Psychological Tests For Assistant Loco Pilot - Test for Measuring Memory

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In this test you will be given a map to study and memorize buildings and other structures on it for some time, and then asked to indicate the location of these buildings on a test page. Study the following example for some time.

Example

Look at the numbered houses below and find out the letter that corresponds with where each house was located on the study map.

Your answers for above sample items should be A, C and B.

Practice Problems

Test Page

The answers for sample problems are A, E, A, C, B, B, C, D, D, A, A, B, E, C, C ,A, B, A, D and E respectively.

Test for measuring Memory

In this test you will be asked to memorize Picture-Number combinations. After some time you will be asked to go to the test page, which shows the pictures in a different order. You will be asked to indicate the numbers that go with them. You may pick your answers out of the four options given for each picture.

Example

Find your answers for the examples

Practice problems

Study Page

Test Page

The answers for practice problems are B, A, C, B, C, B, B, A, D, C, C, D, A, B, D, C, A, B, C and D respectively.

Courtesy: RRB

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Study Kit for Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Loco Pilot Exam

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) लोको पायलट परीक्षा के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री

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Psychological Tests For Assistant Loco Pilot - Test for Measuring Ability to Follow Directions

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In this test you will be given a pattern of letters to look at and will be asked questions about how certain directions will change that pattern. The answer to each question will be one of the letters in the pattern. You are to decide which letter shows the correct answer.

Example

Q. No.1. Which is the only letter that appears directly above A?

You will note that answer to this question is B

Practice Problems:

1. Which alphabet appears to the right of C in Row II?

2. If Row I and III are written in reverse order then which alphabet will come below C in Row II?

3. If ever, D appears to the right of C in Row IV then answer is the last alphabet of Row IV. If not, answer is the middle alphabet of Row III.

4. Which alphabet will appear to the left of alphabet above C in Row II?

5. Which alphabet is above E of Row V?

6. The answer to this question will be the alphabet that appears between B and E after reversing Row IV

7. If all alphabets of Column II are reversed, which alphabet will come between E and B of Row II?

8. If Row I and II are reversed which alphabet will come between C and A in Column III ?

9. On moving from left to right in the first Row up to Column III and then downwards to Row III, which alphabet appears only once ?

10. Starting from upper left hand corner and going up to Column V and then coming downwards upto Row V which alphabet appears only once?

11. If all the alphabets of Column V are reversed which alphabet will appear to the left of A?

12. If ever D appears immediately to the right of B in Row V answer is the second alphabet of Row I. If not, answer is the last alphabet of Row II.

13. On moving from right to left in Row III upto Column II, which alphabet appears below E ?

14. Start from upper right hand corner and go towards left in such a manner as to reach the starting point. Which alphabet comes between second D and second B ?

15. The answer to this question is the alphabet that comes after first three alphabets of Row IV.

16. Which alphabet appears just above the alphabet to the left of fifth alphabet of Column V?

17. If Row II is written backwards, which alphabet will come above C in Row III ?

18. Which is the first alphabet towards the left side of the alphabet just above the alphabet between D and A of row IV ?

19. If Row III is reversed, which alphabet will appear below C ?

20. Which alphabet appears towards the right of the alphabet just above the alphabet between B and D of Row V?

The answers for practice problems 1 to 20 are B, E, B, C, A, A, D, B, C, E, D, D, D, C, A ,A, E, E, C and E respectively.

Courtesy: RRB

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रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) लोको पायलट परीक्षा के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री

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Psychological Tests For Assistant Loco Pilot - Test for measuring Depth Perception

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In this test you will see a pile of bricks with some bricks labelled A, B, C, etc. Your task is to count the number of bricks that are touching bricks of the pile that has a letter on it. All bricks are of same size and shape.

Example

For example, in the pile above the brick with an ‘A’ on it touches two other bricks, viz., ‘D’ and E. Brick B, C and D touch 3, 3 and 4 bricks respectively

Practice Problems:

Test for Measuring Concentration

This is a test to find out how quickly you can compare two numbers and decide whether or not they are the same. If the numbers are the same, darken the circle ‘Y’ otherwise darken ‘N’ on your answer sheet. Do not make any marks on the booklet. Try to solve following practice problems.

Example

The answers for above questions are ‘Y’, ‘N’, ‘N’, ‘Y’ and ‘N’

Practice Problems:

1. 48426 = 38436
2. 591075 = 591075
3. 935 = 935
4. 835 = 885
5. 596471599 = 896471369
6. 9723174 = 9723174
7. 4060 = 4060
8. 32768 = 32768
9. 2326489 = 2326489
10. 138577 = 188577
11. 8379 = 8379
12. 652308 = 652306
13. 74639012 = 74039102
14. 3042987 = 3042987
15. 1296453 = 1286453
16. 051786 = 051768
17. 8712534 = 8712534
18. 68035 = 63035
19. 3419885 = 3419885
20. 30987 = 39087

The answer for practice problems are ‘N’, ‘Y’, ‘Y’, ‘N’, ‘N’, ‘Y’, ‘Y’, ‘Y’, ‘Y’, ‘N’, ‘Y’, ‘N’, ‘N’, ‘Y’, ‘N’, ‘N’, ‘Y’, ‘N’, ‘Y’ and ‘N’ respectively.

Test for measuring Concentration

In this test you will find four groups (A, B, C & D) of digits. Your task is to find out the group of digits which contains a ‘6’. In case digit ‘6’ appears more than once, your answer will be ‘E’.

You will note that the correct answers for the above example are B, C, A, D & E.

Practice problems

1. A. 72383514 B. 98734521 C. 12947685 D. 39587421
2. A. 1354931582 B. 2943587138 C. 7823945125 D. 4793268251
3. A. 7938210435 B. 5938204751 C. 8475210239 D. 3897104652
4. A. 250389417 B. 984057213 C. 358164072 D. 280157943
5. A. 47854323179 B. 98423563172 C. 31792428534 D. 21374894579
6. A. 4371652 B. 3759248 C. 5329741 D. 7486591
7. A. 587190234 B. 145782093 C. 346901287 D. 931520874
8. A. 297386431 B. 598381274 C. 753840192 D. 321984857
9. A. 84215073549 B. 13968250847 C. 39274270185 D. 45172023589
10. A. 89452801357 B. 17835250894 C. 29745140583 D. 48172096538
11. A. 3578210493 B. 7515820934 C. 8392102475 D. 7938105462
12. A. 872134059 B. 579432801 C. 407235816 D. 894125037
13. A. 3716524 B. 3248759 C. 7415932 D. 1659748
14. A. 215073549 B. 821396547 C. 39270185 D. 3520289
15. A. 78210493 B. 75193820 C. 21847502 D. 39710486
16. A. 587512693 B. 321578049 C. 283902457 D. 105402475
17. A. 58974321 B. 7689543 C. 23557842 D. 18943295
18. A. 78453678 B. 2015473 C. 34971086 D. 82075193
19. A. 13578280945 B. 83089452175 C. 14830297455 D. 14873820965
20. A. 2571682 B. 8955248 C. 278943 D. 4732015

The answer for practice problems are C, D, D, C, B, E, C, A, B, D, D, C, E, B, D, A, B, E, D and A respectively.

Courtesy: RRB

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Study Kit for Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Loco Pilot Exam

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) लोको पायलट परीक्षा के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री

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Psychological Tests For Assistant Loco Pilot - Test for Measuring Perceptual Speed

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This is a test of how rapidly and accurately you can see objects in order to match them. Look at the first radio at the left. Which one of the five at the right is most nearly like it? Radio ‘B’ is the one. Look at the second radio at the left. Which radio at the right is most nearly like it? Radio ‘C’ is the correct answer.

Example

Now find the radios most nearly matching the third and fourth ones at the left. You will find that the correct answer of radio No.3 is ‘A’ and that fourth is ‘D’.

Practice problems

The answer for practice problems are E, D, A, B, E, C, A, B, D, C, B, E, E, A, B, C, B, C, A, E, E, D, B and C respectively.

Courtesy: RRB

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Study Kit for Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Loco Pilot Exam

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (आरआरबी) लोको पायलट परीक्षा के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री

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(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-5

(General Awareness)

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26. The Landmines Treaty became a global law in September 1998 with the approval of
(a) Norway

(b) Burkina Faso
(c) Thailand

(d) Ethiopia

27. Leander Paes and Mahesh Bhupathi won two doubles Grand Slams in 1999. Which were they?
(a) Australian Open and French Open
(b) French Open and Wimbledon
(c) Wimbledon and Australian Open
(d) U.S. Open and French Open

28. Who created a world record for the maximum number of dismissals in Test Cricket as a Wicket Keeper?
(a) Alan Knott

(b) Rodney Marsh
(c) Ian Healy

(d) Moin Khan

29. Who invented optical fibre?
(a) Samuel Cohen

(b) Narinder Kapany
(c) Percy L.Spencer

(d) T.H. Maimah

30. Who amongst the following is renowned in the field of painting?
(a) Parveen Sultana

(b) Prof. T.N. Krishnan
(c) Ram Kinkar

(d) Raja Ravi Varma

31. Who amidst the following won the Nobel Prize in Science in two different disciplines?
(a) Russell Hulse

(b) David Lee
(c) Madam Curie

(d) Paul Boyer

32. Who is the author of “The Company of Women”?
(a) John Gray (b) David Baldacci
(c) Dick Francis (d) Khushwant Singh

33. In the 13th Lok Sabha elections in which of the following states did the ruling alliance won all the seats?
(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Orissa
(c) Haryana

(d) Gujarat

34. Who represented India in the Second Round Table Conference?
(a) Aruna Asaf Ali

(b) Sucheta Kripalani
(c) Sarojini Naidu

(d) Kalpana Joshi

35. The rulers of which dynasty started the practice of granting tax-free villages to Brahmanas and Buddhist Monks?
(a) Satavahanas

(b) Mauryas
(c) Guptas

(d) Cholas

36. The Bandung Conference was a major milestone in the history of
(a) The Non-aligned movement
(b) Indo-Chinese relationship
(c) U.S.-Vietnam War
(d) Creation of ASEAN

37. The most important text of vedic mathematics is
(a) Satapatha Brahman

(b) Atharva Veda
(c) Sulva Sutras

(d) Chhandogya Upanishad

38. Which of the following Indian States is broadly as large as the European nation Austria?
(a) Kerala

(b) West Bengal
(c) Orissa

(d) Karnataka

39. Which of the  following districts is on the international border of India?
(a) Sirsa

(b) Anantnag
(c) Karimganj

(d) Purulia

40. The deposits of the ancient Tethys Sea were folded to form the
(a) Himalayas

(b) Rockies
(c) Andes

(d) Alps

 

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रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

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41. The largest irrigation canal in India is called the
(a) Yamuna canal

(b) Sirhand canal
(c) Indira Gandhi canal

(d) Upper Ban Doab canal

42. Atmospheric pressure exerted on earth is due to
(a) rotation of earth

(b) revolution of earth
(c) gravitational pull

(d) uneven heating of earth

43. Pruning is an essential part in cultivation of
(a) Rubber

(b) Tobacco
(c) Coffee

(d) Tea

44. Operating surplus arises in the
(a) Government sector
(b) Production for self-consumption
(c) Subsistence farming
(d) Enterprise sector

45. The most important of the non-tariff trade barriers are:

(a) Quotas

(b) Health regulations
(c) Pollution standards
(d) Labelling and packaging regulations

46. The maximum area under crops in India is used for the cultivation of:
(a) Wheat

(b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane

(d) Cotton

47. Investment is equal to:
(a) gross total of all types of physical capital assets
(b) gross total of all capital assets minus wear and tear
(c) stock of plants, machines and equipments
(d) None of the above

48. The Tarapore Committee recommended that before capital account was made convertible the rate of inflation should be brought down for three years to within :
(a) 3.5%

(b) 0.3%
(c) 4.6%

(d) 5.7%

49. Who among the following are not appointed by the President of India?
(a) Governors of States
(b) Chief Justice and Judges of High Court
(c) Vice-President
(d) Chief Justice and Judges of Supreme Court

50. What is the period within which a proclamation of national emergency made by the President is to be placed before each house of the Parliament for approval?
(a) within one month

(b) within two months
(c) within four months

(d) within six months

51. What was the exact constitutional position of the Indian Republic when the Constitution was brought into force with effect from 26th January, 1950?
(a) A Democratic Republic
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(d) A Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic

52. Fabianism is closely related to:
(a) Fascism
(b) Scientific socialism
(c) Democratic socialism
(d) Liberalism

53. A federal structure for India was first put forward by the
(a) Act of 1909

(b) Act of 1919
(c) Act of 1935

(d) Act of 1947

54. Which Writ is issued by a High Court or the Supreme
Court to compel an authority, to perform a function that
it was not performing? (a) Writ of Certiorari
(b) Writ of Habeas Corpus
(c) Writ of Mandamus (d) Writ of Quo Warranto

55. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament over a non-money bill

(a) the bill will lapse
(b) the President may sign it into a law
(c) the President may call a joint sitting of both the Houses to consider it.
(d) the President may ask both the Houses to reconsider it.

56. Commercial nitric acid is coloured because it contains dissolved
(a) Oxygen

(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Nitrogen dioxide

(d) Coloured impurities

57. Fertiliser having high nitrogen content is
(a) Urea

(b) Ammonium sulphate
(c) Ammonium nitrate

(d) Calcium citrate

58. Quantity of fresh air required for a man is
(a) 1000 cubic feet of air for every 20 minutes
(b) 1000 cubic feet of air for every 20 seconds
(c) 1000 cubic feet of air for every 10 minutes
(d) 1000 cubic feet of air for every 10 seconds

59. A compact disc (CD) is a data storage system of the type
(a) Magnetic

(b) Optical
(c) Electrical

(d) Electro mechanical

60. Surface tension in a liquid is due to
(a) Adhesive force between molecules
(b) Cohesive force between molecules
(c) Gravitational force between molecules
(d) Electrical force between molecules.

61. A circular plate, a cube and a sphere, all made up of same material and having the same mass, are heated to 300°C and left in a room. Which of them will have the slowest rate of cooling?
(a) Circular plate

(b) Cube
(c) Sphere
(d) All will cool at the same rate

62. Where does the oxygen that keeps us alive come from?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Carbonates absorbed from soil
(c) Oxides of minerals

(d) Water

63. Reserpine is used to
(a) reduce high blood pressure
(b) increase blood pressure when it is low
(c) alleviate pain

(d) cure arthritis

64. ‘ELISA’ test is employed to diagnose: 
(a) Polio virus

(b) AIDS antibodies
(c) Tuberculosis bacterium
(d) Cancer

65. Why excessive heating and repeated use of cooking oil is most undesirable? 
(a) The oil vapours can cause indoor pollution
(b) Carcinogenic substances like benzpyrene are produced

(c) Nutrient value of food is lost
(d) Loss and wastage of oil

66. The gas used for artificial fruit ripening of green fruit is- 
(a) Ethylene

(b) Acetylene

(c) Ethane

(d) Methane

67. Optic fibres are used in
(a) CAT scans

(b) X-ray photos
(c) Ultrasound scans

(d) Endoscopy

68. The three elements most needed in common fertilisers are
(a) Sulphur, Phosphorous and Sodium
(b) Nitrogen, Potassium and Phosphorous
(c) Phosphorous, Sodium and Nitrogen
(d) Calcium, Phosphorous and Potassium

69. What was the ultimate goal of Mahatma Gandhi’s Salt Satyagraha?
(a) repeal of Salt Satyagraha
(b) curtailment of the Government’s power
(c) economic relief to the common people
(d) ‘Purna Swaraj’ for India

 70. Who persuaded the ratings of the RIN (Royal India Navy) to surrender on the 23rd February 1946?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru and Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Vallabh Bhai Patel and M.A. Jinnah
(d) Morarji Desai and J.B. Kripalani

71. On September 20,.1932 Mahatma Gandhi began a fast unto death in Yervada Jail against
(a) British repression of the Satyagrahis.
(b) Violation of the GandhiIrwin Pact.
(c) Communal award of Ramsay MacDonald.
(d) Communal riots in Calcutta.

72. In 1939, for the first time, Gandhiji tried out his specific techniques of controlled mass struggle in a native state. He allowed a close associate of his to lead a satyagraha. Who was he?
(a) K. T. Bhashyam in Mysore
(b) Jamnalal Bajaj in Jaipur
(c) Vallabh Bhai Patel in Rajkot
(d) Nebakrushna Chaudhri in Dhenkanal

73. What is Obra known for?
(a) a new refinery

(b) a new aluminium plant
(c) a bird sanctuary

(d) a thermal power station

74. What is NABARD’s primary role?
(a) to provide term loans to state co-operative banks
(b) to assist state governments for share capital contribution
(c) to act as refinance institution
(d) All of the above

75. Where is the National Institute of Excellence in the field of Information Technology and Allied Sciences proposed to be set up?
(a) Bangalore

(b) Hyderabad
(c) Pune

(d) Allahabad

ANSWERS :

26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (d) 31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (a) 41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (b) 61. (c) 62. (a) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (c) 71. (c) 72. (c) 73. (d) 74. (d) 75. (b) 

 

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RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

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(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-5

(Mathematics)

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82. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 8. Which one of the following can never be their L.C.M.?
(a) 24

(b) 48
(c) 56

(d) 60

83. If the sum of two numbers is 22 and the sum of their squares is 404, then the product of the numbers is:
(a) 40

(b) 44
(c) 80

(d) 88

84.1/0.04 is equal to:
(a)1/40

(b) 2/5
(c) 5/2
(d) 25

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RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

RRB Group-D Exam Online Tests Series

 

86. The sum of first 20 odd natural numbers is equal to :
(a) 210

(b) 300
(c) 400

(d) 420

88. (6.5 × 6.5 – 45.5 + 3.5 × 3.5) is equal to :
(a) 10

(b) 9

(c) 7

(d) 6

89. What number should be subtracted from both terms of the ratio 15 : 19 in order to make it 3 : 4?
(a) 9

(b) 6

(c) 5

(d) 3

90. If p : q = r : s = t : u = 2 : 3, then (mp + nr + ot) : (mq + ns + ou) is equal to :
(a) 1 : 3

(b) 1 : 2

(c) 2 : 3

(d) 3 : 2

91. If a : b = c : d = e : f = 1 : 2, then (pa + qc + re) : (pb + qd + rf) is equal to
(a) p : (q + r)

(b) (p + q) : r
(c) 2 : 3

(d) 1 : 2

92. If x : y = 3 : 1, then x³ – y³ : x ³ + y³ = ?
(a) 13 : 14

(b) 14 : 13
(c) 10 : 11

(d) 11 : 10

93. If 10% of m is the same as 20% of n, then m : n is equal to
(a) 2 : 1

(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 10

(d) 1 :20

94. How many sides does a regular polygon have whose interior and exterior angles are in the ratio 2 : 1?

(a) 3

(b) 5

(c) 6

(d) 12

95. The area (in sq.cm.) of the largest circle that can be drawn inside a square of side 28 cm, is
(a) 17248

(b) 784

(c) 8624

(d) 616

96. The circumference of the base of a circular cylinder is 67π cm. The height of the cylinder Is equal to the diameter of the base. How many litres of water can it 
hold?
(a) 54 π cc

(b) 36π cc
(c) 0.054 π cc

(d) 0.54 π cc

97. If the circumference of a circle increases from 4n to 8, what change occurs in its area?
(a) It doubles

(b) It triples
(c) It quadruples

(d) It is halved

98. A starts business with Rs. 3500/- and after 5 months, B joins with A as his partner. After a year, the profit is divided in the ratio 2 : 3. What is B’s contribution in the capital?
(a) Rs. 8000/-
(b) Rs. 8500/-
(c) Rs. 9000/-

(d) Rs. 7500/-

99. A, B and C rent a pasture. A puts in 10 oxen for 7 months, B 12 oxen for 5 months and C 15 oxen for 3 months for grazing. If the rent of the pasture is Rs. 175/-, how much must C pay as his share of rent?
(a) Rs. 45/-

(b) Rs. 50/-
(c) Rs.55/-

(d) Rs. 60/-

100. A reduction of 20% in the price of oranges enables a man to buy 5 oranges more for Rs. 10/-. The price of an orange before reduction was:
(a) 20 paise

(b) 40 paise
(c) 50 paise

(d) 60 paise

ANSWERS :

76. (d) 77. (a) 78. (c) 79. (d) 80. (a) 81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (d) 85. (a) 86. (c) 87. (a) 88. (b) 89. (d) 90. (c) 91. (d) 92. (a) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (d) 96. (a) 97. (c) 98. (c) 99. (a) 100. (c)

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RRB Group-D Exam Study Kit

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड Group-D परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

RRB Group-D Exam Online Tests Series

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(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-5

(General Inteligence & Reasoning)

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Directions: Find the related word/letters/number to cornplete the Analogy.

1. Carbon : Diamond :: Corundum : ? 
(a) Garnet

(b) Ruby
(c) Pukhraj

(d) Pearl

2. Smoke : Pollution : : War
(a) Victory

(b) Peace
(c) Treaty

(d) Destruction

3. Ink : Pen : : Blood ? 
(a) Accident

(b) Doctor
(c) Vein

(d) Donation

4. BOQD : ERTG : : ANPC : ? 
(a) DQSF

(b) FSHU
(c) SHFU

(d) DSQF

5. AFKP : ZUPK :: BGLQ : ? 
(a) YUQM

(b) XURO
(c) YXWV

(d) YTOJ

6. 182 : ? :: 210 : 380
(a) 342

(b) 272
(c) 240

(d) 156

Directions: Find the odd one out from the given alterna lives. 

7. (a) Mizoram

(b) Sikkim
(c) Kohima

(d) Manipur

8. (a) Amoeba

(b) Bacteria
(c) Germs

(d) Microbes

9. (a) IJCD

(b) WUTS
(c) QRKL

(d) PQMN

10. (a) 8

(b) 42
(c) 49

(d) 35

 

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11. (a) 81 : 243

(b) 16: 64
(c) 64: 192

(d) 25: 75

Directions: Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?

12. 1. Book

2. Pulp
3. Timber

4. Jungle
5. Paper
(a) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4

(b) 2, 5, 1, 4, 3
(c) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1

(d) 5, 4, 3, 1, 2

Directions: Arrange the foll lowing words according to dictionary arrangement.

13. 1. Epitaxy

2. Episode
3. Epigene

4. Epitome

5. Epilogue
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

(b) 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
(c) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3

(d) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1

Directions: Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

14. — stt — tt — tts —
(a) tsst

(b) sstt
(c) ttst

(d) tsts

15. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters goes on increasing successively by one in the series. Identify the set following the above rule.
(a) AEIMQU

(b) EHKNQT
(c) DINSXC

(d) FHKOTZ

Directions: Find the missing number from the given responses.

16.2/3,7/7 , , , , 11/21,16/31
(a) 6/11

(b) 5/9
(c) 9/17

(d) 7/13

17. 25, 50, 30, 45, 35, 40, ? 
(a) 30

(b) 35

(c) 40

(d) 45

18. If ‘+’ stands for division, ‘÷’ stands for multiplication, ‘x’ stands for subtraction and ‘–’ stands for addition, which one of the following is correct?
(a) 18 ÷ 6 – 7 + 5 × 2 = 20
(b) 18 + 6 ÷ 7 × 5 – 2 = 18
(c) 18 × 6 ÷ 7 + 5 – 2 = 16
(d) 18 ÷ 6 × 7 + 5 – 2 = 22

19. If ‘–’ stands for division, ‘+’ for multiplication, ‘÷’ for subtraction and ‘×’ for addition, which one of the following equations is correct?
(a) 18 ÷ 3 × 2 + 8 – 6 = 10
(b) 18 – 3 + 2 × 8 ÷ 6 = 14
(c) 18 – 3 ÷ 2 × 8 + 6 = 17
(d) 18 × 3 + 2 ÷ 8 – 6 = 15

20. If 324 x 150 = 54, 251 x 402 = 48 and 523 x 246 = 120 then 651 x 345 =?
(a) 120

(b) 85
(c) 144

(d) 60

21. Some equations are solved on the basis of certain system. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis. 
If 12 × 7 = 408 and 9 × 8 = 207 then 13 x 7 = ?
(a) 190

(b) 91
(c) 901

(d) 109

22. If NOIDA is written as STNIF, how MEERUT can be written in that code?
(a) QIIVYX

(b) RJJWZV
(c) RJJWZY

(d) RIIVYX

23. In a certain code FORGET is written as DPPHCU, how would DOCTOR be written in that code?
(a) BPAUMS

(b) BPAUPS
(c) EMDRPP

(d) BPARPP

24. In a certain code DECEMBER is written as ERMBCEDE, in that code which word will be written as ERMBVENO?
(a) SEPTEMBER

(b) AUGUST
(c) NOVEMBER

(d) OCTOBER

25. If RED is coded as 6720, then how GREEN would be coded?
(a) 9207716

(b) 1677199
(c) 1677209

(d) 16717209

ANSWERS :

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (a) 21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. 

 

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(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-4

(General Awareness)

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26. Pope Benedict XVI who has been elected recently is the
(a) 250th Pope

(b) 260th Pope
(c) 265th Pope

(d) 270th Pope

27. Who among the following has been awarded the Pravasi Bharatiya Samman for his outstanding achievement in their field and fostering.understanding of India abroad ?
(a) Vikram Seth

(b) Ms. Indira Nooyi
(c) Laxmi Mittal

(d) Sunil Mittal

28. According to AT Kearney Inc, which country is the hottest destination for foreign direct investment? 
(a) India

(b) China
(c) Malaysia

(d) Mauritius

29. The country with which India has decided to exchange its border maps is: 
(a) Bangladesh

(b) China
(c) Bhutan

(d) Nepal

30. Per Capita income is maximum in which of the following states in India? 
(a) Himachal Pradesh

(b) Punjab
(c) Gujarat

(d) Goa

31. The author of the book “Environmental Jurispru-dence” is: 
(a) Justice Y.V. Chandrachud
(b) Justice Ashok A. Desai
(c) Justice A. K. Sood
(d) Justice Prem Nagar

32. Which one of the following is true regarding plant cells and animal cells ? 
(a) Plant cells contain chloroplast while animal cells do not.
(b) Plant cells are small while animal cells are large in size
(c) Plant cells contain nucleus while animal cells do not
(d) Plant cells and animal cells are similar in all respects

33. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was associated with- 
(a) Industrial Policy

(b) Banking Reforms

(c) Panchayati Raj

(d) Centre-State relations

34. The blood cholesterol level in 100 ml of blood in a normal person varies between- 
(a) 150 and 200 mg

(b) 120 and 200 mg

(c) 100 and 180 mg

(d) 80 and 160 mg

35. What is the name of the electronic communication network of the Reserve Bank of India ? 
(a) BOLT

(b) RBISAT
(c) RBINET

(d) RBIDOT

36. Heat resistant variety of glass is- 
(a) Pyrex glass

(b) Hard glass

(c) Flint glass

(d) None of these

37. Which of the following is correctly matched ? 
(a) “Do or die” - Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) “Dilli Chalo” - Mahatma Gandhi
(c) “Jai Jawan Jai Kisan” Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) “Swaraj is my birthright”-Swami Dayanand

38. Pope John Paul II who died recently belonged from- 
(a) Vatican City

(b) England

(c) Germany

(d) Poland

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39. Silk is obtained from- 
(a) Mulberry tree

(b) Saliva of the silk worm
(c) Larvae of silk worm
(d) Cocoon of silk worm

40. The body temperature is regulated by- 
(a) Pituitory gland

(b) Hypothalamus

(c) Pineal gland

(d) Thyroid gland

41. Among the following iron ores, the highest percentage of iron content is found in- 
(a) Haemetite

(b) Magnetite

(c) Limnonite

(d) None of these

42. A country’s balance of trade is unfavourable when - 
(a) exports exceed imports
(b) imports exceed exports
(c) terms of trade become unfavourable
(d) None of these

43. Pasteurisation of milk mean- 
(a) heating of milk to above 72°C

(b) heating of milk to above 62°C
(c) cooling of milk to about 62°C
(d) cooling of milk to about 10°C

44. The highest mountain peak of the Himalayas is situated in- 
(a) India

(b) Tibet

(c) Nepal

(d) China

45. Goa was captured by the Por- tuguese in the year- 
(a) 1508

(b) 1608

(c) 1510

(d) 1610

46. The light from the Sun reaches the Earth in about- 
(a) 8 seconds

(b) 8 minutes

(c) 10 seconds

(d) 10 minutes

47. The data collection for national income estimation is con- ducted in India by- 
(a) The Finance Ministry of the Government of India

(b) The RBI
(c) The NSSO (National Sample Survey Organisation)
(d) None of these

48. Which of the following statements best explains the nature of revolt of 1857 ? 
(a) The last effort of the old political order to regain power.
(b) Mutiny of a section of sepoys of the British Army
(c) A struggle of the common people to overthrow common rule
(d) An effort to establish a limited Indian nation

49. Match the following
A. Brahmo Samaj 1. Bombay
B. Veda Samaj     2. Bengal
C. Arya Samaj     3. Madras
D. Prarthana        4. North India Samaj

         A        B      C      D
(a)     1        3      2       4
(b)     3        2      4       1
(c)     2        4      1       3
(d)     2        3      4       1

50. Land Revenue under Tipu- 
(a) was mainly collected through revenue officers.

(b) was mainly collected by Government officials appointed by Tipu
(c) was collected by intermediaries
(d) was not allowed to go into the hands of Sultan

51. In India the largest public undertaking is - 
(a) Air India

(b) Indian Railways
(c) IOC

(d) LIC

52. Who was the advocate at the famous INA Trials? 
(a) Bhulabhai Desai

(b) Asaf Ali
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) C. Rajagopalachari

53. Punjab National Bank has been honoured with the Golden Peacock Award 2002 for excellence in- 
(a) agricultural finance

(b) rural industrialisation

(c) housing development

(d) corporate excellence

54. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution ? 
(a) J. B. Kripalani

(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) J. L. Nehru

(d) B. R. Ambedkar

55. Which year did Bankim Chandra Chatopadhyay write Anandmath ? 
(a) 1858

(b) 1892
(c) 1882

(d) None of these

56. The Governor-General of India who initiated the introduction of English in India was- 
(a) Lord Curzon

(b) Lord Macaulay

(c) Lord Bentinck

(d) Lord Hastings

57. Who is the winner of the Australian Open Women’s Singles Championship-2005 ? 
(a) Serena Williams

(b) Sania Mirza
(c) Maria Sarapova

(d) Lindsay Davenport

58. Monoculture is a typical characteristic of- 
(a) shifting cultivation

(b) subsistence farming

(c) specialised horticulture
(d) commercial grain farming

59. Mountain soil contains a lot of- 
(a) humus

(b) clay

(c) coase material

(d) iron and aluminium salt

60. Metamorphic rocks originate from- 
(a) igneous rocks

(b) sedimentary rocks

(c) both igneous and sedimentary rocks
(d) None of these

61. The term ‘epicentre’ is associated with- 
(a) earthquake

(b) folding

(c) faulting

(d) earth’s interior

62. India is a republic because- 
(a) it is democratic country

(b) It is a parliamentary democracy
(c) the head of the state is elected for a definite period
(d) All of these

63. Blizzards are characteristic lea lures of- 
(a) equatorial region

(b) tropical region

(c) Antarctic region

(d) temperate region

64. Which is the shortest route from Moscow to San Francisco ? 
(a) via Canada

(b) overland
(c) Over the South Pole

(d) Over the North Pole

65. Which one of the following is/ are wrongly matched ? 
A. typhoons - China Sea
B. hurricanes - India Ocean
C. cyclone - West Indies
D. tornadoes - Australia
(a) A, B and C

(b) A, B and D
(c) A, C and D

(d) B, C and D

66. Echo sounding is the technique applied to- 
(a) measure the depth of the sea

(b) measure the amplitude of sound waves
(c) record earthquake waves
(d) record the density of air in the atmosphere

67. Of which major river system is the Sutlej a part? 
(a) Indus

(b) Ganga
(c) Brahmaputra

(d) Yamuna

68. Rajasthan reveives very little rain because- 
(a) it is too hot

(b) there is no water available and thus the winds remain dry
(c) the monsoon fails to reach this area
(d) the winds do not come across any barriers to cause the necessary uplift to cool the wind

69. Which State has the largest proportion of its net irrigation area under well irrigation ? 
(a) Haryana

(b) Bihar
(c) Gujarat

(d) West Bengal

70. Which Government agency is responsible for the mapping and exploration of minerals in India ? 
(a) Survey of India
(b) Geological Survey of India
(c) Minerals Development Corporation
(d) School of Mines

71. The largest number of cotton textile mills is in- 
(a) Maharashtra

(b) Gujarat

(c) Tamil Nadu

(d) Karnataka

72. Where are MIG engines assembled ? 
(a) Koraput

(b) Nasik
(c) Bangalore

(d) Ozar

73. Which cities were first connected by the STD services? 
(a) Delhi and Mumhal

(b) Delhi and Kolkata
(c) Kanpur and Delhi

(d) Kanpur and Lucknow

74. Which part of the Himalayas has the maximum stretch from east to West ? 
(a) Kumaun Himalayas

(b) Assam Himalayas
(c) Punjab Himalayas

(d) Nepal Himalayas

75. The standard time of a country differs from the GMT in multiples of- 
(a) Two hours

(b) One hour

(c) Half hour

(d) Four minutes

ANSWERS :

26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (d) 31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (b) 41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (b) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (c) 61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (a) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (c) 71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (d) 74. (d) 75. 

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(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-4

(General Inteligence & Reasoning)

1. As Lira is related to Italy, so is taka related to which country?
(a) Pakistan

(b) India
(c) England

(d) Bangladesh

2. As soft is related to wax, so is leather related to what ?
(a) Plain

(b) Rough
(c) Smooth

(d) Tough

3. As music is related to tune, so is design related to -
(a) Beauty

(b) Building
(c) Architecture

(d) Symmetry

4. As alphabet is related to letters, similarly necklace is related to what ?
(a) Gold

(b) Beads
(c) Ornament

(d) Silver

5. Paddy : Field :: Steel . ?
(a) Iron

(b) Factory
(c) Ore

(d) Mine

6. Laugh : Joke :: ? : Cracker
(a) Fear

(b) Anger
(c) Fireball

(d) Explode

7. President : India: : King
(a) England

(b) China
(c) Jordan

(d) France

8. Light : Rays: : Sound : ? 
(a) Audio

(b) Wave
(c) Hear

(d) Visual

9. PCWL : REXM :: THNY : ‘? 
(a) OZPL

(b) KOVZ
(c) PMKZ

(d) VJOZ

Directions: Find out the missing letter number in each of the following questions ? 
10. 0, 2, 6, 12, ?. 30. 42
(a) 24

(b) 20
(c) 21

(d) 22

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11. 5, 7, 11, 19, 35, 67, ?, 259
(a) 130

(b) 129
(c) 131

(d) 140

12. 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, 127, ? 
(a) 255

(b) 260
(c) 245

(d) 265

13. 7, 12, 22, 37, ?,82,112,147

(a) 50

(b) 58
(c) 57

(d) 156

14. –1, 2, 7, ?, 23, 34, 47
(a) 13

(b) 14
(c) 12

(d) 15

15. a-bbc-aab-as-abba- 
(a) cabaa

(b) bacba

(c) bbaaa

(d) aabba

16. nc-dcn—cddc-n-ddcnn-d
(a) cdndc

(b) dnncc
(c) dcndd

(d) nccdn

Directions: Identify the odd man out in the following questions. 

17. (a) Gupta dynasty
(b) Nanda dynasty
(c) Maurya dyasty
(d) Chola dynasty

18. (a) Vayudoot
(b) Pushkar
(c) Indian Airlines
(d) Air India

19. (a) Andaman-Nicobar
(b) Puducherry
(c) Delhi (d) Goa

20. (a) Violent

(b) Blue
(c) Green

(d) White

21. (a) CRDT

(b) APBQ
(c) EUFV

(d) GWHX

22. (a) Harmless

(b) Guilty
(c) Innocent

(d) Fearless

23. (a) 2

(b) 5
(c) 8

(d) 11

24. (a) 44

(b) 66
(c) 132

(d) 300

25. (a) Diptheria

(b) Cataract
(c) Whooping Cough
(d) Encephalitis

ANSWERS :

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. 

 

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(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-4

(Mathematics)

76. The value of (256)0.16 × (256)0.09 is : 
(a) 256.25

(b) 64
(c) 16

(d) 4

77. Simplify : 

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90. Fraction between 2/5 and 4/9 is : 

(a) 3/7

(b) 2/3

(c) 4/5

(d) 1/2

91. If 1/3 of a tank holds 80 litres of water, then the quantity of water that 1/2 tank holds is : 
(a) 240 litres

(b) 120 litres
(c) 80/3 litres

(d) 100 litres

92. The LCM of two numbers is 495 and their HCF is 5. If the sum of numbers is 100, then their difference is : 
(a) 10

(b) 46
(c) 70

(d) 90

93. LCM of two numbers is 225 and their HCF is 5. If one number is 25, the other number will be : 
(a) 5

(b) 25
(c) 45

(d) 225

94.2/3 of three-fourth of a number is: 
(a) 1/2 of the number

(b) 1/3 of the number

(c) 8/9 of the number

(d) 17/12 of the number

95. If we write 45 as sum of four numbers so that when 2 is added to first number, 2 subtracted from second number, third multiplied by 2 and fourth divided by 2, we get the same result, then the four numbers are:
(a) 1, 8, 15, 21

(b) 8, 12, 5, 20
(c) 8, 12, 10, 15

(d) 2, 12, 5, 26

96. Four numbers are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4. Their sum is 16. The sum of the first and fourth number is equal to :

(a) 5

(b) 8
(c) 10

(d) 80

97. If 3 times a number exceeds its 3/5 by 60, then what is the number?
(a) 25

(b) 35
(c) 45

(d) 60

98. The numeraor and denominator of a fraction are in the ratio of 2 : 3. If 6 is subtracted from the numerator, the result is a fration that has a value 2/3 of the original fraction. The numerator of the original fraction is :
(a) 6

(b) 18
(c) 27

(d) 36

99. The sum of three consecutive odd natural numbers is 147. Then, the middle number is :
(a) 47

(b) 48
(c) 49

(d) 51

100. If 5432*2 is divisible by 9, then the digit in place of * is :
(a) 0

(b) 1
(c) 6

(d) 9

ANSWERS :

76. (d) 77. (c) 78. (c) 79. (a) 80. (d) 81. (c) 82. (c) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (d) 86. (b) 87. (a) 88. (l) 89. (d) 90. (a) 91. (b) 92. (a) 93. (c) 94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (b) 97. (l) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (c)

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(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-3

(Mathematics)

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76. A man buys 12 articles for Rs. 12/- and sells them at the rate of Rs. 1.25 per ar- ticle. His gain percentage is
(a) 20

(b) 25
(c) 15

(d) 18

77. The cost price of 15 articles is same as the selling price of 10 articles. The profit per cent is:
(a) 30%

(b) 40%
(c) 50%

(d) 45%

78. By selling an article for Rs. 240, a man incurrs a loss of 10%. At what price should he sell it, so that he makes a profit of 20% ?
(a) Rs. 264

(b) Rs. 288
(c) Rs. 300

(d) Rs. 320

79. A house and a shop were sold for Rs. 1 lakh each. In this transaction, the house sale resulted into 20% loss whereas the shop sale into 20% profit. The entire transaction resulted in
(a) no loss no gain

(b) gain of Rs. 1/24 lakh

(c) loss of Rs. 1/12 lakh

(d) loss of Rs.1/18 lakh

80. If a man estimates his loss as 20% of the selling price, then his loss per cent is
(a) 20%

(b) 25%
(c)40/3%
(d) Data inadequate

81. If x = 1/3y and Y =1/2z ,then x : y : z, is equal to
(a) 3: 2: 1

(b) 1: 2: 6
(c) 1: 3: 6

(d) 2: 4: 6

82. Divide Rs. 1250 among A, B, C, so that A gets 2/9 of B’ss share and C gets 4 of A’s share. 
(a) Rs. 200, Rs. 800, Rs. 250
(b) Rs. 200, Rs. 900, Rs. 150
(c) Rs. 150, Rs. 800, Rs. 300
(d) Rs. 200, Rs. 900, Rs. 75

83. The ratio of two numbers is 3 :8 and their difference is 115. The smaller of the two numbers is
(a) 184

(b) 194
(c) 69

(d) 59

84. Between two consecutive years my incomes are in the ratio of 2 : 3 and expenses in the ratio 5 : 9. If my income in the second year is Rs. 45000 and my expenses in the first year is Rs. 25000 my total savings for the two years is
(a) Nil

(b) Rs. 15000
(c) Rs. 10000

(d) Rs. 5000

85. Rs. 180 contained in a box consists of one rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. What is the number of 50 paise coins?
(a) 60

(b) 120
(c) 150

(d) 180

86. Of the three numbers whose average is 60, the first is one fourth of the sum of the others. The first number is
(a) 30

(b) 36
(c) 42

(d) 45

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87. The average of 11 numbers is 10.8. If the average of the first six be 10.4 and that of the last six is 11.5, then the middle (6th) number is
(a) 10.3

(b) 12.6
(c) 13.5

(d) 15.5

88. The average age of 12 players of a team is 25 years. If the captain’s age is included, the average age increases by 1 year. The age of the captain is :
(a) 25 yrs.

(b) 38 yrs.
(c) 36 yrs.

(d) 26 yrs.

89. The average income of 40 persons is Rs. 4200 and that of another 35 persons is Rs. 4000. The average income of the whole group is:
(a) Rs. 4100

(b) Rs. 4106 3
(c) Rs. 410623

(d) Rs. 4108 3

90. The length of the diagonal of a square is ‘a’ cm. Which of the following represents the area of the square (in sq. cm.) ?
(a) 2a

(b) a/√2

(c) a²/2

(d) a²/4

91. If the volumes of two cubes are in the ratio 27: 1, the ratio of their edges is
(a) 3 : 1

(b) 27 : 1
(c) 1 :3

(d) 1 : 27

92.The sides of a rectangular plot are in the ratio 5:4 and its area is equal to 500 sq.m. The perimeter of the plot is
(a) 80m.

(b) 100m.
(c) 90m.

(d) 95m.

93. The radius of a wheel is 21 cm. How many revolution will it make in travelling 924 metres?

(a) 7

(b) 11
(c) 200

(d) 700

94. The edges of a cuboid are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and its surface area is 88cm² . The volume of the cuboid is:

(a) 120 cm³

(b) 64 cm³

(c) 48 cm³

(d) 24 cm³

95. The area of a sector of a circle of radius 5 cm, formed by an arc of length 3.5 cm is
(a) 8.5 cm²

(b) 8.75 cm²

(c) 7.75 cm²

(d) 7.50 cm²

97. A solid metallic cone of height 10 cm, radius of base 20 cm is melted to make spherical balls each of 4 cm. diameter. How many such balls can be made ?
(a) 25

(b) 75
(c) 50

(d) 125

98. The height of a conical tank is 60 cm and the diameter of its base is 64cm. The cost of painting it from outside at the rate of Rs. 35 per sq. m. is
(a) Rs. 52.00 approx.

(b) Rs. 39.20 approx.
(c) Rs. 35.20 approx.

(d) Rs. 23.94 approx.

99. A cylindrical tank of diameter 35 cm is full of water. If 11 litres of water is drawn off, the water level in the tank will drop by :

100. A and B can do a piece of work in 72 days. B and C can do it in 120 days, A and C can do it in 90 days. In how many days all the three together can do the work ?
(a) 80 days

(b) 100 days
(c) 60 days

(d) 150 days

ANSWERS :

76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (d) 81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (d) 85. (b) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (c) 91. (a) 92. (c) 93. (d) 94. (c) 95. (b) 96. (c) 97. (d) 98. (d) 99. (d) 100. (c)

 

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(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-3

(General Awareness)

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26. The most important uranium mine of India is located at
(a) Manavalakurichi

(b) Gauribidanur
(c) Vashi

(d) Jaduguda

27. Parliamentary forni of Government is also known as:
(a) Responsive Government
(b) Responsible Government
(c) Federal Government

(d) Presidential Government

28. The chief advocate of Fascism was
(a) Mussolini

(b) Adolf Hitler
(c) St. Simon

(d) Robert Owen

29. The minimum age of the member of Rajya Sabha is
(a) 25 years

(b) 21 years
(c) 30 years

(d) 35 years

30. Mahatma Gandhi got his inspiration for Civil Disobedience from
(a) Tuoreau

(b) Ruskin
(c) Confucius

(d) Tolstoy

31. India is considered as a ‘Republic’ Mainly because
(a) the head of the State is elected.
(b) it gained independence on 15th August 1947
(c) it has its own written constitution
(d) it is having a Parliamentary form of Government.

32. The first Indian selected for Indian Civil Service was
(a) Surendra Nath Banerji

(b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai

(d) C. R. Das

33. One feature is common to the following bodies. Find it out. Supreme Court, Election Commission, UPSC, Office of CAG
(a) They are advisory bodies.
(b) They are extra constitutional bodies
(c) They are controlled by legislature.
(d) They are constitutional bodies.

34. How many members of the State Legislative Council are elected by the Assembly ?
(a) 1/6 th of the members

(b) 1/3rd of the members

(c) 1/12 th of the members

(d) 5/6th of the members

35. Girish Karnad is
(a) a well known playwright and actor.
(b) a recipient of Gnanpith Award
(c) the President of the Film and Television Institute of Indian Society.
(d) all the above.

36. Nine time Wimbledon Champion of Women’s Singles Match in Tennis is
(a) Mary Joe Fernandaz

(b) Jana Novotna
(c) Iva Majoli

(d) Martina Navrotilova

37. The book “The God of small things” is written by
(a) Pupul Jayakar

(b) Sobha De
(c) Shekhar Kapoor

(d) Arundhati Roy

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38. Which of the following states is called Tiger State’ of India?
(a) Himachal Pradesh

(b) Gujarat
(c) Madhya Pradesh

(d) Assam

39. The district Primary Education Programme-a Centrally Sponsored Programme in India is supported by
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) World Bank

(c) UNESCO
(d) Japanese Government

40. ‘Na Khatam Honewali Kahani’ (The never ending story) is an autobiography of
(a) T.N. Seshan

(b) Amitabh Bachchan
(c) Sonia Gandhi

(d) V.P. Singh

41. From where was India’s multipurpose telecommunication satellite INSAT-2 E launched?
(a) Baikanour

(b) Thumba
(c) Sriharikota

(d) Kourou

42. Antyodaya Programme is associated with
(a) liberation of bonded labour
(b) bringing up cultural revolution in India
(c) demands of textile labourers
(d) upliftment of the poorest of the poor

43. A few years ago an Indian city celebrated its 400th birthday. It is
(a) Bangalore

(b) Hyderabad
(c) Trivandrum

(d) Mumbai

44. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade was replaced by
(a) North American Free Trade Association
(b) South Asian Free Trade
(c) World Trade Organisation
(d) None of these

45. Which statement on the Harappan Civilisation is correct?
(a) Horse sacrifice was known to them.
(b) Cow was sacred to them.
(c) Pashupati was venerated by them.
(d) The culture was not generally static.

46. The First Tirthankara of the Jams was
(a) Arishtanemi

(b) Parshvanath
(c) Ajitanath

(d) Rishabha

47. The great silk route to the Indians was opened by:
(a) Kanishka

(b) Ashoka

(c) Harsha

(d) Fa-Hien

48. The capital of the Yadava rulers was
(a) Dwarasamudra
(b) Warangal
(c) Kalyani

(d) Devagiri

49. Which religious sect did the Chola Kings patronise ?
(a) Jainism

(b) Buddhism
(c) Saivism

(d) Vaishnavism

50. Tower of Victory (Vijaya Stambh) is located at
(a) Delhi

(b) Jhansi
(c) Chittorgarh

(d) Fatehpur Sikri

51. Who amongst the following leaders of “1857” was the first to lay down his/her life?
(a) Kunwar Singh

(b) Tantiya Tope
(c) Rani Laxmi Bai of Jhansi
(d) Mangal Pandey

52. The system of communal electorate in India was first introduced by
(a) Indian Council Act of 1892.
(b) Minto-Morley reforms of 1909
(c) Montagu-Chelmsford reforms of 1919
(d) Government of India of 1935

53. Which of the following is not a necessary condition for the development of India ?
(a) Capital Accumulation
(b) Resource discovery
(c) Population growth
(d) Technological development

54. Personal disposable income is
(a) always equal to personal income.
(b) always more than personal income.
(c) equal to personal income minus direct taxes paid by household.
(d) equal to personal income minus indirect taxes.

55. Which of the following most closely approximates our definition of oligopoly ?
(a) The cigarette industry.
(b) The barber shops
(c) The gasoline stations
(d) Wheat farmers

56. Who said ‘Supply creates its own demand’?
(a) Adam Smith

(b) J.B.Saw
(c) Marshall

(d) Ricardo

57. The Indian economy can be most appropriately described as a:
(a) Capitalist economy

(b) Socialist economy
(c) Traditional economy

(d) Mixed economy

58. Agricultural Technology is hard to spread because
(a) it has to be adopted to local ‘ conditions.
(b) rural people are not receptive

(c) farmers are afraid to experiment on land for fear of failure.
(d) all of the above.

59. Indirect tax means
(a) there is not direct relationship between the tax payer and the government.
(b) direct relationship between tax payer and the government.
(c) tax base is income 
(d) the incidence and impact are on the same person on whom tax is imposed.

60. One of the essential conditions of perfect competition is
(a) product differentiation
(b) multiplicity of prices for identical products at any one time.
(c) many sellers and a few buyers.
(d) Only one price for identical goods at any one time.

61. Dehydration in human body is caused due to the loss of
(a) vitamins

(b) salts
(c) hormones

(d) water

62. Which of the following is the largest living bird?
(a) Eagle

(b) Peacock
(c) Ostrich

(d) Kiwi

63. In the case of test tube babies
(a) egg is fertilized in the uterus.
(b) embryo completes its development in a test tube.
(c) embryo is placed in uterus after 2 months.
(d) egg is fertilized outside mother’s body.

64. The age of trees is determined by its
(a) girth

(b) height
(c) growth rings
(d) general appearance

65. Kidney disease in man is caused by the pollutant
(a) Cadmium

(b) Iron
(c) Cobalt

(d) Carbon

66. Fruits of this plant are found underground
(a) Potato

(b) Carrot
(c) Groundnut

(d) Onion

67. A rare and endangered ani- mal in Silent Valley is
(a) Musk deer

(b) Tiger
(c) Liontailed macaque

(d) Rhinosores

68. A boat will submerge when it displaces water equal to its own :
(a) volume

(b) weight
(c) surface area

(d) density

69. The asteroids revolve round the Sun in between
(a) Earth and Mars

(b) Mars and Jupiter
(c) Jupiter and Saturn

(d) Saturn and Uranus

70. The Suez Canal connects
(a) Mediterranean and Red seas.

(b) Baltic and Caspian Seas.
(c) Mediterranean and North Seas.
(d) Red Sea and Caspian Sea.

71. Khasi and Garo Tribes mainly live in
(a) Meghalaya

(b) Nagaland
(c) Mizoram

(d) Manipur

72. Which one of the following areas is noted for mangrove vegetation ?
(a) Lava forest of Kalimpong.
(b) Sajnekhali forest of South 24 Parganas.
(c) Dandakaranya forest of Orissa
(d) Carbet National Park of U.P.

73. Extensive deserts occur in the western tropical regions of continents because
(a) of easterly trade winds.
(b) cold ocean currents flow along the western coasts.
(c) of the effect of both the offshore easterly trade winds and cold ocean currents.
(d) the rate of evaporation is greater along the western margin areas.

74. The sea bed sloping gradually and bordering the continent is known as
(a) Coast

(b) Continental Shelf.
(c) Continental Platform.

(d) Continental Slope.

75. Match list I with list II and find out the correct answer from the code below the Lists.
List I(Cottage Industrial Products)
(a) Silk Saree

(b) Chikan
(c) Terracota

(d) Brass
List II(Producing Centres)
(a) Moradabad

(b) Gorakhpur
(c) Varanasi

(d) Lucknow Code
         a      b        c     d
(a)     1     2        3     4
(b)     3     4        2     1
(c)     4     3        1     2
(d)     2    1         4     3

ANSWERS :

26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (d) 31. (a) 32. (*) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (*) 41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (c) 51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (d) 61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (b) 70. (a) 71. (a) 72. (b) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (b) 

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(Papers) RRB Group D : Exam Paper & Answer Key Set-2

(General Awareness)

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26. Postal voting is otherwise called
(a) plural voting

(b) proxy voting
(c) weighted voting

(d) secret voting

27. Stability of the Government is assured in
(a) Parliamentary Form of Government.
(b) Presidential Form of Government.
(c) Plural Executive System
(d) Direction Democracy

28. According to the Indian Constitution, the vacancy in the office of the President of India shall be filled within
(a) 1 month

(b) 6 months
(c) 3 months

(d) 1 year

29. Who is the Tennis star to become World No. 1 seed at the youngest age?
(a) Stefii Graf

(b) Monica Seles
(c) Chris Evert

(d) Martina Hingis

30. What is “Vishva Mohini”?
(a) Name for India’s Beauty Queen
(b) The title given to Lata Mangeshkar for her contribution to music
(c) An Indian ship
(d) A famous book on Indian dances

31. The main function of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) is
(a) enforcing of Uruguay Round Agreements
(b) facilitating multilateral trade relations of member countries and reviewing trade policies
(c) administering trade dispute settlement procedures
(d) None of the above

32. Name the author of the book A Passage to England
(a) E. M. Forster

(b) Nirad C. Choudhary
(c) Vikram Seth

(d) Eric Segal

33. Which is the long-range missile that was tested by Pakistan in the wake of India testing Agni II?
(a) Ghauri II

(b) Shaheen I
(c) Hatf I

(d) Half II

34. The Indian Naval Ship being converted into a maritime museum is
(a) Sagar Samrat

(b) Kanishka
(c) Samrat Ashoka

(d) Vikrant

35. Prof. Amartya Sen is these days in the news because :
(a) he is internationally known as a leading social economist
(b) he has been awarded ‘Bharat Ratna’
(c) he is a recipient of Nobel Prize.
(d) All of the above

36. The first country to legalize medically assisted suicide is
(a) Australia

(b) United States
(c) Netherlands

(d) Switzerland

37. The Baisakhi Festival of the year 1999 is of great historical significance to Punjab because
(a) it commemorates the tercentenary of the foundation of Khalsa Panth
(b) it being the last such festival of the twentieth century
(c) of participation by a large number of Punjabis who are non resident Indians
(d) None of the above

38. Exobiology deals with the study of
(a) external characters of living organisms
(b) life on the surface of the earth
(c) life in the outer layers of atmosphere
(d) life in other planets and space

39. The Social System of the Harappans was
(a) Fairly egalitarian
(b) Slave-Labour based
(c) Colour (Varna) based
(d) Caste based

40. Which of the following Vedas provides information about the civilisation of the Early Vedic Age?
(a) Rig-veda

(b) Yajur-veda
(c) Atharva-veda

(d) Sama-veda

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41. The university which became famous in the post-Gupta Era was
(a) Kanchi

(b) Taxila
(c) Nalanda

(d) Vallabhi

42. Banabhatta was the court poet of which emperor?
(a) Vikramaditya

(b) Kumaragupta
(c) Harshavardhana

(d) Kanishka

43. The first Indian ruler, who established the supremacy of Indian Navy in the Arabian Sea was
(a) Rajaraja I

(b) Rajendra I
(c) Rajadhiraja I

(d) Kulottunga I

44. The Mughal painting reaches its / zenith during the reign of
(a) Akbar

(b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan

(d) Aurangzeb

45. Permanent Revenue settlement of Bengal was introduced by
(a) Clive

(b) Hastings
(c) Wellesley

(d) Cornwallis

46. The father of extremist movement in India is
(a) Motilal Nehru

(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Vallabhbhai Patel

(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

47. The World Bank normally gives
(a) short-term loans

(b) medium-term loans
(c) long-term loans
(d) medium and long-term loans

48. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) came into existence with
(a) Berlin Conference

(b) London Conference
(c) Brettonwoods Conference
(d) Rome Conference

49. Multiplier process in economic theory is conventionally taken to mean
(a) the manner in which prices increase
(b) the manner in which banks create credit
(c) income of an economy grows on account of an initial investment
(d) the manner in which government expenditure increases

50. Structural adjustment loans given by the World Bank are meant for
(a) increasing employment in agriculture
(b) increasing export-earning capacity of the borrower country
(c) reducing inequalities of income distribution
(d) encouraging capital-intensive industries

51. A financial instrument is called a ‘primary security’ if it represents the liability of
(a) some ultimate borrower
(b) the Government of India
(c) a primary cooperative bank
(d) a commercial bank

52. Service cooperatives are
(a) single purpose societies
(b) credit societies
(c) marketing societies
(d) multi-purpose societies

53. Output at break-even point is that output at which the producer is able to
(a) recover only operating costs
(b) recover total costs
(c) wipe out earlier losses
(d) earn a normal profit

54. India’s share in world trade since 1950.
(a) has been rising

(b) has been constant
(c) has been declining

(d) has shown a mixed trend

55. Animals do not have enzyme systems which enable them to make use of the energy from
(a) fat

(b) water
(c) protein

(d) carbohydrate

56. A clone is a colony of
(a) cells having different shapes
(b) cells having similar shape
(c) cells having similar genetic constitution
(d) cells having different genetic constitutions

57. The pollen grains of flowers pollinated by insects are:
(a) smooth and dry

(b) rough and sticky
(c) rough and dry

(d) large and showy

58. Which one of the following substances is used for preservation of food grains?
(a) Sodium benzoate

(b) Vinegar
(c) Sodium chloride
(d) Potassium permanganate

59. The disease caused by Asbestos is
(a) Emphysema

(b) Paralysis
(c) Diarrhoea

(d) Dysentery

60. In the eye, colour vision is effected by the presence of
(a) Choroid coat

(b) Sclerotic coat
(c) Rods

(d) Cones

61. Who has became the youngest lawmaker of Britain at the age of 20?
(a) Mhairi Black

(b) Julie Watson
(c) Linda Murray

(d) Renji Root

62. Congress President Sonia Gandhi has presented the G.K. Reddy Memorial National Award to whom of the folllowing? 
(a) Vinod Mehta

(b) Rajeev Shukla
(c) Abhishek Bansal

(d) Neeraj Kohli

63. Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Saturday has launched three ambitious social security schemes, relating to the insurance and pension sector and intended at widening the process of financial inclusion.Which of the following is not among those?
(a) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (accident insurance)
(b) Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Yojana (life insurance)
(c) Kisan Jeevan Jyoti Yojana (life insurance)
(d) Atal Pension Yojana” (Pension)

64. In which state Prime minister Narendra Modi has inaugurated the upgraded steel plant of IISCO that has the country’s largest blast furnace?
(a) Burnpur, West Bengal
(b) Hamirpur,Himachal Pradesh
(c) Chandipur,West Bengal
(d) Raipur, Chattisgarh

65. Which Bank has emerged the only Indian company among the world’s 10 biggest consumer financial services firms, after giants like American Express, Visa and Mastercard?
(a) State Bank Of India

(b) ICICI Bank
(c) HDFC Bank

(d) IDBI Bank

66. Who has won Spanish Grand Prix 2015?
(a) Hamilton murray

(b) Sebastian Vette
(c) Andy Smith

(d) Nico Rosberg

67. Name the Malaysian woman who has become the world’s oldest women(and also the oldest living person, presently). 
(a) Nurul Yeoh

(b) Yati Musdi
(c) Michele Chia

(d) Celine Choo

68. In which country, military chopper has crashed 7 people including the ambassadors of the Philippines and Norway? 
(a) Russia

(b) Pakistan
(c) Afghanistan

(d) Yemen

69. Who has been appointed as the new member in the Central Board of Direct Taxes, the apex policy making body of the Income Tax department? 
(a) S K Ray

(b) P K shah
(c) Anil Bansal

(d) Suraj Kapoor

70. Which political party has expelled the Anupriya Patel,Member of Parliament from all party posts? 
(a) Apna Dal

(b) Janta Dal
(c) AAP

(d) Bharatiya Janta Party

71. Who has crowned with TOISA Sports person Of the year ? 
(a) Jitu Rai

(b) Saina Nehwal
(c) Mary Kom

(d) Virat Kohli

72. Who has Crowned “ Lifetime Achievement Of The Year” from the legendary Olympic Champion Carl Lewis and Times Group MD Vineet Jain in a ceremony that was attended by India’s sporting people?

(a) Sachin Tendulkar

(b) Kapil Dev
(c) Milkha Singh

(d) P T usha

73. Who has won the “Youth Icon of the Year” at TOISA?
(a) Jitu Rai

(b) Saina Nehwal
(c) Mary Kom

(d) Virat Kohli

74. Name the veteran film actor conferred with the prestigious Dada Saheb Phalke award at the landmark Prithvi Theatre in Mumbai by Union Information and Broadcasting Minister on 10th May’15.
(a) Shashi Kapoor

(b) Mukhesh khanna
(c) Rekha

(d) Anil Kapoor
(5) None of these

75. Name the Programme under which Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 10th May’15 has unveiled three social security schemes.
(a) Bharat Nirman

(b) Jansurakhsha
(c) Manav Suraksha

(d) Safe India

Answer Keys :

26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (d) 31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (a) 41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (d) 51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (d) 61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (a) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (a) 71. (a) 72. (c) 73. (b) 74. (a) 75. (b) 

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