel factory.

73) In computer terminology, ISP stands for Internet service provide.

74) Gear tooth vernier is used to measure pitch line thickness of gear.

75) Accuracy is agreement of the result of a measurement with the true value of the measure quantity.

76) Acronym of LHB Linke Hoffman Bosch.

77) In computer terminology, AGP stands for  Advanced graphics port.

78) An abbreviation made up of the first letters of a series of words is called acronym.

79) In computer terminology, Bluetooth is a communication device.

80) Censure is a Minor penalty C.

81) House rent allowance for ‘X’ classified cities is 30% of basic pay.

82) House rent allowance for 'Y' classified cities is 20% of basic pay.

83) House rent allowance for 'Z' classified cities is10% of basic pay.

84) For the purpose of HRA Hyderabad is ‘X’ classified city.

85) For the purpose of HRA Warangal is ‘Y’ classified city.

86) For the purpose of HRA Tirupathi is ‘Z’ classified city.

87) In computer terminology, a CD-R drive  that can read CDs.

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (AC) OFFICIAL LANGUAGE ACT AND RULES

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (AC)

 

OFFICIAL LANGUAGE ACT AND RULES:

A.      Objective

1.       In terms of Article 343 (1) of the Constitution of India___________Language in__________ Script shall be the Official language of the Union.(Hindi, Devanagari)

2       Article 343(2) of the Constitution of India empowers to authorize use of Hindi and__________numerals in addition English (Internation  form of Indian numerals).

3       The Official Language Act was passed in___________(Yr. 1963)

4       According to Official Language Rules, India is divided into _________    regions and they are _________,____________  and_____________          (3 A, B and C)

5       States that come under Region are Bihar, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, New Delhi. (A)

6       The States that come under Region______ are Gujarat, Maharashtra, Punjab, Andaman Nicobar, Chandigarh (B) States Other than mentioned under the categories A and B, come under Region Non-Hindi speaking  states come under __________ Region. (C)

8       Target for Originating Correspondence from C to A, B and C Regions_________% (55%).

9       A cash Award of Rs.__________ is given under Railway Minister’s Rajbhasha Shield (7000/-).

10      Communications from Central Government Offices to the States, Offices and persons in__________Region shall be in Hindi, and if it is in English, a Hindi translation shall accompany. (A)

11      Communications from Central Govt. Offices to States or Offices in__________Region shall be in Hindi, and if it is in English, Hindi translation shall accompany (A).

12      Communications from Central Govt. Offices to persons in Region B shall be in ________(Hindi)

13      Communications from Central Government Offices to States or Persons in Region C shall be in_____________(Hindi/English)

14      Communications between Central Government Offices______ between one Ministry or Department and another may be in                       (Hindi/English).

15      Communications between Central Government Offices__________  between one Ministry or Department and attached/subordinate offices in Region A may be in_____ depending on number of persons having another may be in ___________ (Hindi)

16      Communications between Central Govt. Offices in Region A shall be in _____ (Hindi)

17      Communications between Central Govt. Offices in Region B or C may be in__________(Hindi or English)

18      Translations of such communication shall be provided along with the communication where it is addressed to Offices in______________              (C region)

19      Representations may be submitted by an employee in __________(Hindi).

20      Representations, when made/signed in Hindi shall be replied to in___________   (Hindi)

21      Notings in Central Government Offices may be made by an employee in_________ and no___________ be required to furnish a translation of it.  (Hindi only, translation)

22      If an employee has working knowledge of Hindi, he will not ask for English translation of a Hindi document, unless it is of ________nature. (Technical)

23      Manuals, Codes, Forms, Notices etc. shall be printed or cyclostyled in___________form (Hindi/English diglot form).

24      The forms and heading on registers shall be in ___________________(bilingual form)

25      All name plates, sign boards, letter heads, inscriptions on envelopes and other stationery etc. shall be in______________(Bilingual form).

26      Responsibility for compliance of the Official Language Rules shall be that of (Administrative Head/Head of the Office).

27      Andhra Pradesh and Kerala states come under____________ Region  (C)

B.      Questions and Answers

Q.1.     Why is Hindi divas celebrated and When?  Or What is importance of Hindi Divas?

Ans:     14th September  is celebrated as Hindi Day because the Constituent Assembly of India had adopted in Devanagari Script as the  Official Language of the Union on 14th September 1949.

Q.2     What are Documents to be issued in Hindi-English bilingual form under Section 3(3) of OL Act, 1963? 

Ans     The following documents have to be issued in Hindi-English bilingual form simultaneously

(i)  Resolutions, general orders, Rules, Notifications, Administrative reports or other reports or Press communiqués.

(ii) Administrative and other Reports and Official Papers lay before a House or the Houses of the Parliament.

(iii) Contracts and agreements executed and licenses permits, notices and forms tender issued.

Q.3     How many members are in parliamentary Committee of Official Language and how they are elected?

Ans     The Committee consists of thirty members, out of them twenty members shall be from the House of the People (LOK SABHA) and ten shall be from the council of states (RAJYA SABHA). They are elected respectively by the members of the house of people and the members of the Council of States in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote system.

Q.4     What are provision of OL Act, 1963 that are not applicable to Jammu and Kashmir?

Ans:     The provisions of section 6 and section 7 shall not apply to the state of Jammu and Kashmir.

Q.5     What do you mean by proficiency in Hindi?

Ans:     A Government servant who have studied SSLC/SSC/Matric or equivalent in Hindi Medium. or Studied Hindi as an optional subject in Inter or Degree or at higher level. Passed SSC/Matric with Hindi as language with minimum pass marks.

Q.6     What do you mean by working knowledge in Hindi?

Ans:     A Govt. employee who have studied Hindi as a Second Language/Third Language in SSLC/SSC/Matric or equivalent or Inter/Degree or Passed Hindi Pragya examination or prescribed Hindi Dept. Exam (i.e. Prabodh or Praveen)

Q.7     Who is responsible for use of Hindi or English for issuance of documents comes under Section 3(3)?

Ans:     Both Hindi and English shall be used for all documents referred to in sub section (3) of section 3 of OL Act. 1963 and it shall be the responsibility of persons signing such documents  to ensure that such documents are made, executed or issued both Hindi and English.

Q.8     Can any Govt. servant write notes etc. in Hindi only?

Ans:     Yes, As per Rule No.8 of OL Rules, 1976, an employee may record a note or minute on a file in Hindi or in English without being himself required to furnish a translation there of in the other language.

Q.9     Who is responsible to implement the Hindi in Govt. Offices?

Ans:     It shall be the responsibility of the administrative head of each Central Govt. Office to implement official language Hindi in their offices.

 

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (AC) ESSAY ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (AC)

 
ESSAY TYPE QUESTIONS:
 
1) What action has to be taken when a compressor is not working?
Ans: (a) Compressor-1/ 2 over load red indication LED glowing
(i)  Ensure both the condenser motors are working. If not follow the instructions for rectification of condensor motors problem.
 
(ii) Check the working condition of RSW5. If it is not working, bypass it. If supply not available, check the continuity of wire No. 48 at outgoing terminal of RSW5 from C2, C3 contactors.
 
(iii) Check over load relays (OL-4, OL-5). If
(a) They are in tripped condition, check the over load setting (10-14 A) and reset it.
(b) OL-4 and OL-5 are found defective; bypass them by shorting 52 with 54 and 63 with 65.
 
Note: Before bypassing OL-4 and OL-5, ensure 3-ph supply is available at T10, T11, T12 for CP1 and T13, T14, T15 for CP2 terminals of compressors to avoid single phasing and measure the load taken by the compressors in each phase.
 
(iv) Check MCB-4 & MCB-5 and ensure supply voltage of 415V AC, 3- ph at outgoing terminals of MCB-4 (352, 353 and 354) of CP-1 and MCB-5 (355, 356, 357) of CP-2. If found defective, bypass it.
 
(v) Check the incoming terminals of contactor (C4) (331, 332, 333) of CP-1, contactor (C5)   (334,   335,   336)   of   CP   -2   and   outgoing   terminals   of   contactor   (C4) (310,311,312) of CP-1, contactor (C5) (313, 314, 315) of CP2 respectively. If found defective, bypass the contactors.
 
(b) HP1 or HP2 red LED glowing
(i) Check the working condition of the condenser motors as per the procedure.
(ii) Check  the  condition of  HP1/HP2 cutout  switch. If tripped, reset it manually. (Setting 415 PSI)
 
(c) LP1 or LP2 red LED glowing
(i)  Check the load of respective compressors with clip on meter. If current drawn is
less than 6.5 Amps, replenish gas where ever possible. (ii) Ensure that return air filters are clean.
(iii) Check and ensure that all the grills are in open condition.
(iv) Check the direction of rotation of blower as per the procedure.
(v) Check LP1 or LP2. If defective, bypass by shorting 29, 31 for LP1 and 35, 37 for LP2.
 
2)  (a) How do you provide through feeding DC – DC for an AC coach?
Ans:  POWER PANEL TO/FROM AC CONTROL PANEL (U/S TYPE)
 
(i) Switch OFF AC plants before extending TC from DC Power Panel to DC Power Panel.
(ii) Remove 250A  Inverter +VE, -VE fuses in the power panel for one of the inverter supply.
(iii) Extend   the   DC   supply   from   (2514   or   2513)   terminals   of   power   panel   of healthy/defective coach to terminals of (B +VE, B -VE) control panel of defective/healthy coach with 2 core 35 sq. mm copper cable as shown in the figures.
(iv) After  ensuring  through  feeding  connections,  re-insert  the  250A  fuses  of  the inverters in both the healthy and defective coaches.
(v) Remove the battery fuse of the defective coach.
(vi) Switch on AC plant by balancing the load on both coaches to avoid over loading of healthy coach Alternators and batteries.
 
(b) How do you provide through feeding AC – AC for an AC coach?
Ans:  THREE PHASE AC FEED EXTENSION PROCEDURE - PANEL TO PANEL
(i) When Inverter is not working due to low battery voltage, extend the TC from the adjacent coach AC control panel
(ii) Switch off the AC plants and inverters in healthy and failed coaches before extending TC.
(iii)  Disconnect the existing incoming supply cables in AC control panel of the defective coach at terminal block before RSW1 (TB,TY, TR).
(iv)  Extend 3-ph AC supply with 3 core 16 sq.mm copper cable from the AC control panel of healthy coach (TB, TY, TR) to AC control panel of failed coach (TB, TY,TR)
(v)   Check the control supply. If it is taken from sine wave output of inverter, remove the same and extend supply from 2-phase of the bus bar (358, 359) to incoming terminal of MCB-8.
(vi)  After ensuring the connections, switch on the inverter in the healthy coach and check the availability of 3-ph supply as well as control supply in the control panel of failed coach.
(vii) Switch on blower in the defective coach and check the direction of rotation of blower.
(viii) If shows air loss indication, interchange any two phase wire in the terminal block (TY, TB and TR).
(ix) To avoid over loading of inverter, switch on AC plants of both coaches either with one compressor in each AC plant of defective and healthy coach or two compressors in any one AC plant of defective/ healthy coach.
 
3) How do you provide E.F.T to a TL coach?
Ans: The detailed procedure of emergency feed extension is given as under
 
(a) Action to be taken in healthy coach
(i) The availability of power supply in the emergency feed terminal should be ensured. (ii) Only one dark coach should be extended feed supply from one healthy coach.
(iii) Before connecting, the polarity of healthy coach as well as dark coach shall be checked.
(iv) L-II circuit of the healthy coach shall be switched off before connecting supply to dark coach.
(v) The rotary switch of (socket paralleling main) SPM-I and II shall be kept in ON position.
 
(b) Action to be taken in defective coach and feed extension
(i) L-II and fan circuit of the dark coach shall be switched off before connecting supply from healthy coach.
(ii) The  rotary  switch  of  (socket  paralleling main)  SPM-I  and  II  shall  be  kept  in  ON position.
(iii) The L-I circuit is having essential/emergency lighting circuit.This includes all lavatory lights 50% of compartment lights, and night lights in all types of IInd  class coaches.
(iv) Remove  (+ve)  fuse  from  battery  box  and  (-ve)  main  fuse  from  junction  box  to disconnect the power supply to/from battery.
(v) The earth fault shall be checked up with the help of testing lamp. If earth fault is there then feed extension should not be done.
(vi) The feeding shall be given to L-I circuit only of the dark coach from healthy coach.
(vii) The defective coach shall be attended and cable should be removed at the first available opportunity by TL staff.
(viii) The size of the cables for the feed extension shall be of 16 sq.mm PVC Aluminum / 2.5 sq.mm elastomeric /2.5 sq.mm e-beam copper cables.
(ix) The length of the wire for feed extension shall be 2x1.5 meter (for both terminals). The length of the cable shall not be more than 1.5 meter.
(x) Both ends of the cable shall be provided with suitable size of lug.
(xi) The cable shall be secured tightly by the screws or bolts, nuts and plain washer.  The proper tightness of the connections should be ensured.

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (AC) SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (AC)

 

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS:

1)  What are the main components of Lead Acid Cell?

Ans.  Main Components of Lead Acid Cells are:

a)  Positive Plates which are tubular in shape made of PBO2

b)  Negative Plates usually consists of a lead grid into which active material  of Sponge lead is pressed.

c)  Separators, which are made by Synthetic used between +ve and –ve plates.

d)  Container is made of hard rubber or PPCP with high insulating strength to resist acids which are used as Electrolyte.

e)  Cell covers which covers container having vent plugs and level indicator.

2)  What is meant by SMF batteries?

Ans.  To overcome problems of frequent Topping up and Leakage of Electrolyte. Sealed maintenance free batteries are developed Electrolyte in these batteries is in immobilized form and these can be used in any position that is horizontal or vertical.

3)  What is significance of Green and Red mark of the float guide of Lead Acid ells?

Ans. The float stem will have markings to indicate the lowest in red and highest in green of  permissible  electrolyte  levels.    It  should  be  ensured  that  the  electrolyte  level  is maintained in service by adding pure distilled / dematerialized water.

4)  What are the equipments available in PELE box and when they are utilized?

Ans.   The equipments available in PELE box are:

01       TRIPOD STAND                                                   05        BULBS

02       HOLDER                                                             06        HAND LAMP

03       FLEXIBLE WIRE 25 METERS                               07        LOG BOOK

04       CROCODILE CLIPS                                              08        LAMP FITTINGS

These are used in emergency conditions train service. This box is kept in the Guard Compartment.

5)         What are the safety checks in under gear in AC Coaches?

Ans:      Alternator safety chains, Suspension pin with anti- rotation plate, suspension pin with nylon bushes, Alternator pulleys, Axel pulley with bolts condition of battery box channels, nuts & bolts, WRA, Under Slung Inverter suspension arrangements and split pins of all under gear electrical uspension equipments.

6)         How do check Pulleys of Axle & Alternator?

Ans:     Axle pulleys nuts and bolts with split pins, condition of grooves, and gap between two halves of the axle pulleys. Alternator pulley castle nut with split pin.

7)         What are the reasons for V-Belt dropping?

Ans:     The reasons for V-belt dropping are may be due to locking of barrel bush, locking of alternator safety chains, misalignments of axle pulleys, Alternator bearing jam and due to cattle run over.

8)         What are the schedule attentions on Lead Acid Batteries in FNE schedule?

Ans:     Cleaning of ICC, toping up of distilled water, applying of petroleum jelly on terminals ports. Checking of SPG. Providing charging. Checking of ON load and OFF load voltage of individual cells and group.

9)         What is meant by Specific Gravity in Cells & its significance?

Ans:     SPG is the ratio of the density of electrolyte to the density of water fully charged lead acid cell will have a SPG of 1.250 and fully discharge cell 1.150.

10)       What are the various defects noticed in Cells?

Ans:     Open circuit, short circuits, container leakage, reverse polarity, low SPG and voltage.

11)       What is the gap between the Mounting Bracket to adjustment nut in Tension device & how to adjust?

Ans:     The gap between the Mounting Bracket to adjustment nut in Tension device is 75 mm & it can be adjusted by opening check nut and adjusting barrel bush.

12)       Why  earthing  is  necessary  for  any  electrical  equipments,  domestic  installation  & service building etc?

Ans:     To drain away any leakage of currents due to poor insulation and to save human life from dangerous shock and also to avoid burnt of electrical equipment.

13)       What is the procedure for using Fire extinguisher?

Ans:     a) Pull the pin at the top of the extinguisher.

b) Aim the nozzle towards the base of the fire.

c) Stand approximately 8 feet away from the fire and squeeze the handle to discharge the extinguisher.

d) Sweep the nozzle back and forth at the base of the fire.

14)       Classification of low tension and high-tension lines with respect to voltages?

Ans:       a) Low Voltage Lines                         = Less than 250V

 

b) Medium Voltage Lines                                   = 250 V to 650V

c) High Voltage Lines                                         = 650V to 33 KV

d) Extra High Voltage Lines                                = Above 33 KV

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (AC) TRUE OR FALSE

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (AC)

INDICATE TRUE OR FALSE TO THE FOLLOWING:

1)       Without EMD the tender offer is valid.   False

2)       Amps is the unit of current    True

3)       Tinned copper conductor of 14SWG is used as earth continuity wire in the

4)        Internal Wiring system.    True

5)        Wood is the bad conductor of electricity.   True

6)        Oil is used as a insulation in the power transformers.  False

7)         The minimum capacity of power transformer on electrical General Services is 100KVA True

8)         Finance vetting is required, if the cost of NS item exceeds Rs. 50,000/- while

9)         Procuring through COS.  True

10)       The open tenders are to be opened in presence of a Accounts Officer.  True

11)       The codal life of VLRA batteries is 04 years.  True

12)       If a cell voltage is found less than 1.9 Volts, it should be weed out.  False

13)       The SPG of sulphuric acid which is used to make electrolyte is 1.835.  True

14)       The L1, L2 and Fan Circuit fuse rating is 16 A in Roof Junction Box.  True

15)       The bulk inverter capacity in AC 2 tier for cell phone charging is 6KVA.  False

16)       Single-phase preventer should be used to protect the motor from single phasing.  True

17)       The minimum safe value of insulation resistance of motor is 20 MΩ.  False

  18)       Multi meter is used to measure insulation resistance and megger is used to measure the winding resistance of the motor.  False

  19)       If a motor is getting unduly hot, the reason may be overloaded or bearing may be defective. True

  20)       Compressor works like a pump by drawing refrigerant vapor from the evaporator and sends to condenser.  True

21)       The change of liquid state into vapour state is called condensation.  False

22)       OL is provided to trip the condenser motor incase of over voltage and single phasing. False

23)       Due  point  is  the  temperature  of  air  at  which  the  moisture  present  in  air  starts condensing.  True

24)     The purpose of contactor provided in the control panel of RMPU is to switch ON supply to condenser motors.  True

25)     The purpose of TDR 1 provided in control panel of RMPU to delay compressor II operation for 2 minutes.  False

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (AC) FILL IN THE BLANKS

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (AC)

FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1)         The process of removing heat from low temperature level and rejecting at high temperature is called.  REFRIGERATION.

2)          Any substances for change of its state at constant temperature absorbs/give up heat is called  LATENT HEAT.

3)         The  sum  of  sensible  heat  and  latent  heat  of  substance  in  process  is  called ENTHALPY.

4)         The latent heat of fusing ice is  144 BTU/LB.

5)         The unit of refrigeration is TON OF REFREGIRATION12000 Btu/Hr or 3023.98 K.Cal/Hr.

6)         The temperature measured by ordinary thermometer is called  SENSIBLE HEAT.

7)         What is the boiling point of water  100  C.

8)         AT what temperature water starts freezing_  0  C.

9)         One watt is  3.412 BTU.

10)       One BTU is  0.252 K.calaries.

11)       The unit of heat is  BTU OR K.CAL

12)       RMPU means  ROOF MOUNTED PACKAGE UNIT

13)       The setting of HP cutout in RMPU coaches is  415 psi.

14)       The setting of LP cutout in under slung coaches is  35 psi.

15)       The boiling point of refrigerant R22_  -40.8  C.

16)       The boiling point of refrigerant R12.  – 29.8  C.

17)       Artificial respiration is required to the person met with  electrical accident.

18)       R12 is being replaced with  R-134a in latest Refrigeration system.

19)       The latent heat of evaporation IS THE HEAT REQUIRED TO CHANGE THE LIQUID INTO VAPOUR.

20)       The temperature maintained in the refrigerator is LESS then  0  C.

21)       The dry bulb and vet bulb temperatures equals then the  RH is 100%

22)       The  moisture  absorption  in  refrigeration  circuit  is  done  by  DEHYDRATOR  CUM  FILTER.

23)       The commonly used refrigerants are  R 12 & R 22

24)       The lubrication of system in the sealed compressors is done by  FREEZOL

25)       The 3-phase voltage unbalance in supply should not exceed  2.5. % To 5%

26)       For maintaining power supply quality the rate of change of frequency should not exceed. 1 HZ/Sec.

27)       The voltage of 11 KV supply is  11000V

28)       Tender Notice is to be published for. Open tender

29)       Copper is the good conductor of electricity.

30)       Completion estimate is not  required for calling tender.

31)       Contingencies charges mean Transportation charges.

32)       Detailed estimate is to be prepared for  sanctioned works.

33)       Detailed estimate needs  sanction of HOD.

34)       The fire extinguisher used for Electrical fire is CO2

35)       Fire is the combination of  material and  temperature & Oxygen.

36)       B Type of fire extinguisher used to nullify the oil fires.

37)       Electric type of fire is clarified as  D type.

38)       CO2 type fire extinguisher is used for  electrical fires.

39)       Ordinary fire can be extinguished by  water.

40)       RUBBER HAND GLOVES are to be used while operating isolator handle in substations.

41)       Ordinary fire can be extinguished by  WATER OR SAND.

42)       Artificial respiration is required to the person met with  ELECTRICAL accident.

43)       Abbreviation for IOD is INJURED ON DUTY

44)       The accident causes with loss of human life is called  fatal accident.

45)       If a man touches a live wire, he gets  shock/electrocuted.

46)       CTC type extinguisher is used for  ELECTRICAL fire.

47)       If a transformer catches fire  FOAM type of fire.

48)       The fire extinguisher used for Electrical fire is CO2 TYPE.

49)       Fire is the combination of  Material, temperature and oxygen.

50)       B type of fire extinguisher used to nullify the oil fires.

51)       Electric type of fire is clarified as D type.

52)       CO2 type fire extinguisher is used for  ELECTRICAL fires.

53)       Soda ash type fire extinguisher is used for  GENERAL fires.

54)       CTC OR FOAM type of fire extinguishers will be used to extinguisher chemical fires.

55)       Axle Driven system working on 110 V DC supply.

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (AC) ABBREVATIONS

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (AC)

WRITE DOWN THE ABBREVATIONS:

1

PWM

: Pulse Width Modulation.

2

VRLA

: Valve Regulated Lead Acid

3

IGBT

: Insulated Gate Bi polar Transistor

4

FRPCPY

: Failure Rate Percentage Per Year.

5

BTU

: British Thermal Unit.

6

IOD

: Injured On Duty.

7

LAP

: Leave at Average Pay

8

LHAP

: Leave at Half Average Pay

9

CL

: Casual Leave

10

PNM

: Permanent Negotiable Machinery

11

AIRF

: All India Railway men federation.

12

NFIR

: National Federation of Indian railways.

13

DA

: Dearness allowance

14

TA

: Traveling allowance or transportation allowance

15

LWP

: Leave without pay

16

CCA

: City compensatory allowance.

17

PATB

:Passenger alarm terminal board

18

EFT

: Emergency feeding terminals

19

PELE

: Portable emergency lighting equipment

20

IRIEEN

: Indian railways institute of electrical engineers

21

PERT

: Programme evaluation & review techniques

22

DGS&D

:Director General of supply and Disposal

23

EMD

:Earnest Money Deposit

24

SD

:Security Deposit

25

BG

:Bank Guarantee


26

PG

: Performance Guarantee

27

CRI

: Colour rendering Index

28

EEPROM

: Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory

29

RDSO

: Research Design & Specification Organization

30

PPCP

: Poly Propylene Co-Polymer

 

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (AC)

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (AC)

 

SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER:

 

1)      Size of V belts used for 25KW Alternator                                                    (    c      )

a.       C121                                            c.        C122

b.       C123                                            d.        C124

2)      Capacity of battery fuse in AC Coaches                                                      (    a      )

a.       315 A & 400 (HRC )                     c.        16 A (HRC )

b.       63 A (HRC )                                  d.        5 A (HRC )

3)      The gap between the two halves of axle pulley should be                         (     c     )

a        0.5 – 1.0 mm                               c.        3.0 – 4.0 mm

b.       2.0 – 3.0 mm                               d.        5.0 – 5.5 mm

4)      What are the AH capacity of cells used in all types of AC coaches           (      b      )

a.       800 Ah Lead Acid & 1100 Ah VRLA

b.       800 & 1100 Ah Lead Acid & 1100 Ah VRLA

c.        1100 Ah    

d.        800 Ah

5)      Name the Acid used in lead acid cells                                                        (     a     )

a.       Sulphuric Acid                             c.        Nitric acid

b.       Hydrochloric Acid                        d.        Phosphoric Acid

6)      The Specific gravity & Voltage of fully charged cells are                          (      a     )

a.       1220 & 2.2                                   a.        1200 & 2.2

b.  1220 & 2.1                                        b.          1200 & 2.1

7)      Cut in speed for brushless alternator in AC application                             (     b     )

a.       21                                                c.        19

b.       20                                                d.        18

8)      Inverter converts                                                                                        (      a     )

a.       DC to AC                                      c.        AC to AC

b.       DC to DC                                      d.        AC to DC

9)       IGBT are used as                                                                                        (     a     )

          a.       High frequency switching device   c.        Low frequency switching device

            b.       Illuminating device                         d.        Amplifier

10)     Boost charge of VRLA cells is                                                                     (      a     )

a.       2.3 V/Cell                                    c.        2.25 V/Cell

b.       110 V/Cell                                   d.        115 V/Cell

11)     Trickle charging of VRLA cells is                                                                 (     c     )

a.       2.3 V/Cell                                    c.        2.25 V/Cell

b.      110 V/Cell                                    d.          115 V/Cell

12)     Rectifier converts                                                                                        (     b     )

a.       DC to AC                                      c.        AC to AC

b.       AC to DC                                      d.        DC to DC

13)    Give the half load setting of RRU for AC application at 1500 rpm             (   a      )

a.       97 Amps                                      c.        21 Amps

b.      20 Amps                                      d.         22 Amps

14)    Required level of Illumination in corridor of 2-Tier AC coach is                (     c     )

a.      14 Lux                                         c.          40 Lux

b.      22 Lux                                         d.          16 Lux

15)    Give the minimum tension length of spring used in Tension rod of 25 KW Alternator

a. 310 mm                                       c.        269 mm

b  265 mm                                      d.         275 mm

16)    Why lead acid cells are called as secondary cells                                       (    c     )

a.       Since it can’t be recharge           c.        Since it can be recharged

b.       Since it can’t charge initially      d.        None

17)    Name the method to be used to find out Earth leakage                             (     a    )

a.       Double test lamp method           c.        Tong tester method

b.       Multi meter method                   d.        Volt meter method

18)    If alternator is not generating voltage, the reason could be                      (     d     )

a.       Field may be open                       c.        Dropping of V-belts

b.       Fuse in regulator had blown        d.        All the above

19)    The advantage of ERRU is                                                                           (     d     )

a.       To obtain pure DC supply            c.        Produces over voltage

b.        Inbuilt  Over  Voltage protection d.        Both (a) & (b)

20)    The capacity of Regulators used in AC coaches are                                    (     a    )

a.       18KW & 25KW                             c.        4.5KW & 25KW

               b.         4.5KW & 15KW                          d.         4.5KW & 18KW

 

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RRB Secunderabad NTPC Tier-2 Results : Candidates qualified for APTITUDE TEST for the post of Assistant Station Master (ASM)

RRB Secunderabad NTPC Tier-2 Results : Candidates qualified for APTITUDE TEST for the post of

Assistant Station Master (ASM)

Based on the performance in the 2 nd stage Computer Based Test for Non-Technical Popular Category (Graduate) posts against CEN-3/2015 conducted by this Railway Recruitment Board during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, the candidates bearing the following Roll Nos. arranged in ascending order horizontally (not in order of merit), have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in Aptitude Test for the posts of Assistant Station Master (ASM), (Cat. No.7) and /or Typing Skill Test for the posts of Senior Clerk-cum-Typist (Cat No.6). Accordingly, these shortlisted candidates will be intimated through SMS/e-mail for downloading of e-call letters to appear in Aptitude Test and/or Typing Skill Test likely to be held in June/July, 2017.
 
Candidates are advised to check their Roll No. in the short lists for Aptitude Test as well as Typing Skill Test

 

 

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रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) एनटीपीसी परीक्षा के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री

Online Coaching for RRB Recruitment Exams

Test Series Programme For Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Exams

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RRB NTPC Online Aptitude Test Syllabus and Pattern

RRB NTPC Online Aptitude Test Syllabus and Pattern

​There will be five number of tests in the Aptitude Tests viz. Intelligence test, Attention test, Spatial Scanning, Information Ordering and Personality test. For these five Aptitude Tests six scores will get generated as Personality test measures two attributes. The mock test is available on the link of Psycho Technical Directorate of RDSO and all RRB websites which can be seen for ready reference. If there is any change that too shall be notified through above websites. It is further clarified that in the actual test the number of questions and duration of time in each test may vary.

Details of Various Aptitude Test to be held on 30.06.2017

 

 

Test 1

 

Intelligence Test

 बुद्धि‍ परीक्षण 

 

Instruction Time

05 Minutes

Number of Question

35

Time Limit

10 Minutes

Break Time

01 Minute

 

Test 2

 

Selective Attention Test

चयनात्‍मक अवधान परीक्षण

 

Instruction Time

05 Minutes

Number of Question

30

Time Limit

08 Minutes

Break Time

01 Minute

 

 

Test 3

 

Spatial Scanning Test

स्‍पेशियल स्‍कैनिंग परीक्षण

 

Instruction Time

05 Minutes

Number of Question

40 (10x4=40)

Time Limit

08 Minutes

Break Time

01 Minute

 

 

Test 4

 

Information Ordering Test

इंफॉर्मेशन ऑर्डरिंग परीक्षण

 

Instruction Time

10 Minutes

Number of Question

25

Time Limit

10 Minutes

Break Time

01 Minute

 

 

Test 5

 

Personality Test

व्‍यक्तित्‍व परीक्षण

 

Instruction Time

05 Minutes

Number of Question

35

Time Limit

12 Minutes

Feedback फीडबैक

Number of Statements

14

Time Limit

06 Minutes

 

 

        Total Time Limit

88 Minutes (including feedback time)

 

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आर आर बी NTPC परीक्षा अभिवृत्ति परीक्षण (APTITUDE TEST) सिलेबस एवं पैटर्न

​आर आर बी NTPC परीक्षा अभिवृत्ति परीक्षण (APTITUDE TEST) सिलेबस एवं पैटर्न

महत्‍वपूर्ण सूचना​​

अभिवृत्ति परीक्षण’(APTITUDE TEST) में पांच परीक्षण होंगे जिनका क्रम निम्‍न है:-

1.      बुद्धि‍ परीक्षण

2.      चयनात्‍मक अवधान परीक्षण

3.      स्‍पेशियल स्‍कैनिंग परीक्षण

4.      इंफॉर्मेशन ऑर्डरिंग परीक्षण

5.      व्‍यक्तित्‍व परीक्षण

इन पांच परीक्षणों हेतु छः स्‍कोर निर्गत होंगे क्‍योंकि व्‍यक्तित्‍व परीक्षण का मूल्‍यांकन दो व्‍यक्तित्‍व गुणों पर किया जाएगा. इस परीक्षण हेतु मॉक टेस्‍ट लिंक आर.डी.एस.ओ. तथा रेलवे भर्ती बोर्डों की वेबसाइट पर उपलब्‍ध है जिसे संदर्भ हेतु देखा जा सकता है.यदि इसमें कोई परिवर्तन होता है तो वह इसी वेबसाइट के माध्‍यम से सूचित किया जायेगा तथापि वास्‍तविक परीक्षण में प्रश्‍नों की संख्‍या तथा समय-सीमा परिवर्तनीय हो सकती है.

Details of Various Aptitude Test to be held on 30.06.2017

दिनांक 30.06.2017 को होने वाले विभिन्‍न अभिवृत्ति परीक्षणों की रूपरेखा

 

 

 

Test 1

 

Intelligence Test

 बुद्धि‍ परीक्षण 

 

Instruction Time

05 Minutes

Number of Question

35

Time Limit

10 Minutes

Break Time

01 Minute

 

Test 2

 

Selective Attention Test

चयनात्‍मक अवधान परीक्षण

 

Instruction Time

05 Minutes

Number of Question

30

Time Limit

08 Minutes

Break Time

01 Minute

 

 

Test 3

 

Spatial Scanning Test

स्‍पेशियल स्‍कैनिंग परीक्षण

 

Instruction Time

05 Minutes

Number of Question

40 (10x4=40)

Time Limit

08 Minutes

Break Time

01 Minute

 

 

Test 4

 

Information Ordering Test

इंफॉर्मेशन ऑर्डरिंग परीक्षण

 

Instruction Time

10 Minutes

Number of Question

25

Time Limit

10 Minutes

Break Time

01 Minute

 

 

Test 5

 

Personality Test

व्‍यक्तित्‍व परीक्षण

 

Instruction Time

05 Minutes

Number of Question

35

Time Limit

12 Minutes

Feedback फीडबैक

Number of Statements

14

Time Limit

06 Minutes

 

 

        Total Time Limit

88 Minutes (including feedback time)

 

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RRB NTPC Online Aptitude Test MOCK EXAM

RRB NTPC Online Aptitude Test MOCK EXAM

RRB Aptitude Test 1 : Intelligence Test

RRB Aptitude Test 2 : Attention Test

 

RRB Aptitude Test 3 : Spacial Scanning Test

 

RRB Aptitude Test 4 : Information Ordering Test

RRB Aptitude Test 5 : Personality Test

 

Click Here to Online Aptitude Test (MOCK EXAM)

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Indian Railways Two Year Performance Report 2015-2016

Indian Railways Two Year Performance Report 2015-2016

the two years that have gone by would be recognized as significant in the history of Indian Railways.These have been the years when we broke away from tradition and convention and abandoned the business as usual approach. These years have been challenging, no doubt; the experience has also been exciting. We have diagnosed that most of the problems ailing Indian Railways are because of under-investment.

 
Last year, a five-year investment plan of Rs. 8.56 lakh crore was unveiled. The capex plan for 2015-16 was increased to Rs. 1 lakh crore as against an average of about Rs. 48,000 crore spent during 2009- 2014. We have spent over Rs. 93,000 crore against the aforesaid target, a feat never achieved earlier by Indian Railways. For the first time, we decided to go in for sustained borrowing from the market to meet the enhanced capex requirements. A financing facility has been extended by LIC to provide Rs. 1.5 lakh crore over a period of five years. For 2016-17, our target is to spend Rs. 1.21 lakh crore as capex, 34% higher than 2015-16.
 
The Dedicated Freight Corridor has picked up momentum and the SPV for High Speed Rail has also been registered. The setting up of loco factories at Madhepura and Marhowra is on schedule. We have awarded Habibganj station near Bhopal for redevelopment and several other stations would be taken up soon.
 
For the last two years, we have made untiring efforts to take care of the needs of our passengers. We are trying to resolve the problems of passengers on a real time basis by using social media. Measures have also been taken to make journeys safer and satisfying for women, divyang and senior citizens.

 

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Courtesy : Indian Railway

(FAQ) Candidates present in the of second stage examination CEN 03/015

(FAQ) Candidates present in the of second stage examination CEN 03/015

FAQ for Candidates present in the of second stage examination of CEN 03/2015 (At the stage of publication of Shortlists for AT and TST)

Q: In the shortlist published by RRB my roll number is not there. What does it mean?

A: You need to check shortlist for Aptitude Test (AT) as well as Typing Skill Test (TST). If your roll number is not there in any of the two shortlists there can be following possibilities-

(i)The posts requiring AT and/or TST  is your lower priority as compared to the posts not requiring AT and TST and your roll number may have been included for provisional list of one of the Non Third Stage (NTS) posts e.g. Commercial Apprentice (CA), Traffic Apprentice (TA), Goods Guard (GG). Result of these posts will be published after AT and TST is done along with the result of posts requiring AT and TST. You are advised to wait for the publication of results after conduct of AT and TST to ascertain your final status.

(ii) Your priority for the posts requiring AT and/or TST was higher than NTS posts but your marks are lower than the cut off marks for shortlists of AT and/or TST. Cut off marks for the shortlists of AT and TST are available on the websites of RRBs. You are advised to wait for the publication of results after conduct of AT and TST to ascertain your final status.

(iii) You have not secured qualifying marks necessary for the community concerned (UR-40, SC-30, OBC-30, ST-25) in the second stage examination. You can check this aspect by ascertaining your normalized marks by logging in via link provided on website of RRBs.

(iv) The priorities of posts given by you did not include AT and/or TST posts. You are advised to wait for the publication of results after conduct of AT and TST to ascertain your final status.

(v) You are borne in the debar list of RRBs or you were caught indulging in malpractice during second stage examination or you were absent in second stage examination.

Q: My normalised score is higher than the cut off marks of the shortlist for AT and/or TST but in the shortlist published by RRB my roll number is not there. What does it mean?

A: The posts requiring AT and/or TST  is your lower priority as compared to the posts not requiring AT and TST and your roll number may have been included for provisional list of one of the Non Third Stage (NTS) posts e.g. Commercial Apprentice (CA), Traffic Apprentice (TA), Goods Guard (GG). Result of these posts will be published after AT and TST is done along with the result of posts requiring AT and TST. You are advised to wait for the publication of results after conduct of AT and TST to ascertain your final status.

Q: My normalised score is lower than the cut off marks of the shortlist for AT and/or TST. Does it mean I am out of the process of selection?

A: Not necessarily. You are advised to wait for the publication of results after conduct of AT and TST to ascertain your final status.

Q: I have been shortlisted for both AT as well as TST. What happens if I fail in both the tests?

A: This will depend on the priority given by you. If you have not given priority for non third stage post or your marks are lower than the cut off of the NTS posts (to be declared after conduct of AT/TST) then you will be out of the selection process. However, in case your marks are above the cut off of NTS posts (to be declared after conduct of AT/TST) your roll number will be reflected in the result published after AT/TST. You are advised to wait for the publication of results after conduct of AT and TST to ascertain your final status.

Q: I have been shortlisted for AT but not for TST although post requiring TST was one of my priorities.

A: the short listing will depend on the post priorities given by you. Your priority for AT posts must have been higher than the posts requiring TST. Your non inclusion in the short list for TST may be due to either you are below the cut off of the shortlist for TST or you may have been included for provisional list of one of the Non Third Stage (NTS) posts which was your priority between AT posts and TST posts. You are advised to wait for the publication of results after conduct of AT and TST to ascertain your final status.

Q: I have been shortlisted for TST but not for AT although post requiring AT was one of my priorities.

A: the short listing will depend on the post priorities given by you. Your priority for TST posts must have been higher than the post requiring AT. Your non inclusion in the short list for AT may be due to either you are below the cut off of the shortlist for AT or you may have been included for provisional list of one of the Non Third Stage (NTS) posts which was your priority between TST posts and AT posts. You are advised to wait for the publication of results after conduct of AT and TST to ascertain your final status.

Q: I have been shortlisted for both AT as well as TST. What happens if I pass in both the tests?

A: This will depend on the priority given by you. In case of AT posts, the merit drawn after written test and AT marks are added in the ratio of 70:30 you may get included in the result for the AT posts if you are within the cut off of the AT post list and AT post  is your higher priority as compared to TST posts. In case of TST posts, you may get included in the result for the TST posts if you are within the cut off of these posts and TST posts are your higher priority as compared to AT posts. In case your priority includes NTS posts in between AT posts and TST posts and you are not getting into list of your higher priority third stage post, then you may get included in the list for NTS post if your marks are above the cut off the NTS posts in between. You are advised to wait for the publication of results after conduct of AT and TST to ascertain your final status.

Q: I have been shortlisted for both AT as well as TST. What happens if I pass in one of these tests and fail in the other?

A: This will depend on the priority given by you. Your final status will be based on your merit position and priority given by you.

(i) When AT post was your higher priority as compared to TST posts and you get qualified in AT as well as within cut off of AT posts, you will get listed for that AT post. If you fail in AT or below cut off of AT posts, your allocation for the subsequent priorities will be examined.

(ii)    When TST post was your higher priority as compared to AT post and you get qualified in TST as well as within cut off of TST posts, you will get listed for that TST post. If you fail in TST or below cut off of TST posts, your allocation for the subsequent priorities will be examined. You are advised to wait for the publication of results after conduct of AT and TST to ascertain your final status.

Q: Why the result of NTS posts has not been declared along with the shortlist for AT & TST?

A: Many of the candidates included in the AT/TST shortlists and having these posts as their higher option are also higher in merit for NTS posts. In case these candidates fail to qualify AT/TST or falls below cut off of the AT and/or TST posts and their second stage rank is higher than the cut off of the NTS posts they will essentially get allocated to NTS posts. Therefore the allocation of NTS posts cannot be finalised before result of AT/TST is available.

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Courtesy: RRB

FAQ for Candidates present in the of second stage examination of CEN 03/2015

FAQ for Candidates present in the of second stage examination of CEN 03/2015

FAQ for Candidates present in the of second stage examination of CEN 03/2015

(At the stage of publication of Shortlists for AT and TST)

Q: In the shortlist published by RRB my roll number is not there. What does it mean?

A: You need to check shortlist for Aptitude Test (AT) as well as Typing Skill Test (TST). If your roll number is not there in any of the two shortlists there can be following possibilities-

(i)      The posts requiring AT and/or TST  is your lower priority as compared to the posts not requiring AT and TST and your roll number may have been included for provisional list of one of the Non Third Stage (NTS) posts e.g. Commercial Apprentice (CA), Traffic Apprentice (TA), Goods Guard (GG). Result of these posts will be published after AT and TST is done along with the result of posts requiring AT and TST. You are advised to wait for the publication of results after conduct of AT and TST to ascertain your final status.

(ii)    Your priority for the posts requiring AT and/or TST was higher than NTS posts but your marks are lower than the cut off marks for shortlists of AT and/or TST. Cut off marks for the shortlists of AT and TST are available on the websites of RRBs. You are advised to wait for the publication of results after conduct of AT and TST to ascertain your final status.

(iii)   You have not secured qualifying marks necessary for the community concerned (UR-40, SC-30, OBC-30, ST-25) in the secondstage examination. You can check this aspect by ascertaining your normalized marks by logging in via link provided on website of RRBs.

(iv)  The priorities of posts given by you did not include AT and/or TST posts. You are advised to wait for the publication of results after conduct of AT and TST to ascertain your final status.

(v)    You are borne in the debar list of RRBs or you were caught indulging in malpractice during second stage examination or you were absent in second stage examination.

Q: My normalised score is higher than the cut off marks of the shortlist for AT and/or TST but in the shortlist published by RRB my roll number is not there. What does it mean?

A: The posts requiring AT and/or TST  is your lower priority as compared to the posts not requiring AT and TST and your roll number may have been included for provisional list of one of the Non Third Stage (NTS) posts e.g. Commercial Apprentice (CA), Traffic Apprentice (TA), Goods Guard (GG). Result of these posts will be published after AT and TST is done along with the result of posts requiring AT and TST. You are advised to wait for the publication of results after conduct of AT and TST to ascertain your final status.

Q: My normalised score is lower than the cut off marks of the shortlist for AT and/or TST. Does it mean I am out of the process of selection?

A: Not necessarily. You are advised to wait for the publication of results after conduct of AT and TST to ascertain your final status.

Q: I have been shortlisted for both AT as well as TST. What happens if I fail in both the tests?

A: This will depend on the priority given by you. If you have not given priority for non third stage post or your marks are lower than the cut off of the NTS posts (to be declared after conduct of AT/TST) then you will be out of the selection process. However, in case your marks are above the cut off of NTS posts (to be declared after conduct of AT/TST) your roll number will be reflected in the result published after AT/TST. You are advised to wait for the publication of results after conduct of AT and TST to ascertain your final status.

Q: I have been shortlisted for AT but not for TST although post requiring TST was one of my priorities.

A: the short listing will depend on the post priorities given by you. Your priority for AT posts must have been higher than the posts requiring TST. Your non inclusion in the short list for TST may be due to either you are below the cut off of the shortlist for TST or you may have been included for provisional list of one of the Non Third Stage (NTS) posts which was your priority between AT posts and TST posts. You are advised to wait for the publication of results after conduct of AT and TST to ascertain your final status.

Q: I have been shortlisted for TST but not for AT although post requiring AT was one of my priorities.

A: the short listing will depend on the post priorities given by you. Your priority for TST posts must have been higher than the post requiring AT. Your non inclusion in the short list for AT may be due to either you are below the cut off of the shortlist for AT or you may have been included for provisional list of one of the Non Third Stage (NTS) posts which was your priority between TST posts and AT posts. You are advised to wait for the publication of results after conduct of AT and TST to ascertain your final status.

Q: I have been shortlisted for both AT as well as TST. What happens if I pass in both the tests?

A: This will depend on the priority given by you. In case of AT posts, the merit drawn after written test and AT marks are added in the ratio of 70:30 you may get included in the result for the AT posts if you are within the cut off of the AT post list and AT post  is your higher priority as compared to TST posts. In case of TST posts, you may get included in the result for the TST posts if you are within the cut off of these posts and TST posts are your higher priority as compared to AT posts. In case your priority includes NTS posts in between AT posts and TST posts and you are not getting into list of your higher priority third stage post, then you may get included in the list for NTS post if your marks are above the cut off the NTS posts in between. You are advised to wait for the publication of results after conduct of AT and TST to ascertain your final status.

Q: I have been shortlisted for both AT as well as TST. What happens if I pass in one of these tests and fail in the other?

A: This will depend on the priority given by you. Your final status will be based on your merit position and priority given by you.

(i)      When AT post was your higher priority as compared to TST posts and you get qualified in AT as well as within cut off of AT posts, you will get listed for that AT post. If you fail in AT or below cut off of AT posts, your allocation for the subsequent priorities will be examined.

(ii)    When TST post was your higher priority as compared to AT post and you get qualified in TST as well as within cut off of TST posts, you will get listed for that TST post. If you fail in TST or below cut off of TST posts, your allocation for the subsequent priorities will be examined.

You are advised to wait for the publication of results after conduct of AT and TST to ascertain your final status.

Q: Why the result of NTS posts has not been declared along with the shortlist for AT & TST?

A: Many of the candidates included in the AT/TST shortlists and having these posts as their higher option are also higher in merit for NTS posts. In case these candidates fail to qualify AT/TST or falls below cut off of the AT and/or TST posts and their second stage rank is higher than the cut off of the NTS posts they will essentially get allocated to NTS posts. Therefore the allocation of NTS posts cannot be finalised before result of AT/TST is available.

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Courtesy: RRB

RRB : NTPC Exam Typing Skill Test

RRB : NTPC Exam Typing Skill Test

The Typing Skill Test is qualifying in nature and the candidates appearing in Typing Skill Test have to type in the language opted during application viz. 300 words at the minimum speed of 30 w.p.m. in English or 250 words at 25 w.p.m. in Hindi on computer within 10 minutes to qualify in the test else they (except PWD candidates) will be eliminated from the selection process for Jr. Accounts Assistant- cum-Typist and Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist. They will, however, be eligible to be considered for other posts depending upon their merit cum preferences and suitability. Candidates may please go through other important instructions in the e-call letter carefully. 4. PWD candidates who claim exemption from TypingSkill Test are required to submit the medical certificate stating “Being unable to perform the Typing Skill Test because of his/her physical disability…..” in prescribed proforma (Annexure-VIII of CEN 03/2015, enclosed with e-call letter). The required medical certificate should be issued by a Medical Board attached to the Special Employment Exchange or by a Civil Surgeon/Chief Medical Officer where such a Board does not exist. Such Certificate may be produced at the venue itself on the date of Typing Skill Test, or may be submitted online through the following link from 03.06.2017 onwards but before the date of the examination, failing which they will have to undergo the Typing Skill Test on the scheduled date. 

LINK FOR UPLOADING THE EXEMPTION MEDICAL CERTIFICATE:- 

 
The PWD candidates, who do not submit the requisite medical certificate, seeking such exemption from Typing Skill Test, whether online or at the venue, will have to undergo the Typing Skill Test on the scheduled date. In case any PWD candidate seeking such exemption, does not submit the requisite medical certificate either online or at the venue and also does not turn up on the date/and time of the Typing Skill Test with the medical certificate, he/she will be treated as absent and will be eliminated from the selection process for Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum-Typist and Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist. He/she will, however, be eligible to be considered for other posts depending upon his/her merit cum preferences and suitability...

NEW!  RRB NTPC EXAM CBT Online Test SeriesWith FREE DEMO Test

 

RRB : NTPC Exam Aptitude Test

RRB : NTPC Exam Aptitude Test

 

 

1. Aptitude Test will be conducted in Computer Based Test (CBT) mode. Aptitude test may comprise of several test batteries and the candidates will have to qualify in each of these batteries to be considered for the posts of Assistant Station Master (ASM), (Cat. No.7). Aptitude Test marks of only such candidates, who qualify in each of the batteries individually, will be added to the 2nd Stage written examination(CBT) marks, for drawing the merit list for the posts of Assistant Station Master (ASM), (Cat. No.7). The ratio of 2nd stage CBT marks and Aptitude Test marks shall be 70:30. If a candidate scores less than the respective qualifying marks in any battery of the Aptitude Test, he/she will be eliminated from the selection process for ASM. However, he/she will be eligible to be considered for other posts depending upon his/her merit cum preferences and suitability. The candidates may visit the website of this RRB & view the mock test link for Aptitude Test containing important instructions, testprocedure, norms of evaluation etc. provided to guide the candidates appearing in the computer based Aptitude Test
 
2. In terms of para 8.04 of CEN 03/2015, Candidates called for Aptitude Test for the post of ASM are required to submit Vision Certificate from an Eye Specialist on prescribed proforma as per Annexure-IX of the aforesaid notification, failing which they will not be allowed to appear in Aptitude Test. The medical standards were once again displayed in the modified vacancy table while providing the candidates an opportunity to revise their post preferences on the website of RRBs. It is expected that the candidates would have taken due care regarding their suitability for various posts as per their medical standards while filling up their revised post preferences. Accordingly, all candidates are required to submit a Medical certificate fulfilling requisite Vision Standards from an Eye Specialist as per proforma (AnnexureIX of CEN 03/2015, attached with e-call letter) at the time of Aptitude Test, failing which they will not be permitted to attend the Aptitude Test.
 

Courtesy: RRB

RRB Patna NTPC Tier-2 Results : Candidates qualified for Aptitude Test for the post of Asst. Station Master. (Category 7, CEN No. 03/2015)

rrb ntpc logo

 

RRB Patna NTPC Tier-2 Results : Candidates qualified for Aptitude Test for the post of

Asst. Station Master. (Category 7, CEN No. 03/2015)

 

CONDUCT OF APTITUDE TEST AGAINST CEN-03/2015

Based on the performance in the 2 nd stage Computer Based Test for Non-Technical Popular Category (Graduate) posts against CEN-3/2015 conducted by this Railway Recruitment Board during the period from 17.01.2017 to 19.01.2017, the candidates bearing the following Roll Nos. arranged in ascending order horizontally (not in order of merit), have been provisionally shortlisted to appear in Aptitude Test for the posts of Assistant Station Master (ASM), (Cat. No.7). Accordingly, these shortlisted candidates will be intimated through SMS /e-mail for downloading of e-call letters to appear in Aptitude Test likely to be held in June/July, 2017.

Candidates are advised to check their Roll No. in the short lists for Aptitude Test.

 

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Study Kit for Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Exams

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) एनटीपीसी परीक्षा के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री

Online Coaching for RRB Recruitment Exams

Test Series Programme For Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Exams

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Courtesy: RRB NTPC

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