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NCR Departmental Exam : Others, Objective Question Bank With Answer

NCR Departmental Exam : Other's Objective Question Bank With Answer

Others
Fill in the blanks with correct answer from the following.
 
1. To stop increment of pay up to three year, which effect pension is a ………..penalty.
(a) major (b) minor (c)medium (d)None of these
2. S.F.-3 is given for ……………….
(a) Vehicle allowance (b)substance allowance (c)transport allowance(d)None of these
3. During suspension ……. percentage basic pay and D.A. is given.
(a) 60 (b)50 (c)40 (d)70
4. There is no limit of duty for ………… category.
(a) Intensive(b)continuous (c) essentially intermittent (d)excluded
5. Children below …….. years cannot work in factories.
(a) 21 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 25
6. Welfare inspector works under …………. department.
(a) personal (b) mechanical (c) operating (d) commercial
7. LAP charged at the rate ………… day per month.
(a) 2.5 (b) 3.0 (c) 3.5 (d) 2.0
8. Group of employees involved in employment close the work is called ………...
(a) Protest (b) leave (c) strike (d) None of these.
9. Generally deduction should be up to………. %.
(a) 40 (b) 30 (c) 60 (d) 50
10. As per Factory act overtime should not be more than ………. hours in a week.
(a) 50 (b) 52 (c) 45 (d) 60
11. Dispensary is required for more than ……… employees.
(a) 5000 (b) 500 (c) 200 (d) 150
12. Encashment given at the time of retirement for ………… nos. of LAP leave.
(a) 300 (b) 280 (c) 350 (d) 250
13. Child care leave for female employee given up to ………… days maximum.
(a) 660 (b) 560 (c) 700 (d) 730
14. Silver pass given from ………… grade officer.
(a) JAG (b) Senior Scale (c) SAG (d) none of these.
15. School pass grant for Group ‘C’ employee …………. full set and …….. half set.
(a) 03-06 (b) 04-08 (c) 02-04 (d) None of these
16. Minimum ……….. workers without power required for factory act.
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 30
17. Head quarter of railway safety commission is ……….
(a) Delhi (b) Calcutta (c) Mumbai (d) Chennai.
18. Tuition fees given to ………. serving child of employee.
(a) Younger two (b) Elder two (c) Any two (d) None f
19. The work of concentration difficult or exhaustion is called ………… work in those of employment (HOER).
(a) Continuous (b) Excluded (c)essentially intermittent (d) Intensive
20. Canteen required in factory for more than ………. employees.
(a) 500 (b) 200 (c) 250 (d) 700
21. ………….days given for joining in out station at transfer.
(a) 15 (b) 10 (c) 07 (d) 30
22. Within …………days salary will be given for more than 1000 person according to payment wages act.
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 07
23. Compensation on full permanent disability ……………………………
(a)50 % x basic x age factor (b) 60 % x basic x age factor
(c) 80 % x basic x age factor (d) None of these
24. The pension which is obtained on retirement within a fix age limit is called as ……………….
(a) Supremeannuation (b) Upperannuation (c) Superannuation
(d) None of these
25. Employee is eligible for pension after minimum……… years of continuous service.
(a) 25 (b) 10 (c) 05 (d) 20
26. Minimum compensation money is ………… Rs on permanent full disability.
(a) 140000 (b) 100000 (c) 240000 (d) 200000
27. Supervisor has to communicate the message within ………… hours to the respective officer in case of employee death during working hours.
(a) 24 (b) 48 (c) 56 (d) 66
28. …………. is the Chief of safety Deptt. Of Railway .
(a) CSO (b) CME (c) COM (d) CRSE
29. According to the Rajbhasa Act country is divided in …………regions.
(a) 03 (b) 02 (c) 05 (d) 08
30. Maternity leave is permissible for ….days, on 02 survivals children.
(a) 180 (b) 90 (c) 15 (d) 00
31. …………….. Form is used for Major Penalty.
(a) SF 1 (b) SF 5 (c) SF 9 (d) None of them
32. ------------ is the highest authority of Mechanical Department in Indian Railway.
(a) GM (b) MM (c) CME (d) CWE
33. Chairman of PNM at HQ is …………….
(a) CME (b) SDGM (c) CPO (d) None of these
34. …………….. days LAP is given to group ‘C’ employee?
(a) 15 (b) 30 (c) 08 (d) 12
35. AAC is for …………….. item .
(a) Stock (b) Non stock (c) Imported Stock (d) Emergency Stock
36. PL No. is denoted by -------------digit.
(a) 08 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 06
37. Suspension is a --------------penalty
(a) Major (b) Minor (c) Smallest (d) None of them
38. Stock items are drawl on Form No. -------------.
(a) Requisition (b) Issue Ticket (c) DS 8 (d) None of them
39. ….days, CL is admissible in workshop.
(a) 08 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 15
40. Maternity leave is admissible for ……….. days .
(a) 30 (b) 90 (c) 180 (d) None of them

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NCR Departmental Exam : Chemical and Metallurgy, Objective Question Bank With Answer

NCR Departmental Exam : Chemical and Metallurgy,

Objective Question Bank With Answer

Fill in the blanks with correct answer from the following.
 
1. . …….Metal used in boiler safety plug.
(a) Brass (b) Zink (c) Lead (d) Copper
2. . ...........test is used to detect internal faults of the Axles
(a) Hardness (b) UST (c) DPT (d) None of them
3. Tensile strength of a wire is increased by increasing ………?
(a) Carbon (b) Copper (c) Sulfur (d) All of the above
4. . …………… is the unit of hardness.
(a) BHN (b) Newton (c) Power (d) None of them
5. . ………. has maximum specific heat?
(a) Alcohol (b) Ice (c) Water (d) Veg. oil
6. . ……….. Temperature is equal at 0F & at 0C?
(a) 40 (b) 00 (c) - 40 (d) None
7. . Safety valve of Steam boiler is made of ---------------.
(a) Lead (b) Copper (c) Iron (d) None of these
8. …………gas is used in MIG welding.
(a) CO2 (b) DA (c) Oxygen (d) None of these
9. . ------------ is the Chemical formula of water
(a) H2O (b) H2O2 (c) CO2 (d) None of these
10. ------------ is the unit of Surface finish.
(a) Joule (b) Micron (c) Amp. (d) None of these
11. ------------change Mechanical Energy into Electrical Energy.
(a) Motor (b) Generator (c) Pump (d) None of these
12. ------------ is increased in annealing process
(a) Hardness (b) Softness (c) Toughness (d) None
13. . ------------ is increase by increasing of carbon percentage of steel
(a) Brittleness (b) Ductility (c) softness (d) None of these
14. Water can be purified by ………….
(a) Evaporation (b) RO system (c) Filtering (d) None
15. Chemical formula of copper Sulphate is……………
(a) H2SO4 (b) CuSO4 24 H2O(c) CuSO4 5 H2O (d) None
16. The property to drawing the wire is called …………
(a) Ductality (b) Hardness (c) Stiffness (d) None
17. By increasing the content of sulfur, ……….. increases.
(a) Brittleness (b) Hardness (c) Stiffness (d) None
18. The hardness of Manganese liner is ………… than mild steel.
(a) Less (b) Greater (c) Equal (d) None
19. By tempering …………… increases.
(a) Machinability (b) Hardness (c) Stiffness (d) None
20. …………. % of De-Carbursation is permissible in spring steel bar.
(a) 01 (b) 02 (c) 2.5 (d) None
21. . …………. is removed by peeling of bar.
(a) Fatigue (b) Surface Defect (c) Stiffness (d) None
22. The temperature of Quenching media should not be more than ………. Degree by room temperature.
(a) 50 (b) 10 (c) 100 (d) None
23. Nicrome is a alloy of ……….
(a) Nickel (b) Copper (c) Iron (d) None
24. . ……… are the causes of carbonate and bi-carbonate for the hardness of water.
(a) Calcium-Magnesium (b) Zinc-Magnesium (c)Calcium-Aluminum (d) None
25. . …….. steel is used to make ICF spring.
(a) Silco-Maganese (b) Chrome-Vanadium (c) Stainless Steel (d) None
26. Brittleness increases in steel by increasing ………….
(a) Sulfur (b) Phosphorus (c) Copper (d) None
27. Chisel is made from ………….
(a) Cast Iron (b) Mild Steel (c) High Speed Steel (d) None
28. 0.8 % of carbon and 100% of pearlite in steel is known as ……….
(a) Eutoctoide Steel (b) Hypo Eutoctoide Steel (c) Hyper Eutoctoide Steel (d) None
29. Sheet is made by the property of metal is known as …………
(a) Strength (b) Stiffness (c) Ductility (d) None
30. . ……….. is a non-destructive technique.
(a) Tensile Test (b) Ultrasonic Test (c) Creep Test (d) None
31. . ……….. % silver presents in German Silver.
(a) 01 (b) Nil (c) 08 (d) None
32. . Temperature at which internal changes starts is known as ……….
(a) LCT (b) UCT (c) Normal Temperature (d) None
33. . …………. is done for normalizing in steel.
(a) Fine Grain (b) Remove Stress (c) Ductility (d) None
34. . ………. is a case hardening process.
(a) Carburizing (b) Cyaniding (c) Nitriding (d) All of these
35. The process in which carbon and Nitrogen absorbs is known as …………
(a) Carburizing (b) Cyaniding (c) Induction hardening (d) None
36. . ……. Increases by cold working of metal.
(a) Tensile Strength (b) Hardness (c) Yield Strength (d) None
37. . The process in which cross section of bar reduces and length increases is known as …….
(a) Drawing Down (b) Up setting (c) Peening (d) None
38. The cutting angle of cold chisel is ………. degree.

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NCR Departmental Exam : Workshop Objective Question Bank With Answer

NCR Departmental Exam : Workshop Objective Question Bank With Answer

Fill in the blanks with correct answer from the following.
 
1. Three axis parallel to each other are called ……….. axis
(a) X (b) Y (c) Z (d) XYZ
2. …………...Metal used in boiler safety plug.
(a) Brass (b) Zink (c) Lead (d) Copper
3. Single pipe used in ……….…. wagons.
(a) BOXN (b) BOXNHA (c) BOX (d) BCNHA
4. .............test is being used to detect internal faults of the Axles
(a) Hardness (b) UST (c) DPT (d) None of them
5. Codal life of BTPN wagon is ---…….---
(a) 30 (b) 35 (c) 25 (d) None.
6. Fuel filter changed during ……… schedule
(a) Preventive (b) Breakdown (c) Corrective (d) None of them
7. ……….. Incentive scheme is in Jhansi workshop.
(a) CLW (b) RCF (c) DMW (d) None of them
8. Codal life of wheel lath for two shift working, is -------------- years .
(a) 09 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 30
9. Codal life of Air compressor for three shift working, is -------------- years .
(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 09 (d) 08
10. Safety valve of Steam boiler is sealed by ---------------.
(a) SSE (b) Boiler Inspector (c) Boiler operator (d) WM/plant
11. ………….is Nodal officer for M&P Programme in workshop.
(a) WM/ Plant (b) SSE (c) SSE/Budget (d) None of them .
12. …………gas is used in MIG welding.
(a) CO2 (b) DA (c) Oxygen (d) None of them
13. - ………… is competent for RSP work
(a) GM (b) Railway Board (c) CME (d) CWM
14. ------------ is the highest authority of Mechanical Department in Indian Railway.
(a) GM (b) MM (c) CME (d) CWE
15. Maximum Wheel Dia of BOXN is -------------mm
(a) 1000 (b) 1090 (c) 840 (d) 740
16. Meaning of TQM is …………..
(a) Total Quality Management (b) Total Quantity Management (c) Total Quality Machine (d) None of them
17. EOT crane has ………. Motion.
(a) 02 (b) 03 (c) 04 (d) 08
18. Codal life of wheel lathe for three shift working, is -------------- years.
(a) 15 (b) 09 (c) 20 (d) 30
19. Codal life of air compressor for two shift working, is -------------- years.
(a) 15 (b) 9 (c) 20 (d) 30
20. First POH of BOXN wagon , is done after ……….year .
(a) 06 (b) 4.5 (c) 05 (d) 08
21. Meaning of PCO in workshop is………….
(a) Production Control Organisation (b) Police Control Office (c) Public call on
(d) None of them .
22. ------------ is the highest authority of Mechanical Department in Zonal Railway.
(a) CME (b) CFTM (c) COM (d) CPTM
23. M&P Programme prepared in the month of …………every year .
(a) December (b) June (c) August (d) April
24. ------------- hardness increased in case hardening.
(a) External (b) Internal (c) Full (d) None of them
25. DV is Overhauled in ...................
(a) POH (b) ROH (c) NPOH (d) None of these
26. The work of limit switch is .......................
(a) Safety (b) Easy in operation (c) To stop Crane (d) None of these
27. AAC is for ............... item .
(a) Stock (b) Non stock (c) Imported Stock (d) Emergency Stock
28. ................... type of defects can be detected in DPT test?
(a) Surface (b) Internal (c) Hardness (d) None of them
29. ................. bearing is fitted in BOXN?
(a) CTRB (b) Cylindrical Roller (c) Spherical (d) None of them
30. Rail crane can be work ......................
(a) Only on Track (b) On road (c) On Both (d) None of them
31. Work of spark plug in Petrol Engine is...............
(a) Ignition (b) Compression (c) Power (d) None of these
32. Machine is used to manufacturing gear teeth....................
(a) Lathe (b) Milling (c) Grinding (d) Slotting
33. Machine is used to test hardness of material..............
(a) Brinell (b) UTS (c) Lathe (d) None of these
34. Final fit of wagon is given by ....................
(a) SSE (b) SIO (c) NTXR (d) WM/R
35. Ignition is done in Diesel Engine by..................
(a) Spark plug (b) Injector (c) Governor (d) None of these
36. RCF is located at ...................
(a) Chennai (b) Kapurthala (c) Bangalore (d) None of these
37. Rail spring Workshop is at......................
(a) Varanasi (b) Kapurthala (c) Sitholi (d) None of them
38. In CLW pattern, JE gets .................. incentive

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NCR Departmental Exam : Diesel Objective Question Bank With Ans

NCR Departmental Exam : Diesel Objective Question Bank With Answer

Fill in the blanks with correct answer from the following.
 
1. Fuel oil relief valve Pressure is............... kg/cm2
(A) 08 (B) 5.2 (C) 7.2 (D) 2.2
2. Work of after cooler is to increase .............
(A) Quantity (B) Density (C) Volume (D) None
3. Temperature of ETS.3 is .............. 0C
(A) 90 (B) 160 (C) 85 (D) 150
4. Brake system of WDM2 is ..............
(A) 25 SAB1 (B) 22RSV1 (C) 28LAV1 (D) None
5. Tractive effort of WDM2 locomotive is ..............kg.
(A) 38000 (B) 45600 (C) 32400 (D) 34000
6. Suction timing of WDM2 locomotive...............
(A) 273028’ (B) 173028’ (C) 73028’ (D) None
7. Opening time of inlet valve of WDM2 locomotive is ...--
(A) 43048’ (B) 48048’ (C) 633048’ (D) None
8. Axle load of WDM2 locomotive is ..............ton.
(A) 18.8 (B) 20.0 (C) 20.3 (D) 13.8
9. Minimum wheel diameter of locomotive is .............mm.
(A) 1000 (B) 950 (C) 906 (D) 1016
10. Maximum wheel diameter of locomotive is .............mm.
(A) 1000 (B) 990 (C) 1092 (D) 950
11. Regulating Valve Pressure of lubricating Oil ...............kg/m2.
(A) 04 (B) 03 (C) 05 (D) 08
12. Opening time of Exhaust Valve of WDM2 is ................
(A) 41.28 (B) 68.48 (C) 78.02 (D) None
13. Fuel Oil tank capacity of WDM2 locomotive is .............liter.
(A) 6000 (B) 5000 (C) 2000 (D) None
14. Compression Ratio of WDM2 loco is .............
(A) 1 : 12.5 (B) 1 : 7 (C) 1 : 15 (D) 1 : 18
15. There are.............. nos. traction motor fitted in locomotive.
(A) 06 (B) 04 (C) 03 (D) 02
16. Break.in pressure of fuel oil injector is ............ PSI.
(A) 1000 (B) 3000 (C) 2000 (D) 4000
17. Type of bogie fitted in WDM2 is .................
(A) CO.CO (B) BO.BO (C) BO.CO (D) None.
18. During modification of flesher light time delay is set at ..............
(A) 30 Sec (B) 120 Sec (C) 60 Sec (D) None
19. Oil capacity of Suspension Bearing in WDM3A is .............litre.
(A) 4.5 (B) 08 (C) 6.5 (D) None
20. First Notch Current of WDM2 is ............Amp.
(A) 200 (B) 100 (C) 400 (D) 300
21. Power time of WDM2 locomotive is ………….
(A) 138032’ (B) 118032’ (C) 128032’ (D) 100032’
22. Closing time of exhaust valve of WDM2 loco is………..
(A) 900 (B) 600 (C) 300 (D) 1200
23. Capacity of Water in water cooling system is ……….liter
(A) 1210 (B) 1000 (C) 1510 (D) 2000
24. Correction factor of ABC is …………….
(A) 0.9 (B) 1.4 (C) 8.2 (D) None
25. IHP of WDM2 loco is ……………
(A) 2750 (B) 3100 (C) 2600 (D) 2800
26. No of filter in filter drum is ………….
(A) 05 (B) 10 (C) 07 (D) 08
27. RPM of WDM2 engine in idle condition is …………..
(A) 400 (B) 300 (C) 1000 (D) 450
28. After operating of PCS engine become ……….
(A) Idle (B) Start (C) under repair (D) None
29. No. of rings in steel cap piston is ………….
(A) 07 (B) 06 (C) 05 (D) None
30. Type of Bogie of WDS6 is …………
(A) Co.C0 (B) Bo.Bo (C) Bo.Co (D) None
31. Viscosity of lube oil at 1000C is …………. Centi stock
(A) 210 (B) 120 (C) 110 (D) None
32. In lube oil system bypass valve pressure is …………
(A) 10 PSI (B) 20 PSI (C) 30 PSI (D) None
33. Tappet Clearance of WDM2 locomotive is …………… thou
(A) 34 (B) 32 (C) 30 (D) 36
34. No. of Lead acid batteries fitted in locomotive are ................
(A) 08 (B) 06 (C) 10 (D) 12
35. DC traction ............ is used in locomotive.
(A) Motor (B) Battery (C) Generator (D) None
36. Engine RPM at the time of dynamic braking is ...............
(A) 650 (B) 7580 (C) 500 (D) 580
37. In transition panel of WDM2 locomotive no. of transition card are .............
(A) 06 (B) 08 (C) 04 (D) 02
38. For battery charging and lighting of locomotive ...............generator is fitted.

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC) ESTABLISHMENT, STORES & GENERAL QUESTIONS-QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC)

PART – D
(ESTABLISHMENT, STORES & GENERAL QUESTIONS)
QUESTION & ANSWERS:
 
Q.1 What is Honorarium?
Ans: Honorarium is a remuneration for work performed which is occasional or intermittent in character and either so laborious or of such special merit on to justify a special reward.
 
Q.2What is substantive Pay?
Ans: Substantive pay means the pay other than special pay, personal pay or emoluments classified as pay by the President under Rule 1303(iii) to which Railway Servant is entitled on account of post to which he has been appointed substantively or by reasons of his substantive position in a cadre.
 
Q.3What is meaning of “Officiating”?
Ans: Officiating Means the Railway Servant officiate in a post where he performs the duties of a post on which any other person holds a lien or when a competent authority appoints him to officiate in a vacant post on which no other railway servant holds lien.
 
Q.4 What is LDCE?
Ans: Limited Departmental Competitive Examination. In Civil, Electrical, Mechanical, S&T Dep. 25% of Vacancies are filled by this minimum pass Marks are 60%.
 
Q.5 What is Dearness Allowance?
Ans: Dearness Allowance is in the nature of compensation for Established increase in the cost of living and comprised of Dearness Allowance, Additional Dearness Allowance and Dearness Pay as the Government may from time to time decide.
 
Q.6 Which are the allowances are exempted from the income tax?
Ans: 1. Sumptuary Allowance and uniform Allowance
2. Death cum Retirement gratuity received by Government Servant their families.
3. Gratuity received by an employee
4. Any payment in commutation of pension.
5. Amount by way of encashment of unutilized earned leave.
6. Any some received under life insurance policy.
 
Q.7 Elaborate Vigilance Organization and what is Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003?
Ans: Vigilance implies a state of being watchful or on the alert. There is a Chief Vigilance commission for all Central Government Ministries and departments. Indian Railway had set up a Vigilance unit under a under Control of Sr.,Dy. ,GM on Zonal Railways. CVC ACT, 2003 Mandates - the Central Vigilance Commission to enquire or cause an enquiry into complaints against public servants wherein allegations of corruption are involved. The commission can cause an enquiry through the Chief Vigilance Officer of the Organization concerned or CBI or any other anti-corruption investigating agency under the Government of India.
 
Q.8 What is Arbitration?
Ans: Arbitration is a device for setting up difference between the Railway Administration and contractor by intervention of third person without the help of Court of Laws. Under the procedure the contractor may call for arbitration after 90 days of his presentation of final claim on disputed matter. There would be two Arbitration and also umpire over them. Arbitrators are appointed by General Manager.
 
Q.9 What are the objectives of PREM?
Ans: The broad objectives of PREM are :
1. evaluate the functioning of the Railways and exchange date and ideas on way and means of improving the efficiency and viability of the enterprise
2. to facilitate effective and meaningful participation of the Railway employees in the management process.
3. to discuss and identify the measures for improving the quality of service in the rail passengers and safety operations.

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC) ESTABLISHMENT, STORES & GENERAL QUESTIONS-OBJECTIVE

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC)

PART – D
(ESTABLISHMENT, STORES & GENERAL QUESTIONS)
OBJECTIVE:
 
Ranker Section – B Question Bank – General (Common to all Trades) Each question carries one mark.

1)   Chief Electrical Engineer is the Electrical head of the South Central Railway.

2)   The full form of CESE is Chief Electrical Service Engineer

3)   Inventory can be in the form of Raw materials, supplies, in process goods .

4)   In computer terminology, LAN stands for Local area network.

5)   I.R.S stands for Indian Railway standard.

6)   21  languages are recognized by the eighth schedule

7)   On passing of which examination conducted by the Hindi Training Scheme, Personal pay will be given Pragya.

8)   Metal Token pass issued to Officers.

9)   Maternity leave can be granted for a maximum period of 180 Days.

10) Maximum LHAP that can be granted at one time 24 Months.

 

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11) RDSO stands for Research, Design and Standards Organisationorganisation.

12) RDSO located at Lucknow.

13) An employee can be deemed suspended, if he is detained in custody for more than 48 hrs reviewed

14)  According to D and AR, commission means UPSC.

15) Railway Board located at New Delhi

16) Women employees having two minor children may be granted child care leave for a maximum period of 730 days during their entire service.

17) Rejected saleable scrap should be sent to Scrap Depot, Lallaguda.

18) Dismissal is a more serious punishment.

19) PHOD stands for Principle Head of the department.

20) Extraordinary leave can be granted in combination with other leaves except CL.

21) PHOD of the Electrical Department CEE.

22) During Hospital leave full salary is granted for a period of 120 days.

23) During Special Disability leave full salary is granted for a period of 120 days.

24) Head quarters of South Central Railway is located at Secunderabad.

25) SCR stands for South Central Railway.

26) Following leaves can be granted in combination LAP+LHAP+ Commuted leave.

27) For donation of blood one day Special Casual Leave.

28) Decode COFMOW Central Organisation for Modernization of Workshops.

29) Compulsory retirement is a Major penalty.

30) ISO stands for  Institute of Science and Ocean studies.

31) EMS stands for Environmental Management system.

32) ISO 9000 Series deals with QMS.

33) ISO 14000 Series deals with EMS.

34) S1302A indent will be generated, when the value of material is more than Rs. 10,000/-.

35) With holding of the Privilege Passes or Privilege ticket order or both is a Minor penalty.

36) Rs. 2800/- is the grade pay of Technician –I

37) Paternity leave can be granted for a maximum period of 15 days.

38) Periodicity for checking the fire extinguisher 3 months.

39) The term CCA stands for city compensatory allowance.

40) Leave cannot be claimed as a matter of right.

41) The leave sanctioning authority may refuse or revoke of any kind of leave.

42)  The leave sanctioning authority cannot alter the kind of leave due and applied for.

43) LAP can be accumulated up to maxim of 300 days.

44) Commuted leave not exceeding half the amount of half pay leave due can be taken on medical certificate.

45) Leave not due during the entire service is limited to maximum of 360 days.

46) The duration of maternity  leave is for 135 days.

47) ISO 9000 Series deals with  QMS

48) ISO 14000 Series deals with EMS

49) ISO 18001 Series deals with OHSAS

50) If attempts are made to make an instrument very sensitive, quality is likely to be impaired is precision.

51) In computer terminology, ID address is computer address

52) In computer terminology, IP stands for Internet protocol

53) In computer terminology, ORACLE is a Database.

54) Hospital leave can be granted for a maximum period of 28 months.

55) In computer terminology, LAN stands for  local area network .

56) In computer terminology, HTTP is an Protocol.

57) I.R.S stands for Indian Railway standard.

58) In computer terminology, IDE is related to HDD.

59) How many languages are recognized by the eighth schedule 21.

60) In computer terminology, Modem is a  Analog to Digital / Digital to Analog converter.

61) Rail wheel factory located at Yelahanka, Bangalore.

62) In computer terminology, ISP is a service provider.

63) In computer terminology, MB stands for mega bytes.

64) In computer terminology, NTFS is a file system.

65) In computer terminology, One kilo byte is equal to 1024 bites.

66) In computer terminology, 80386 Processor is a 32 bit microprocessor chip used in personal computers.

67) In computer terminology, Gateway in computers A device that connects dissimilar networks.

68) Leave not due shall not be granted in case of leave preparatory.

69) LHAP can be converted in half period of leave on an average pay on medical grounds is called commuted leave..

70) Action to eliminate the cause of a detected non conformity is Corrective action.

71) Meeting of PREM committee at Railway board, zonal Railway and Divisional Railway level will a quarter.

72) RWF stands for Rail wheel factory.

73) In computer terminology, ISP stands for Internet service provide.

74) Gear tooth vernier is used to measure pitch line thickness of gear.

75) Accuracy is agreement of the result of a measurement with the true value of the measure quantity.

76) Acronym of LHB Linke Hoffman Bosch.

77) In computer terminology, AGP stands for  Advanced graphics port.

78) An abbreviation made up of the first letters of a series of words is called acronym.

79) In computer terminology, Bluetooth is a communication device.

80) Censure is a Minor penalty C.

81) House rent allowance for ‘X’ classified cities is  30% of basic pay.

82) House rent allowance for 'Y' classified cities is 20% of basic pay.

83) House rent allowance for 'Z' classified cities is10% of basic pay.

84) For the purpose of HRA Hyderabad  is ‘X’ classified city.

85) For the purpose of HRA Warangal  is ‘Y’ classified city.

86) For the purpose of HRA Tirupathi is ‘Z’ classified city.

87) In computer terminology, a CD-R drive that can read CDs.

88) In computer terminology, a CD drive that can read, write, and the rewrite CDs CD-RW drive.

89) In computer terminology, A high-capacity disc that uses optical technology to store data in a form that can be read but not written over CD-ROM.

90) A non railway official can assist 3 D and AR cases at most.

91) A photo electric device in which the resistance of the metal changes directly proportional to the light striking on it, is called photo conductive cell.

92) A tooth paste tube can be produced by hollow backward extrusion.

93) In Electronics terminology, DTS is related to sound system.

94) In computer terminology, DVD stands for Digital versatile disk.

95) Email address uses @ symbol.

96) For P.N.M. meeting's agenda should be submitted by the union for discussion1 before 2 days in advance of Schedule date of meeting.

97) CAMTECH located at Gwalior.

98) Errors which are regularly repetitive in nature are systematic errors.

99) In computer terminology, DOS stands for disk operating system.

100) Expand the term CAMTECH centre for advanced maintenance technology.

101) In computer terminology, DNS stands for domain name system.

102) In computer terminology, CPU stands for central processing uni

103) D and AR formed in the year 1968.

104) In computer terminology, data transmission is measured in bits/s.

105) Optical flats are made of quartz.

106) 3000/- will be given for festival advance.

107) 3000/-  will be given for Cycle advance.

108) In computer terminology, key board is the input device of PC.

109) In computer terminology, CPU is the out put device of PC.

110) With holding of privilege pass for 10 years is minor  penalty

111)  With holding of the Privilege Passes or Privilege ticket order or both is a …  Minorpenalt y  ….

112) In Computer terminology, RED HAT is related to LINUX.

113) Reduction to lower stage in time scale of pay by one stage for a period exceeding three year is a major

114)   Reduction to lower stage in time scale of pay by one stage for a period not exceeding three year is a minor penalty

115) In computer terminology, RAM stands for random access memory

116) The D and A rules are derived from 309.article of Indian constitution.

117) Festival advance can be recovered in  …10 …..equal instalments.

118) PEASD stands for Passenger emergency alarm signal device

119) PEAV stands for Passenger Emergency alarm valve

120) On motor cycle advance, interest can be recovered

121) Dy.CMM/M&E/LGD can recouped the stock items value up to Two Lakhs through local purchase

122) TRD stands for Traction distribution

123) UPS stands for uninterruptible power supply

124) A railway servant shall be permitted to encash leave on average pay upto 10 days

125) For availing encashment leave  …3 0……. .days of leave on average pay should be available to employee’s credit after taking into account the period of encashment as well as leave availed of.

126)  The total leave so encashed on average pay during the entire career shall not exceed  …60.….d

127) Expand RELHS Retired Railway Employees Liberalised Health scheme

128) How many berths available in AC two tier coach 48

129) What is RSP rolling stock programme.

130) How many clauses are there in ISO 9001:2000(E) quality system 8

131) What is the maximum speed of Duranto Express 160 Kmph

132) The number of slip gauges in a set are 103

133) The retired railway servant can hold not more than seven D and AR cases in his hand to act as defence helper.

 

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC) OFFICIAL LANGUAGE ACT AND RULES- QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC)

Part – C
(OFFICIAL LANGUAGE ACT AND RULES)
Questions and Answers:
 
Q.1. Why is Hindi divas celebrated and When? Or What is importance of Hindi Divas?
Ans: 14th September is celebrated as Hindi Day because the Constituent Assembly of India had adopted in Devanagari Script as the Official Language of the Union on 14th September 1949.
 
Q.2 What are Documents to be issued in Hindi-English bilingual form under Section 3(3) of OL Act, 1963?
Ans The following documents have to be issued in Hindi-English bilingual form simultaneously
(i) Resolutions, general orders, Rules, Notifications, Administrative reports or other reports or Press communiqués.
(ii) Administrative and other Reports and Official Papers lay before a House or the Houses of the Parliament.
(iii) Contracts and agreements executed and licenses permits, notices and forms tender issued.
 
Q.3 How many members are in parliamentary Committee of Official Language and how they are elected?
Ans The Committee consists of thirty members, out of them twenty members shall be from the House of the People (LOK SABHA) and ten shall be from the council of states (RAJYA SABHA). They are elected respectively by the members of the house of people and the members of the Council of States in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote system.
 
Q.4 What are provision of OL Act, 1963 that are not applicable to Jammu and Kashmir?
Ans: The provisions of section 6 and section 7 shall not apply to the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
 
Q.5 What do you mean by proficiency in Hindi?
Ans: A Government servant who have studied SSLC/SSC/Matric or equivalent in Hindi Medium. or Studied Hindi as an optional subject in Inter or Degree or at higher level. Passed SSC/Matric with Hindi as language with minimum pass marks.
 
Q.6 What do you mean by working knowledge in Hindi?
Ans: A Govt. employee who have studied Hindi as a Second Language/Third Language in SSLC/SSC/Matric or equivalent or Inter/Degree or Passed Hindi Pragya examination or prescribed Hindi Dept. Exam (i.e. Prabodh or Praveen)
 
Q.7 Who is responsible for use of Hindi or English for issuance of documents comes under Section 3(3)?
Ans: Both Hindi and English shall be used for all documents referred to in sub section (3) of section 3 of OL Act. 1963 and it shall be the responsibility of persons signing such documents to ensure that such documents are made, executed or issued both Hindi and English.
 
Q.8 Can any Govt. servant write notes etc. in Hindi only?
Ans: Yes, As per Rule No.8 of OL Rules, 1976, an employee may record a note or minute on a file in Hindi or in English without being himself required to furnish a translation there of in the other language.
 
Q.9 Who is responsible to implement the Hindi in Govt. Offices?
Ans: It shall be the responsibility of the administrative head of each Central Govt. Office to implement official language Hindi in their offices.

 

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC) OFFICIAL LANGUAGE ACT AND RULES - OBJECTIVE

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC)

Part – C
(OFFICIAL LANGUAGE ACT AND RULES)
OBJECTIVE:
 
1. In terms of Article 343 (1) of the Constitution of India _________Language in ________Script shall be the Official language of the Union. (Hindi, Devanagari)
 
2 Article 343(2) of the Constitution of India empowers to authorize use of Hindi and ___________numerals in addition English (Internation form of Indian numerals).
 
3 The Official Language Act was passed in _________________(Yr. 1963)
 
4 According to Official Language Rules, India is divided into ______________regions and they are __________, ___________________and ________________(3 A, B and C)
 
5 States that come under ______ region are Bihar, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, New Delhi. (A)
 
6 The States that come under Region are Gujarat, Maharashtra, Punjab, Andaman Nicobar, Chandigarh (B) States Other than mentioned under the categories A and B, come under Region
 
7 Non-Hindi speaking states come under __________Region. (C)
 
8 Target for Originating Correspondence from C to A, B and C Regions ______% (55%).
 
A cash Award of Rs.___________ is given under Railway Minister’s Rajbhasha Shield (7000/-).
 
10 Communications from Central Government Offices to the States, Offices and persons in ______ region shall be in Hindi, and if it is in English, a Hindi translation shall accompany. (A)
 
11 Communications from Central Govt. Offices to States or Offices in ______Region shall be in Hindi, and if it is in English, Hindi translation shall accompany (A).
 
12 Communications from Central Govt. Offices to persons in Region B shall be in ___ (Hindi)
 
13 Communications from Central Government Offices to States or Persons in Region C shall be in ______________(Hindi/English)
 
14 Communications between Central Government Offices _____between one Ministry or Department and another may be in ___________(Hindi/English).
 
15 Communications between Central Government Offices_______between one Ministry or Department and attached/subordinate offices in Region A may be in _______depending on number of persons having another may be in ____(Hindi)
 
16 Communications between Central Govt. Offices in Region A shall be in ___ (Hindi)
 
17 Communications between Central Govt. Offices in Region B or C may be in _______ (Hindi or English)
 
18 Translations of such communication shall be provided along with the communication where it is addressed to Offices in _______________(C region)
 
19 Representations may be submitted by an employee in _________(Hindi).
 
20 Representations, when made/signed in Hindi shall be replied to in ________(Hindi)
 
21 Notings in Central Government Offices may be made by an employee in _____________and no_____be required to furnish a translation of it. (Hindi only, translation)
 
22 If an employee has working knowledge of Hindi, he will not ask for English translation of a Hindi document, unless it is of _________nature. (Technical)
 
23 Manuals, Codes, Forms, Notices etc. shall be printed or cyclostyled in _______form (Hindi/English diglot form).
 
24 The forms and heading on registers shall be in ________________(bilingual form)
 
25 All name plates, sign boards, letter heads, inscriptions on envelopes and other stationery etc. shall be in _________________(Bilingual form).
 
26 Responsibility for compliance of the Official Language Rules shall be that of (Administrative Head/Head of the Office).
 
27 Andhra Pradesh and Kerala states come under ___________Region (C)

 

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NCR Departmental Exam : Carriage and Wagon Objective Question Bank

NCR Departmental Exam : Carriage and Wagon Objective Question Bank

C&W Objective Question Bank

(English Version)

Fill in the blanks picking up the appropriate option.

1. Riding Index of ICF Coach is -----------.

(a) 3.5    (b) 4.78              (c) 5.8      (d) 2.2

2. Maximum Speed of LHB Coach is -------------KMPH.

(a) 120    (b) 160    (c) 110      (d) 130

3. --------------- roller bearing is used in BTPN.

(a) Cylindrical   (b) Plan  (c) Cartage taper      (d) Ball

4. POH of BOX N Wagon is done at the interval of -------------month.

(a) 12     (b) 09    (c) 18       (d) 54

5. POH of ICF Coach is done at the interval of ------------month.

(a) 24        (b) 12   (c) 18         (d) 30

6. Axle Load of Non- AC coach is -------------ton.

(a) 16.0    (b) 13.0               (c) 20.3   (d) 18.3

7. Minimum buffer height of coach from Rail level is ---------------mm.

(a) 1030      (b) 1105        (c) 900      (d) 1075

8. Length of modified brake beam hanger in Indo-German project is -----------mm.

(a) 325  (b) 235 (c) 250        (d) 150

9. Maximum Flange thickness of worn wheel profile is ………… mm.

(a) 22    (b) 16   (c) 25      (d) 28.5

10. Roof sheet thickness in BCNA wagon is --------------mm.

(a) 2.4 (b) 0.6  (c) 1.6             (d) 2.5

11. Material of Floor sheet of BOXR wagon is --------------

(a) Mild Steal    (b) Corton Steal   (c) Stainless Steel  (d) Non of them

12. Wheel base of casnub bogie is ------------------ mm.

(a) 2000       (b) 2400                 (c) 1200    (d) 900

13. Length of anchor link is -----------mm.

(a) 451   (b) 500   (c) 580     (d) None of these

14. Testing of alarm chain is done at -----------Kg weight.

(a) 05    (b) 10    (c) 25      (d) 20

15. Greasing of equalizing stay rod is done in--------------schedule.

a) A      (b) B    (c) C          (d) D

16. A dimension of high speed Coach is -------------mm.

(a) 16±2    (b) 18±2   (c) 22±2    (d) None of these

17. DCP Type fire extinguisher is suitable to extinguish -------------- fire.

(a) Diesel  (b) Electric      (c) Petrol      (d) All

18. There are………….Nos. of  lavatory in a LHB coach

(a) 02   (b) 03  (c) 04     (d) 06

19. Minimum buffer height of goods wagon is -------------mm.

(a) 1030    (b) 1075      (c) 1105      (d) 995

20. Minimum Wheel dia of Casnub Bogie is -------------mm.

(a) 1000           (b) 906          (c) 1092 (d) 950

21. Condemn height of Elastomeric Pad is -------------mm.

(a) 40   (b) 42  (c) 46      (d) None

22. ------------ bearing is used in UIC Bogie.

(a) Cylindrical   (b) Spherical   (c) CTRB      (d) None of these

23. Permissible variation in Wheel dia of same casnub bogies of a wagon is ------------mm.

(a) 5   (b) 10   (c) 13       (d) 25

24. Permissible limit of sharp flange of wheel is ------------mm.

(a)  35         (b) 50             (c)  16   (d) None of these

25. ------------mm packing is used in Casnub Bogie to adjust CBC height.

(a) 37       (b) 25   (c) 35        (d) None of these

26. A dimension of BOXN is ------------mm.

(a) 70 ± 2    (b) 70+2-0    (c) 50 ± 2     (d)22 ± 2

27. In empty condition of BOXN Piston stroke is ------------mm.

(a) 75±10   (b) 85±10        (c) 130±10  (d) 60±10

28. BOXNHL feed pipe pressure is ------------ Kg/Cm2

(a) 5 (b) 6     (c) 3.8           (d) None of these

29. Axle is checked by ------------.

(a) DPT   (b) UST   (c) Wheel gauge      (d) None of these

30. Track gauge distance on a straight track is ------------mm.

(a) 1676±6      (b) 1600+2-1     (c) 1599          (d) None

31. Over hauling of Alarm chain system is done after ------------ Month.

(a) 3   (b) 5   (c) 9       (d) None of these

32. Centre pivot of Casnub Bogie is made of ------------

(a) Cast Iron    (b) Cast steel   (c) Mild Steel     (d) Stainless Steel

33. Proof load Capacity of enhance screw coupling is ------------ton.

(a) 36  (b) 70   (c) 75        (d) 130

34. In one unit of BLC wagon there are ------------ car A unit.

(a) 3   (b) 5     (c)  2           (d)  4

35. Maximum buffer height of goods wagon is ------------mm.

(a) 1030        (b) 1075         (c) 1105      (d) 995

36. Maximum Wheel dia of UIC bogie is ------------mm.

(a) 1000   (b) 990    (c) 1092      (d) 950

37. Free height of CC Pad is ------------.

(a) 114   (b) 36  (c) 56      (d) None of these

38. ------------ bearing is used in casnub bogie.

(a) Cylindrical   (b) Spherical   (c) CTRB      (d) None of these

39. Permissible Wheel dia difference of both casnub bogies of a wagon is ------------mm.

(a) 5   (b) 10   (c) 13       (d) 25

40. Permissible limit of Deep flange in wheel is------------mm.

(a) 35            (b) 50            (c) 28    (d) 22

41. 37 MM packing is used in 22 WM casnub bogie to adjust CBC height wheel dia------------mm

(a) 924   (b) 900   (c) 905      (d) 950

42. A dimension of BTPN is------------mm.

(a) 70 ± 2    (b) 70+2-0    (c) 50 ± 2     (d)22 ± 2

43. Piston stroke of BTPN (empty condition) is ------------mm.

(a) 70±10     (b) 87±10        (c) 130±10  (d) 117±10

44. Brake pipe pressure is------------Kg/Cm2

(a) 5      (b) 6     (c) 3.8           (d) 4

45. ------------ is checked with tyre defect gauge.

(a) wheel defect  (b) Buckle defect  (c) CBC defect     (d) door defect

46. Wheel gauge (distance between two wheels) is ------------.

(a) 1600±2     (b) 1600+2-1     (c) 1599          (d) 1676±3

47. Riding index of LHB coach is ------------.

(a) 2.75   (b) 2.0    (c) 4.8      (d) None of these

48. Friction cofficient of K type composite brake block is ------------.

(a) 1.4            (b) 2.8         (c) 1.6   (d) 0.25

49. In one unit of BLC wagon there are ----------- car B unit.

(a) 3    (b) 5     (c)  2           (d)  4

50. ----------- gms Grease is used in CTRB.

(a) 455±30    (b) 250±30   (c) NIL       (d) 1500

 

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SCR Question Bank for the Post of Trains Clerk (TNC'S)

Question Bank for the Post of Trains Clerk (TNC'S)

 

Question Bank for the Post of TNC’S in Pay Band Rs.5200 to 20200 GP Rs.1900 against 33 1/3 Quota in Operating “SC” Division.  2015

How many Zones are there in Indian Railways, Write them with their Head Quarters?

What are the zonal interchange points on ‘SC’ Railway, Write them? What are the divisional interchange points of Secunderabad division write them?

1.Write important junctions of SC Railway?

2.What  are  the  basic  and  additional  passenger  amenities  provided  at  major station?

3.What are the passenger amenities provided on a superfast trains?

4.What are the salient futures of 1967 Act Hindi official language policy?

5.What are 1976 Rules of Hindi official language policy and what are the states which comes under A, B and C regions?

6.Write briefly about Hindi official language policy?

7.Briefly explain organizational set up of Indian Railways?

8.What are the various departments of Indian Railways? Briefly explain them?

9.How many states and union territories are there in India write them?

10.What  are  the  various  classes  of  accommodation  available  by  various passenger carrying trains?

11.What are the signals which are in use on Indian Railways explain them by way of flow chart?

12.What is shunting? What are the authorities used for shunting?

13.What is marshalling yard? How many types of marshalling yards are there.Explain briefly?

14.What are the important records to be maintained in yard office?

15.What is marshalling? Explain marshalling of Explosives and Dead engines?

16.What is marshalling? Explain marshalling of SLR’s?

17.Briefly explain marshalling of mail/express trains and passengers trains?

18.Briefly explain marshalling of mixed train?

19.What are the causes and remedies for marshalling yard congestion?

20.What are the duties of TNC at the time of arrival and departure of a train?

21.What are the duties of TNC at the time of attaching/ detaching of vehicles at a station?

22.Write short notes on

a.Placement memo

b.Release memo

c.Cut memo

d.Irregularity memo.

e.Wagon exchange register

23.What is FOIS? Write its advantages?

24.What are the different types of freight trains run on Indian Railways?

25.What is ART and what it comprises of ?

26.What is the different between wayside station and junction station?

27.Write the differences between

a. semaphore and colour light signals.

b. TALQ and MAUQ Signals?

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Indian Railways QUESTION BANK : RDSO On OHE

Indian Railways QUESTION BANK : RDSO On OHE

Class 12 papers

CONTENTS

 

 

 

   Item No.    Description                                                                 Page No.

 

Foreword Preface Contents Correction Slip

iii iv v vii

 

1.

 

ABBREVIATIONS & ELECTRICAL TERMS RELATED TO OHE

 

01

2.

25 KV AC TRACTION SYSTEM

06

3.

SPAN LENGTH, TENSION LENGTH

10

4.

WIND PRESSURE ON CONVENTIONAL OHE & SAG

12

5.

ENCUMBRANCE, GRADIENT OF THE CONTACT WIRE

14

6.

HEIGHT OF CONTACT WIRES, LEVEL CROSSING GATE

16

7.

DROPPERS & OTHER OHE CONDUCTORS

18

8.

STAGGER

23

9.

REGULATED/UNREGULATED OHE

26

10.

DIFFERENT OHE SYSTEMS, PRE SAG  AND ELASTICITY OF OHE

28

11.

OVERLAP AND NEUTRAL SECTION

32

12.

TURN OUTS & CROSSOVERS

36

13.

SECTION INSULATOR, 25 KV AC JUMPERS

39

14.

BRACKET ASSEMBLY

43

15.

ELECTRICAL CLEARANCES AND LIGHTNING ARRESTOR

46

16.

BONDING & EARTHING

48

17.

MAST, FABRICATED MAST AND PORTALS

51

18.

FOUNDATIONS

56

19.

IMPLANTATION

59

20.

OHE INSULATORS & CLASSIFICATION OF INSULATIONS AND VOLTAGES

 

 

60

21.

Over Dimension Consignment (ODC)

64

22.

AUTO TENSIONING DEVICE  (ATD)

66

23.

OHE MAINTENANCE

71

24.

MAINTENANCE BLOCKS & OHE BREAKDOWNS

74

25.

ELECTRICAL CROSSING OF THE RAILWAY TRACKS

77

26.

GENERAL, SAFETY RULES FOR OHE AND MEASURING TOOLS

81

 

 

ANSWERS

 

85

 

 

REFERENCES

 

91

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC) DESCRIPTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC)

Part – B
(POWER)
DESCRIPTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS:
 
1)List out the various types of Maintenance schedules for Equipment used in Power Maintenance?
2)Explain the following Schedule Maintenance
A     Fortnightly of CLS Panel
B     Yearly of Sub-Station
C     Quarterly of Pumps
D     Yearly of D.G.Sets
E     Half Yearly of Earth Electrode
f      Yearly of Transformers
g     Monthly of AC (split & Window)
h     Monthly of Water coolers
I      Monthly of Solar Geyser
 
3) Design & List out the materials required for Electrification of the following:
a     LC Gate including Road lighting
b     Dy.SS Room
c     VIP Lounge at station
d     ORH (Double bed room)
e     Booking Office at ‘B’ Class
f      Running Room 6 beds.
 
4) Define the Energy Audit and Conduct the Energy Audit of
a    Sanchalan Bhavan
b    Any Coaching Depot
c    Hospital
 
5)What are the Energy Conservation measures to be adopted at home and work place?
 
6)Explain Procedure for working on 11KV OH Lines?
 
7)What are the Safety measures to be adopted for
(i) Working on (11KV) HT installations.
(ii) Working in the Vicinity of 25KV OH traction line.
 
8) What are the Fire Prevention measures to be adopted for –
i)       Transformers
ii)      Batteries and also Internal wiring of -
a)      Air-conditioners
b)      Switch Boards
c)      SDB’s
 
9)      Explain how the efficiently of Pumps is measured.
 
10)    What are the major parameters to be observed in OH Power line crossings?
 
11)    Explain the procedure for taking a person on IOD?
 
12)    What are the various types of electrical accidents and explain the preliminary First aid to be given in case of Electrical accidents.
 
13)    What are the requirements and tests for obtaining EIG approval of a newly erected 11KV sub. Station of 250 KVA capacity?
 
14)    What are the Electrical Safety precautions to be taken at home, workplace and surroundings?
 
15)    What are the activities carried out by SC Division during Energy Conservation Week of 14th Dec – 21st Dec 2011?
16)    Explain -
(1) SOB
(2) Technical Circular
(3) Safety Circular
(4) AC Message
(5) Safety Meeting

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC) WRITE SHORT NOTES

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC)

Part – B
(POWER)
WRITE SHORT NOTES:
 
1) Why earthing is necessary for any electrical equipments, domestic installation & service building etc?
Ans: To drain away any leakage of currents due to poor insulation and to save human life from dangerous shock and also to avoid burnt of electrical equipment.
 
2) What are Different type of earth conductor and sizes?
Ans: a) Copper plate electrode Minimum 60 cm X 60 cm X 3.15 mm
b) Galvanized iron & steel plate electrode 60 cm X 60 cm X 6.3 mm
c) G.I. Pipe electrode internal diameter 50 mm and length 2.5 Mtrs
 
3) Action to be taken if the resistance to earth of earth electrode is high?
Ans: Earth resistance depends upon soil conductivity. To reduce earth resistance dig around the earth electrode, clean all the rust around earth plate or pipe. Sprinkle the common salt dissolved water in the pit and pack it up with powdered coke & salt. If it is not possible provide additional earths and connects all the earth points in parallel by solid jumper connections.
 
4) What happens if electrical connection or electrical joint is loose?
Ans: due to loose connection at joints resistance at that point will increase thereby the I²R loses are more and develops heat. The total wiring may burn.
 
5) Explain how to use Fire extinguisher practically?
Ans: a) Pull the pin at the top of the extinguisher.
b) Aim the nozzle towards the base of the fire.
c) Stand approximately 8 feet away from the fire and squeeze the handle to discharge the extinguisher.
d) Sweep the nozzle back and forth at the base of the fire.
 
6) What are the precautions to be taken before starting work on electrical installations?
Ans: Before starting any electrical works on installations disconnect the power supply to the Electrical equipment and discharge & connect earth. Test with meters for any availability of supply then start the work.
 
7) Function of circuit – breaker, difference between 'isolator' and circuit breaker?
Ans: The function of circuit breaker is to break the electrical continuity in the event of faults duly isolating the faulty part. Isolator is switching device, which operates in OFF load only. Circuit Breaker is switching device, which can operate in, OFF or ON load.
 
8) If a feeder circuit-breaker trips, what action is required?
Ans: First isolate the faulty feeder check the faulty area on which fault the breaker was tripped (short circuit, open circuit and earth fault) after attending the faults test for its continuity and take insulation resistance of the feeder by using megger. And take the feeder into circuit.
 
9) Different types of low-tension fuses and high-tension fuses?
Ans: There are two types of fuses they are

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC) OBJECTIVE TYPE

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC)

Part – B
(POWER)

OBJECTIVE TYPE:

Sl.No.                               Item                                       To be filled

1)         Transformer secondary  volts                  =  P.V.  x (S.T.)                              (a)   Primary Amps

P.T.                                         (b)   Secondary Amps

Note                                       (c)   Secondary Turns                                       

PV: Primary Volts

ST: Secondary Turns

PT: Primary Turns

2)         Minimum insulation value of                           2 M Ohms                               (a)   2   M Ohms

transformer of 400V winding with                                                                   (b)   10  M Ohms

500V Megger is                                                                                              (c)   50   M Ohms

           (d)  15   M Ohms                  

3)         Breather is packed with material                Silica Gel                                       (a)   Silaca Jel

           (b)  Oil 20 KV

4)         The minimum BDV of transformer Oil is    40 KV                                            (a)   40KV,

(b)   50KV

(c)   55 KV

5)         Earth fault relays providing against         Earth Fault                                      (a)   Earth fault

(b)   Core beating

(c)   Full of oil level

6)         Over current relays providing against     Over current                                    (a)   Over current

(b)  Over voltage

(c)   Earth fault

7)         MCCB is………….. case circuit breaker      Moulded                                     (a)   Miniature

(b)  Moulded

 

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC) INDICATE TRUE OR FALSE

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC)

Part – B
(POWER)
INDICATE TRUE OR FALSE TO THE FOLLOWING:
 
1) Without EMD the tender offer is valid. False
 
2) Amps is the unit of current True
 
3) Wood is the bad conductor of electricity True
 
4) AB Switch is used to break and make the power supply in OH Mains. True
 
5) Oil is used as a insulation in the power transformers. False
 
6) Finance vetting is required, if the cost of NS item exceeds Rs.1,00,000/- while procuring through COS. True
 
7) The Open tenders are to be opened in presence of a Accounts Office. True
 
8) Blue is the color of pure silica True

 

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC) BIT QUESTIONS

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC)

Part – B
(POWER)
BIT QUESTIONS:
 
1) 11 KV HT power supply is to be availed when the total load exceeds
a. 100 KW b. 1000KW c. 75KW d. 56KW
 
2)The voltage of 11 KV supply is
a. 11000V b. 1000V c. 100V d. 33000V
 
3)The EHT power line crossing means.
a. Above 11KV b. Above 33KV c. Above 132KV d. Above 400KV
 
4)Guarding is required for the power line crossings of following Voltages.
a. Up to 11KV b. Up to 33KV c. Up to 132KV d. Above 132KV
 
5)Tender Notice is to be published for.
a. Limited tender b. Quotation c. Single tender d. Open tender
 
6)Copper is the good conductor of electricity.
 
7)Completion estimate is not Required for calling tender.
 
8)Contingencies charges means Transportation charges.
 
9)Detailed estimate is to be prepared for sanctioned works.
 
10)Detailed estimate needs sanction of HOD.
 
11) The fire extinguisher used for Electrical fire is CO2
 
12) Fire is the combination of material and temperature & Oxygen.
 
13)B Type of fire extinguisher used to nullify the oil fires.
 
14)Electric type of fire is clarified as D type.
 
15)Ordinary fire can be extinguished by water.
 
16)Artificial respiration is required to the person met with electrical accident

 

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC) SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWERS

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC)

Part – B
(POWER)
 

 SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER:

1)   Name of the meter used to measure Air velocity                                                          (c)

 

a.

b.

Multi meter

Anemometer

c.

d.

Thermometer

Ammeter

2)           Name the Electrolyte used in lead acid cells                                                           (a)

a.

b.

Sulpheric Acid

Hydrochloric Acid

c.

d.

Nitric acid

Phasphoric Acid

3)           Inverter converts                                                                                                     (a)

a.

DC to AC

c.

AC to AC

b.

DC to DC

d.

AC to DC

4)           Capacitor bank are used at substations to                                                             (c)

a.

b.

Avoid short-circuiting

Improve load factor

c.

d.

Improve P.F

Supply power in emergency

5)           Circuit breaker is                                                                                                  (a)

a.

b.

Current breaking device

Attention device

c.

d.

Amplifier

Starting device

6)           PSI is the unit of                                                                                                    (a)

a.

b.

Pressure

Temperature

c.

d.

Humidity

Velocity of gas

7)           Rectifier converts                                                                                                  (b)

a.

b.

DC to AC

AC to DC

c.

d.

AC to AC

DC to DC

8)           Maximum permissible value of Earth Resistance for a small sub-stn?                 (c)

a.

0.5 Ω

c

2.0 Ω

b

1.0 Ω

d

8.0 Ω

9)           Medium Voltage is clarified as                                                                              (d)

a

b

Less than 250V

650V to 33KV

c

d

Above 33KV

250V to 650V

10)         Single Phasing preventer is used to prevent?                                                     (c)

a

c

Single Phase voltage

Motors from single phasing

b

d

Three phase voltage

Motor to start

11)         What is the minimum safe value of insulation resistance for Motors?                 (a)

 

a

   c

10 M Ω

5 M Ω

b

d

15 M Ω

20 M Ω

(b)

12)              The dimensions of earth electrode?

a      3.0 mtr length x 40 mm dia  x   3.2mm thick                     b     2.5 mtrs length x 50mm dia x 3.2mm thick y                                                                                           

       c      3.0 mtrs length x 50mm dia x      3.2mm thick                   d     2.5mtrs length x 40mm dia x 3.2mm thick

13)         Earth Megger  used                                                                                          (      d     )

                 a      To measure insulation resistance of cables                      b     To measure voltage

c      To measure current                                                          d      To measure insulation resistance of earth

14)         Illumination levels measured by                                                                     (      a     )

a      Lux Meter                                          b      Hydrometer

c        Anemometer                                     c      Multimeter

A            Generation, Transmission & Distribution of Electrical Energy

15)          The integration time employed by supply authorities for recording M.D. for a 33 kV/415 V, 10 MVA Sub-station is –   (c)                       

a       5 minutes                                    b      15 minutes

C     45 minutes                                        d      60 minutes

16)         While designing a sub-station anticipated future loads in the next…. Years are taken:                (     d       )

a      1 year                                                b      2 years

c      20 years                                             d      5-7 years

17)         As per the present Tariff the minimum power factor of sub-station should be                        (     c      )

a      0.8                                                     b      0.85

c         0.98                                               d       0.95

18)         The 3 phase voltage unbalance in supply should not exceed                           (      a     )

a      2.5% to 5%                                         b      20%

c      25%                                                    d      10%

19)       For maintaining power supply quality the rate of change of frequency should not exceed     (c)

a

5Hz/Sec

b

10Hz/Sec

c

1 HZ/Sec

d

3    Hz/Sec.

 

 

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC) ESSAY ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC)

Part – A (TRAIN LIGHTING)

 
ESSAY ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS :
 
1) List items to be checked in trip inspection of TL coaches?
Ans:
i. Feel alternator temperature for generation. Warm- Generation OK, Cool- Check for generation.
ii. Replace field fuse if found blown
iii. Check continuity of field & phase windings with the help of test lamp/multimeter.
iv. Checks for residual magnetism, in case of loss of magnetism provide 12V flash.
v. Check for continuity between alternator and regulator.
vi. Check the condition of safety chain and availability of split pins in safety chains
vii. Check the alternator suspension bracket and tension gear for damages and replace if any.
viii. Check for availability of alternator castle nut.
ix. Check for availability of all V-belts and without and twist.
x. Check the V- belt tension with the help of 4 Kg weight and adjust accordingly.
xi. Ensure 30mm gap between bracket and free end bush collar
xii. Check for any shift of axle pulley, the gap between axle pulley and wheel hub.
xiii. Check for level of distilled water in lead acid cells and top-up if required.
xiv. Clean sulphation if any.
xv. Ensure HRC fuse of correct rating & in working condition.
xvi. Check for any earth leakages and take remedial action.
xvii. Check for tightness in terminal connections
xviii. Check for availability of cable cleats, clamps, and grommets for all cables.
xix. Check and replace any equipment.
 
2) List items to be checked in monthly inspection of TL coaches?
Ans: In addition to trip schedule the following examinations to be carried out
i. Check for tightness of terminal connections of alternators.
ii. Thoroughly clean externally
iii. Open Inspection cover of regulator and blow off dust with the help of blower.
iv. Check locking of current settings in the regulator
v. Check for availability and proper fixture of castle nut and split pin.
vi. Record Specific gravity of each mono block on On load and Off load.
vii. Charge the cells through BCT until the specific gravity raises to value of Pilot cell.
viii. In case 1/3rd of total cells are with low specific gravity, the entire set to be replaced
ix. Cells showing reverse/ zero volts should be withdrawn and replaced by charged cells.
In addition to the works mentioned in Trip & Fortnightly Examination, carry out the following.
Alternators, Rectifier & Regulators:
a) Check for tightening of terminal connections of alternators and rectifier regulators.
b) Thoroughly clean externally the alternator & regulator.
c) Open inspection cover of regulator. Blow dust with a portable blower. Secure cover tightly after inspection.
d) Check locking of current setting of regulator, if disturbed it should be reset/locked as prescribed.
e) Check the alternator pulley for proper fixture and the availability of castle nut & split pin.
Axle pulley:
Watch for shifting of axle pulley by observing the white band on either side of pulley. Reset the correct position of pulley, if found shifted and tighten the loose nuts with torque wrench with

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC) SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC)

Part – A (TRAIN LIGHTING)

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS:
 
1) What are the Fire prevention measures followed in coaches?
Ans:
  •  Adequate and proper maintenance of Electrical devices in the coaches as per laid norms.
  •  All electrical equipments should be maintained properly.
  • Check all the electrical circuits for foul (burning) smell, smoke and sparks.
  • After completion of the loading, guard must ensure that all the lights in the luggage portion of the SLR are switched “off” to eliminate possibility of short-circuiting.
  • Electrical junction boxes should be covered and locked positively in all TL coaches especially in pantry cars.
  • Ensure all electrical connections are intact and there are no loose fittings in the coaches.
  • Do not allow battery boxes in ‘open’ condition and also MS sheet covering is provided in electrical circuits.
  • Ensure correct rated Over load, over voltage protection, fuses/MCBs are provided in electrical circuits.
  • Ensure the availability and proper knowledge of usage of fire extinguishers in AC coaches.
2) What are Levels of electrical protections in TL coaches?
Ans:
a. Battery: TL coaches are provided with 120 Ah, 110 V flooded type Lead Acid Battery or VRLA battery. 40 A HRC fuse provided in main positive side of Battery circuit in under frame.
b. Alternator & Regulator: TL coaches are provided with 4.5 kW alternator & RRU/ERRU.
35 A HRC fuse is provided in one phase of AC input.
6 A HRC fuse is provided for field control circuit.
c. Fuse cum rotary switch panel
35 A HRC fuse is provided in main –ve circuit.
L1 & L2 lighting circuits are provided with 16 A HRC fuse each in +ve side.
Fan is provided with 16 A HRC fuse in +ve side.
SPM circuit is provided with 16 A HRC fuse in +ve side.
d. Fuse Distribution board
35 SWG re-wirable fuse is provided in both +ve & -ve sides for all individual light & fan fitting.
Each Laptop/mobile charging point is provided with 500 mA/1.0 A fuse in both +ve & -ve sides.
Emergency light circuit is provided with 6 A HRC fuse in both +ve and –ve sides.
 
3) What are the main components of Lead Acid Cell?
Ans. Main Components of Lead Acid Cells are:
(i) Positive Plates which are tubular in shape made of PBO2.
(ii) Negative Plates usually consists of a lead grid into which active material of Sponge lead is pressed.
(iii) Separators which are made by Synthetic used between positive and negative plates.
(iv) Container is made of hard rubber or PPCP with high insulating strength to resist acids which are used as Electrolyte.

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC) INDICATE TRUE OR FALSE

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC)

Part – A (TRAIN LIGHTING)

INDICATE TRUE OR FALSE TO THE FOLLOWING:
 
1) Without EMD the tender offer is valid. False
2) Amps is the unit of current True
3) Tinned copper conductor of 14SWG is used as earth continuity wire in the
4) Internal Wiring system. True
5) Wood is the bad conductor of electricity. True
6) Oil is used as a insulation in the power transformers. False
7) The minimum capacity of power transformer on electrical General Services is 100KVA True
8) Finance vetting is required, if the cost of NS item exceeds Rs. 50,000/- while
9) Procuring through COS. True
10) The open tenders are to be opened in presence of a Accounts Officer. True
11) The advantages of ERRU is to obtain pure DC supply and inbuilt over voltage protection. True
12) The voltage of alternator in running condition cannot be checked at Roof Junction Box. False
13) The cell voltage of TL coach is 2.2V. True
14) TL coach alternator produces 35 Amps current. False
15) The change of liquid state into vapour state is called evaporation. True
16) Compressor works like a pump by drawing refrigerant vapour from the evaporator and sends to condenser. True
17) 40 SWG capacity wire is used as fuse wire for fan or light in Distribution Fuse Board. False
18) The working voltage of 20W/TL inverter is 150V D.C. False
19) Double test lamp method is adopted to detect earth leakage in a TL coach. True
20) The maximum permissible voltage drop allowed between the battery and any of the farthest light/fan point shall not exceed 3 volts at battery voltage of 108 ± 2 volts. True
21) Flame retardant low tension tape is used for insulation of cables in TL & AC coaches. True
22) Constant voltage method of charging is adopted for charging lead acid cells during POH. False
23) The width of alternator pulley of 4.5 KW 110V is 140mm. False
24) Shorting of power diode test to be conducted at full load. True
25) Bus bars provided in ERRU shall be made of electrolytic copper. True

 

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC) FILL IN THE BLANKS

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC)

Part – A (TRAIN LIGHTING)

FILL IN THE BLANKS:
 
1) The process of removing heat from low temperature level and rejecting at high temperature is called. REFRIGERATION.
2) Any substances for change of its state at constant temperature absorbs/give up heat is called LATENT HEAT.
3) The sum of sensible heat and latent heat of substance in process is called ENTHALPY.
4) The latent heat of fusing ice is 144 BTU/LB.
5) The unit of refrigeration is TON OF REFREGIRATION – 12000 Btu/Hr or 3023.98 K.Cal/Hr.
6) The temperature measured by ordinary thermometer is called SENSIBLE HEAT.
7) What is the boiling point of water 100 C.
8) AT what temperature water starts freezing_ 0 C.
9) One watt is 3.412 BTU.
10) One BTU is 0.252 K.calaries.
11) The unit of heat is BTU OR K.CAL
12) RMPU means ROOF MOUNTED PACKAGE UNIT
13) The setting of HP cutout in RMPU coaches is 415 psi.
14) The setting of LP cutout in under slung coaches is 35 psi.
15) The boiling point of refrigerant R22_ -40.8 C.
16) The boiling point of refrigerant R12. – 29.8 C.
17) Artificial respiration is required to the person met with electrical accident.
18) The rating of alternator in TL coaches is 4.5 KW.
19) The latent heat of evaporation IS THE HEAT REQUIRED TO CHANGE THE LIQUID INTO VAPOUR.
20) The temperature maintained in the refrigerator is LESS then 0 C.
21) The dry bulb and vet bulb temperatures equals then the RH is 100%
22) The moisture absorption in refrigeration circuit is done by DEHYDRATOR CUM FILTER.
23) The commonly used refrigerants are R 12 & R 22
24) The lubrication of system in the sealed compressors is done by FREEZOL
25) The 3-phase voltage unbalance in supply should not exceed 2.5. % To 5%
26) For maintaining power supply quality the rate of change of frequency should not exceed. 1 HZ/Sec.
27) The voltage of 11 KV supply is 11000V
28) Tender Notice is to be published for. Open tender
29) Copper is the good conductor of electricity.
30) Completion estimate is not required for calling tender.
31) Contingencies charges mean Transportation charges.
32) Detailed estimate is to be prepared for sanctioned works.
33) Detailed estimate needs sanction of HOD.
34) The fire extinguisher used for Electrical fire is CO2
35) Fire is the combination of material and temperature & Oxygen.
36) B Type of fire extinguisher used to nullify the oil fires.
37) Electric type of fire is clarified as D type.
38) CO2 type fire extinguisher is used for electrical fires.
39) Ordinary fire can be extinguished by water.
40) RUBBER HAND GLOVES are to be used while operating isolator handle in substations.
41) Ordinary fire can be extinguished by WATER OR SAND.
42) Artificial respiration is required to the person met with ELECTRICAL accident.
43) What is IOD? INJURED ON DUTY
44) What is meant by fatal accident? THE ACCIDENT CAUSES WITH LOSS OF HUMAN LIFE
45) If a man touches a live wire, he gets SHOCK. /electrocuted.
46) CTC type extinguisher is used for ELECTRICAL fire.
47) If a transformer catches fire FOAM type of fire.
48) The fire extinguisher used for Electrical fire is CO2 TYPE.
49) Fire is the combination of Material, temperature and oxygen
50) B type of fire extinguisher used to nullify the oil fires.
51) Electric type of fire is clarified as D type.
52) CO2 type fire extinguisher is used for ELECTRICAL fires.
53) Soda ash type fire extinguisher is used for GENERAL fires.
54) CTC OR FOAM type of fire extinguishers will be used to extinguisher chemical fires.
55) The system voltage in TL coaches is 110 V DC supply.
56) Monoblock type & 120 Ah capacity of batteries are used in TL coaches.
57) The codal life of lead acid batteries is 04 years.
58) The codal life of VRLA batteries is 04 years.
59) The 35 SWG size of fuse wire is used for each fan or light in distribution fuse board.
60) The voltage setting of 4.5 KW alternator at regulator is 123 ± 0.5 volts.
61) If a cell is found less than 1.7 volts, it is considered as defective.
62) The wattage of 400 mm DC fan in TL coach is 35 watts.
63) The specific gravity of sulphuric acid which is used to make as electrolyte is 1.835.
64) The working voltage of 20W/TL inverter is 110 volts DC.
65) 16A HRC fuse is used for L1, L2 & fan circuit in RJB of TL coaches.
66) 100 KVA inverter capacity is used for cell phone charger in TL coaches.
67) The gap between wheel edge to axle pulley edge is 145mm ± 3mm.
68) The gap between the mounting bracket to adjustment nut of tension device for 4.5 KW alternator is 75mm.
69) Earht fault can be detected by using double test lamp or multi-meter.
70) The capacity of alternator, batteries & fans in TL coach are 4.5KW, 120Ah & 35W.

 

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC) WRITE DOWN THE ABBREVATIONS

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC)

Part – A (TRAIN LIGHTING)

WRITE DOWN THE ABBREVIATIONS:

1

PWM

: Pulse Width Modulation.

2

VRLA

: Valve Regulated Lead Acid

3

IGBT

: Insulated Gate Bi polar Transistor

4

FRPCPY

: Failure Rate Percentage Per Year.

5

BTU

: British Thermal Unit.

6

IOD

: Injured On Duty.

7

LAP

: Leave at Average Pay


8

LHAP

: Leave at Half Average Pay

9

CL

: Casual Leave

10

PNM

: Permanent Negotiable Machinery

11

AIRF

: All India Railway men federation.

12

NFIR

: National Federation of Indian railways.

13

DA

: Dearness allowance

14

TA

: Traveling allowance or transportation allowance

15

LWP

: Leave without pay

16

CCA

: City compensatory allowance.

17

PATB

: Passenger alarm terminal board

18

EFT

: Emergency feeding terminals

19

PELE

: Portable emergency lighting equipment

20

IRIEEN

: Indian railways institute of electrical engineers

21

PERT

: Programme evaluation & review techniques

22

DGS&D

: Director General of supply and Disposal

23

EMD

: Earnest Money Deposit

24

SD

: Security Deposit

25

BG

: Bank Guarantee

26

PG

: Performance Guarantee

27

CRI

: Colour rendering Index

28

D&G charges

: Direction & General charges

29

PPCP

: Poly Propylene Co-polymer

30

EEPROM

: Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory

 

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC) SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWERS

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE POST OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (NON-AC)

Part – A (TRAIN LIGHTING)

I.    SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER:

1) In  regulator   how   many   windings   are   available   in   Magnetic amplifier                                                                                                 (  a & c  )

a.     6                                                 c.     4

b.    3                                                 d.      5

2)       Size of V belts used 4.5KW Alternator                                                    (    c    )

a.     C121                                           c.     C122

b.     C123                                        d.     C124

3)       Capacity of battery fuse in TL Coaches                                                   (    a      )

a.     35 A (HRC )                                c.     16 A (HRC )

b.     63 A (HRC )                                d.     5 A (HRC )

4)       The gap between the two halves of axle pulley should be                     (     c    )

a      0.5 – 1.0 mm                              c.     3.0 – 4.0 mm

b.         2.0 – 3.0 mm                          d.     5.0 – 5.5 mm

5)       What are the AH capacity of cells used in TL coaches                           (    c     )

a.     110                                             c.     120

b.        1100                                        d.     800

6)       Name the Acid used in lead acid cells                                                    (     a     )

a.     Sulphuric Acid                            c.     Nitric acid

b.     Hydrochloric Acid                      d.     Phosphoric Acid

7)       Give the Spg & Voltage of Fully charged cells                                        (     a    )

a.     1220 & 2.2                                 a.     1200 & 2.2

b. 1220 & 2.1                                     b.     1200 & 2.1

8)       Cut in speed for B/L alternator in TL application                                   (     c     )

a.     21                                               c.     19

b.  20                                                  d.     18

9)       Inverter converts                                                                                     (     a      )

a.     DC to AC                                     c.     AC to AC

b.     DC to DC                                    d.     AC to DC

10)     IGBT are used as                                                                                    (    a    )

a.     High    frequency    switching device

b.     Illuminating device

c.

d.

Low frequency switching device

Amplifier

11)

Boost charge of VRLA cells

a.     2.3 V/Cell

 

c.

                                (     a    )

2.25 V/Cell

 

12)

b.     110 V/Cell

Trickle charging of VRLA cell a. 2.3 V/Cell

d.

 

c.

115 V/Cell

(     c    )

2.25 V/Cell

 

13)

b.     110 V/Cell

No of MA’s in 4.5 KW regulators

a.     1

d.

 

c.

115 V/Cell

(    a     )

2

 

b.     3

d.

4

14)

No of ET in 4.5 KW regulators

a.     1

 

c.

(  a      )

2

 

15)

b.     3

Rectifier converts

d.

4

(     b     )

a.

DC to AC

c.

AC to AC

b.

AC to DC

d.

DC to DC

16)     Give the half load setting of R/R for TL application                              (    a      )

a.     19 Amps                                     c.     21 Amps

b.        20 Amps                                  d.    22 Amps

17)     Required level of Illumination for Ordinary sleeper coach                  (     c    )

a.     14 Lux                                         c.     20 Lux

b.   22 Lux                                           d.    16 Lux

18)    Give the tension length of spring used in Tension rod of 4.5 KW Alternator                                                                                              (     a     )

a.     310 mm                                      c.     269 mm

b 265 mm                                           d.     275 mm

19)     Why lead acid cells are called as Secondary cells                                (     c    )

a.     Since it can’t  be recharge         c.     Since it can be recharge

b.        Since it can’t charge initially     d.    None

20)     Name the method to be used to find out Earth leakage                       (     a     )

a.     Double test lamp method          c.     Tong tester method

b.        Multi meter method                  d.    Volt meter method

21)     Voltage setting in VRLA cells for Express & passenger trains is           (     c    )

a.     128 ± 0.5V & 127 ± 0.5V            c.     127 ± 0.5V & 128 ± 0.5V

b.     125 ± 0.5V & 125 ± 0.5V            d.    124 ± 0.5V & 122 ± 0.5V

22)     If alternator is not generating voltage, the reason would be               (     d     )

a.     Field may be open                     c.     Dropping of V-belts

b.        Fuse in regulator had blown      d.    All the above

23)     The size of bus bars recommended to use in 4.5KW ERRU is               (     b     )

a.     90 Sq. mm                                  c.     50 Sq. mm

b.        16 Sq. mm                                  d.    None

24)     Terminals of IGBT are                                                                           (     b     )

a.     Base, emitter, collector             c.     Gate, source, drain

b.        Gate, emitter, collector             d.    None


25) No. of zeners connected across the primary of the step down transformer of power module.      ( a  )

a.

4

c.

2

b.

3

d.

1

 

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : GOODS GUARD (LDCE 15%) 2015

RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : GOODS GUARD (LDCE 15%) 2015
 

QUESTION BANK FOR 15 % LDCE GOODS GUARDS SELECTION - 2015

Q.1. Differentiate between

a)    Warner and Distant signal

b)  Calling on signal and shunt signal c)   Point indicator and trap indicator

d)  Block station and non block station.

a)

WARNER

DISTANT

1.

Provided in TAS section only

Generally provided in MAS section

2.

In A &C class stations compulsory.  In B class when the speed is above 50 KMPH over facing points.

In MAS section it is compulsory.

3.

Tells about next block section.

Tells about next stop signal.

4.

Generally  provided  below  FSs  or  LSS

and sometimes independently also

Always provided independently except some times combined with gate signal or LSS

5.

Some times non working also

Always working only

6.

Gives two aspect caution and proceed

Gives three aspects cautions, Attention, Proceed.

7.

When placed in rear of FSS.    It should not less than 400 mtrs

Placed in rear of FSs at a distance of not less than

1000 mtrs or 1 Kms.

8.

Interlocked with block instrument

Interlocked with stop signal to which it refer

9.

Does not indicate the driver whether the

train is received on straight line or turn out.

Indicates the driver whether the train is received on

straight line or turn out.

10.

In its ‘OFF’ position it indicates the driver that  the train is going through via Main

line.

In its ‘OFF’ position it indicates the driver whether

loop  line  Home  signal is  taken  off  or  Main  line

Home signal.

11

When independent a fixed green light  is provided 1.5 to 2 meters above

When independent no fixed green light is provided above.

12.

In colour light when provided independent  only  “P’  marker  board  is provided.

In colour light it will have a “P” marker board.

b)

CALLING ON SIGNAL

SHUNT SIGNAL

1.

Provided below all stop signal except LSS

Provided   independently   or   below   stop   signal except FSS

2.

Two types –

1) Miniature Semaphore Arm type

2) Colour lights.

Three types –

1) Miniature Semaphore Arm type.

2) Disc type

3) Position light type

3.

Miniatures Semaphore arm type painted white in colour with red band.

Miniatures Semaphore arm type painted white in colour with white band.

4.

Will have “C” marker board

Position light in a box three white lights is provided in a box one above and two below. White disc with red band.

5.

Used for admitting train on obstructed line when  signal  becomes  defective  during track circuit failure.

Used for shunting purpose only.

6.

“On” position no indication.

‘ON’ position gives stop indication when provided independently.

7.

“OFF” position  indicates proceed

“OFF” position indicates proceed with a speed not

 

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RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK FOR THE POST OF GOODS GUARD

RRB JOBS QUESTION BANK : OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK FOR THE POST OF
GOODS GUARD 
 

OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK FOR THE POST OF GOODS GUARD

1.Approved special instruction are issued by _________ (CRS)

2. Special instruction are issued by ____________ (Authorized Officer)

3. Authorized Officer of SC Railway is ___________ (COM)

4.Authority to proceed on double line __________ (Taking of LSS)

5.When block instrument is defective the authority to proceed is __________ (PLCT).

6. PLCT number for Up direction is _________, (T/C1425) and for Dn direction is ___________ (T/D1425).

7. Block overlap in MAS shall be ______ (NLT180 Mts) from _______ (FSS)

8. SOL in MAS Double line shall be ________ (NLT120 Mts) from _______ (Starter)

9. SOL in MAS single line shall be ________ (NLT120 Mts) from _______ (Outer most trailing point)

10. The distance between Home signal and BSLB shall not be less than  ________ (180 Mts)

11. Point indicator shows __________ by day (White target) and ______(White light) by night.

12. Point indicator shows ________ (No target) by day ________ (Green light) by night when set for loop line.

13. When Trap point is open trap indicator shows ______ (Red target) by day __________ (Red light) by night.

14. When Trap point is set, trap indicator shows _____ (Knife Edge) by day and ________________(Green light) by Night.

15. Station limits are available between _______ (Two outer most signals) at block station.

16. On double line MAS signalling station, station section lies between_______ (Outer most/BSLB) to ______ (LSS) on either direction

17. Station section is available only in ______ (Class B) station

18. Wind velocity can be measured by _________( Anemometer)

19. No Railway servant directly connected with working of trains shall not consume any alcoholic drink with in _________ (8) hours before commencement of duty.

20. SCR is divided into _____ (7) zones for the purpose of weather warnings

 

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Vision standards for Ex-Servicemen for the post of ASM and Traffic Assistant (CEN 03/2015)

Vision standards for Ex-Servicemen for the post of ASM and 

Traffic Assistant  (CEN 03/2015)

DATE SUBJECT
13.06.2017

Vision standards for Exervicemen for the post of ASM and Traffic Assistant (CEN 03 2015).

The requisite distant and near vision standards of Ex-Servicemen candidates for comp iance in vision certificate:

 

Class

Distant Vision

Near Vision

A-2

6/12, 6/12 or 6/9, 6/18 with or withoutglasses. Naked eye vision not less than6/60. Power of lens not to exceed 6 D.

The combined near vision with or without glasses should be 

theability to read ordinary print. Where reading or 

close work isrequired, combined near vision with or

 without glasses should beSn.0.6.

However, there will be no relaxation of visual acuity if the age of the Ex-Servicemen is below 35 years.

The format given in Annexure-IX of CEN 03/2015 is applicable to Ex-Servicemen also.

Courtesy: RRB

CRWC On-Line Recruitment Examination Of Executive, Information Handout

CRWC : ON-LINE EXAMINATION - RECRUITMENT OF EXECUTIVE


Click Here for Official Notification

Courtesy: CRWC

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IMPORTANT: RRB EXAM PORTAL is NOT associated with Railway Recruitment Board(RRB) or Indian Railways, For RRB official website visit - www.rrcb.gov.in

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